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Round 1 Review

Wrong Questions Round FA Part 2

QuestionAnswer
What are the two arterial bodies (vessels) that supply the head of the Pancreas? Gastroduodenal artery and the Superior Mesenteric artery
What is an important branch of the Common Hepatic artery which provides blood supply to the head to the Pancreas? Gastroduodenal artery
Is the SMA or IMA part of the blood supply to the head of the Pancreas? Superior Mesenteric artery
What artery supplies the neck, body and tail of the Pancreas? Splenic artery
What part of the pancreas is supplied by the Splenic artery? Neck, body, and tail of pancreas
What is the main histological finding of the Granulosa cell tumors? Call-Exner bodies
What hormone is produced by Granulosa cell tumors of the ovaries? Estrogen
Which ovarian tumors are known to secrete or produce Estrogen? Granulosa cell tumors
What hormone induces the production of Estrogen in Granulosa cell tumors? FSH
FSH causes what effect on Granulosa cell tumors? Induces the production of Estrogen by Granulosa cell tumors
What is an important complication of early and late myocardial infarction? Fibrinous pericarditis
What is the common name of autoimmune carditis? Dressler syndrome
What autoimmune cardiac condition is known to happen weeks afer an MI? Dressler syndrome
What is another name used for Dressler syndrome? Autoimmune carditis
What is an important component of Dressler syndrome? Fibrinous pericarditis
What is the main clinical association of autoimmune carditis? Friction rub
What is a Friction rub? Continuous scratching or creaking sound
What condition is often seen with a Friction rub? Dressler syndrome
What microtubule action is prevented by Paclitaxel? Microtubule depolymerization
Which anticancer drug is known to prevent microtubule depolymerization? Paclitaxel
What does the microtubule depolarization caused by Paclitaxel achieves? Stabilizes the mitotic spindle and presence migration of chromatids to their respective endos of cell, thus disrupting mitosis
Is mitosis or meiosis disrupted by actions of Paclitaxel? Mitosis
Prevented microtubule depolarization is done by: Paclitaxel
To which protein does Vincristine and/or Vinblastine bind to? Tubulin
What does the binding of Vin-/Vinblastine to Tubulin accomplishes? Prevent mitotic spindle apparatus formation, thereby causing cell cycle arrest
Which, Paclitaxel or Vinca alkaloids, cause mitotic spindle apparatus to not form? Vinca alkaloids
So, if the anticancer drug prevents microtubule formation, is it Paclitxel or Vinblastine/Vincristine? Vinblastine/Vincristine
What causes Anterior Cord syndrome? Occlusion or hypoperfusion of the Ventral Spinal artery
What spinal tracts are NOT affected by Anterior Cord syndrome? Dorsal columns
What are the effects of Anterior Cord syndrome? Below site of lesion: 1. Bilateral deficits in pain and temperature 2. Voluntary loss of motor control 3. Deficits in autonomic motor control
When is the artery of Adamkiewicz most commonly injured? During cardiac surgery
What is irrigated by the artery of Adamkiewicz? Blood supply to lower 2/3 of the spinal cord
What artery is known to supply blood flow to the lower two thirds of the spinal cord? Artery of Adamkiewicz
What is the main effect seen in occlusion or hypoperfusion of the artery of Adamkiewicz? Significant drop in blood pressure
What does Km depict in Michaelis-Menten kinetics? Substrate concentration at which half of enzyme in the sample is saturated
Substrate concentration at which 1/2 of enzyme in a sample is saturated. Km
What measurement in Michaelis Menten kinetics is inversely related to affinity of the enzyme for its substrate? Km
Is Km inversely or directly proportional to affinity of enzyme to its substrate? Inversely
What is indicted by Vmax in Michaelis Menten Kinetics? The highest velocity of the enzyme can achieve
What is directly proportional to the enzyme concentration in Michalis Menten kinetics? Vmax
If the enzyme concentration is increased, what is also increased, Vmax or Km? Vmax
What are the two axis in a Lineweaver-Burk plot? Y-axis ---> 1/V X-axis ---> 1/[S]
In a Lineweaver-Burk plot, a Non-competitive inhibitor is indicated by an arrow crossing what? Higher in the Y axis and same spot on X-axis as compared to a inhibited line.
Is 1//V or 1/[S], the point of crossing between a inhibited drug line and a Competitive inhibitor? They cross at same 1/V, which indicates the 1/Vmax
Competitive inhibitors _________________ each other Cross
Noncompetitive inhibitors do __________ ____________ each other. Not Cross
In a Michaelis-Menten Kinetic graph, how are Uninhibited line, Competitive line, and Noncompetitive line depicted with respect to each other? The hisgest one (top) is the ungitiged, below it the Competitive line, and finally the lowest line would be the Noncompetitive line
What are the 3 main types of inhibitors in respect to kinetics? 1. Reversible, competitive inhibitors 2. Irreversible inhibitors 3. Non-competitive inhibitors
Which type of inhibitors are known to increase Km, but have no effect of Vmax? Reversible, competitive inhibitors
What is modified, in Km and Vmax, with Reversible competitive inhibitors? Increase in Km NO change in Vmax
Which type of inhibitors are known to decrease Vmax, and have no effect on Km? Irreversible inhibitors and Noncompetitive inhibitors
If the drug is known to decrease Vmax, and has no effect on Km, is what type of inhibitor? Irreversible inhibitors and Noncompetitive inhibitors
What are the typical symptoms of Addison disease? 1. Decreased cortisol and aldosterone 2. Fatigue, decrease weight, skin hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia,and decrease blood pressure
What is the MCC of Primary Adrenocortical insufficiency? Autoimmune destruction of adrenal glands
What condition is due to autoimmune destruction of adrenal glands? Primary Adrenocortical insufficiency
What test is used to differentiate among primary, secondary,and tertiary adrenal insufficiency? ACTH test
List of symptoms of Primary adrenal insufficiency? 1. Increased serum K+ from aldosterone insufficiency 2. Increased serum ACTH causing hyperpigmentation 3. Eosinophilia 4. Damage to the adrenal glands
Which adrenal insufficiency, Primary or Secondary, is seen with normal serum K+ and decreased ACTH levels? Secondary adrenal insufficiency
Which type of adrenal insufficiency is seen with hyperpigmentation and eosinophilia? Primary adrenal insufficiency
If the damage is to the Pituitary gland, it will cause Primary or secondary adrenal insufficiency? Secondary adrenal insufficiency
For disease with low Prevalence the PPV is? Low
Does PPV or NPV increase with high prevalence? PPV
What happens to NPV with a Low prevalence? Increases
Varies inversely with prevalence or pretest probability NPV
Lowering the Cutoff value produces: 1. Decrease FN and Increase FP 2. Increase in Sensitivity = Increase NPV 3. Decrease in Specificity = Decrease PPV
Does lowering or Increasing the Cutoff value produce an increase in sensitivity and NPV? Lowering
What happens to specificity in cases the cutoff value is reduced? It is reduced and decrease PPV
Increase in specificity is done by increasing or lowering the cut off value? Increasing
Increase in FN and decrease in FP is seen by what type of modification to the cut off value? Increase
What is the GI use for Misoprostol? Prevent Gastric ulcers
What is Misoprostol? Prostaglandin used to prevent gastric ulcers, and contraindicated in pregnancy
Why is Misoprostol contraindicated in pregnancy? Induced labor
MOA of Misoprostol? PGE1 analogue; increase production of gastric mucosal barrier, and decrease acid production
What are common Antiprogestins? Mifepristone and Ulipristal
What is the MOA of Antiprogestins? Competitive inhibitors of progestins at progesterone receptors
What is a common drug combination to terminate a pregnancy? Mifepristone + Misoprostol
What antiprogestin is often used for Emergency contraception? Ulipristal
What is Yellow fever? Mosquito-borne viral illness caused by a Flavivirus
What are the intracellular neuronal inclusions seen in Alzheimer disease made of? Protein Tau
Protein Tau is the main component of: Intracellular neuronal inclusions seen in Alzheimer disease
What substances are able to cross the phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes via passive diffusion? Free fatty acids and other non-polar solutes
Adrenergic receptor a-2 is what type of G-protein linked second messenger? Gi-protein linked; inhibits adenyl cyclase
Alpha-2 receptors, are Gi, Gq, or Gs? Gi
List of functions of a-2 adrenergic receptor stimulation: 1. Decrease sympathetic (adrenergic) outflow 2. Decrease insulin release 3. Decrease lipolysis 4. Decrease aqueous humor production 5. Increase platelet aggregation
Does alpha-2 stimulation increases or decreases sympathetic outflow? Decrease
Stimulation of alpha-2 receptor would cause an increase or decrease in aqueous humor production? Decrease
Inhibition of alpha-2 receptors would cause what to insulin release? Increase insulin release
What are common and severe complications of chronic statin use? Rhabdomyolysis and Myoglobinuria
What is the possible renal complication of chronic statin use? Rhabdomyolysis and Myoglobinuria lead to Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN) and acute kidney injury
What is the pathogenesis of ATN due to Statin use? Patchy necrosis leading to debris obstruction the tubules and fluid backflow which results in decreased GFR
What type of casts are associated with ATN? Epithelial/granular casts
What are the classic signs and/or clinical features of increased ICP? Coma, bradycardia, hypertension, hypoventilation, and papilledema
Common ocular sing of Ipsilateral Uncal herniation: Fixed and dilated pupil
What is the 1st and immediate treatment for increased ICP? Intubation and mechanical ventilation
What type of diuretics are used to treat increased ICP? Osmotic diuretics (Mannitol)
What is the cause of Peripheral artery disease (PAD)? Occlusion by atherosclerotic plaque
How is PAD clinically characterized? Pain with activity that is quickly relieved with rest
What is a common complication of Peripheral Artery disease? Intermittent claudication
What increases the chances of forming atherosclerotic plaques? High turbulence of the branch points in arteries
What is the role of TGF-B? Inhibitory cytokine responsible for dampening and restoring balance to the immune response
Which cytokine is known to decrease or "damp" the immune response? TGF-B
What are TGF-B main roles in wound healing? Angiogenesis and fibrosis
Which cytokine is known to have roles in angiogenesis and fibrosis during the process of wound healing? TGF-B
What causes Compartment syndrome? Lacerated artery bleeding into a closed space
In which compartment of the leg is the Deep fibular nerve located? Anterior Compartment
What muscles are innervated by the Deep Fibular nerve? Muscles that DORSIFLEX the foot
Which nerve innervates the muscles involved in dorsiflexion of the foot? Deep Fibular nerve
The Deep Fibular nerve is located in the Posterior or Anterior compartment of the leg? Anterior Compartment
Which nerve is located at the Posterior compartment of the leg? Tibial nerve
If the diagnosis of Posterior Compartment syndrome is made, which nerve is involved? Tibial nerve
What action is mediated by the muscles innervated the the Tibial nerve, dorsiflexion or plantarflexion of the foot? Plantarflexion
Tibial nerve responsible for dorsiflexion or plantarflex the foot? Plantarflexion
What is the MC testicular tumor in men 15-35 years of age? Seminoma
What is the histological description of a Testicular Seminoma? Large cells with watery cytoplasm or "fried-egg" appearance
Which testicular tumors are known to be very radiosensitive and have a good prognosis? Seminoma
What are the two main categories of Testicular tumors? 1. Germ cell tumors 2. Non-germ cell tumors
What are some key features of Testicular Germ cell tumors? - Arise from germ cells that produce sperm - These DO NOT transilluminate
List of Testicular Germ cell tumors: 1. Seminoma (MC) 2. Teratoma 3. Embryonal carcinoma 4. Yolk sac tumor 5. Choriocarcinoma
Which are the malignant Testicular tumors? Testicular Germ cell tumors
What are the Non-germ cell testicular tumors? 1. Sertoli Cell tumor 2. Leydig cell tumor 3. Testicular lymphoma
Which are the two most common benign testicular tumors? Sertoli cell and Leydig cell tumors
What are the classic physical signs of Spontaneous Pneumothorax? Hyperresonance, decreased breath sounds, decreased tactile fremitus, and occasional tracheal deviation toward affected side
All lung diseases have a decrease fremitus, except: Consolidation
Which lung conditions are seen with Hyperresonance on auscultation? Tension and Spontaneous pneumothorax
How is the trachea deviated in Tension pneumothorax? Away from side of lesion
Which conditions are seen with tracheal deviation toward the side of the lesion? Atelectasis and Spontaneous pneumothorax
What is Amantadine? Weak NDMA receptor antagonist
What are some associated adverse effects of Amantadine? Anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, and unsteady gait
What is a particular and/or defining adverse effect of Amantadine? Reddish-bluish rash
What is the MOA of Amantadine? Increase dopamine availability, by increasing dopamine release and decrease the dopamine reuptake
What type of eye drops are used in order to diagnose the site of lesion of Horner syndrome? Eye drops the alter Norepinephrine levels at the neuromuscular synapse
Which catecholamine is altered by eye drops in order to localize the lesion causing Horner syndrome? Norepinephrine
Does NE haves stronger Beta or Alpha features? Alpha
If the lesion is is PREganglionic in Horner syndrome, the eyes drops used will cause: Dilation as expected with different NE altering eye drops
What is the location of Horner syndrome, if at the moment of using altering NE eye drops, one does not cause dilation as expected? Postganglionic
What are the key characteristics seen in a person with Gerstmann syndrome? Acalculia, agraphia, finger agnosia, and Left-Right confusion
Where is the damage in Gerstmann syndrome? Dominant visual association cortex, which is located in teh Left-Angular gyrus
Where in the brain anatomy is the Dominant visual association cortex located? Left-angular gyrus
Where is the Left angular gyrus located? Near the tempo-parietal junction in the dominant parietal lobe
What type of deficit is seen is injury to the Perisylvian region? Aphasia
What condition is seen to develop by damaging the Left-Angular gyrus? Gerstmann syndrome
What is p21 protein? Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor that functions as a cell regulator at the G1 and S-phases of cell cycle
What causes a decrease level of p21 protein? Presence of E6
What cancer is associated with E6 leading to decreased levels of p21 protein? Cervical cancer
What is Uniparental disomy? Inheritance of two copies of a chromosome from one parent through nondisjunction
What genetic feature is considered in a patient with a recessive disorder but only one parent is affected or is a carrier? Uniparental disomy
What is a common complication of a patient with Sickle cell disease? Acute Chest syndrome
What type of organisms are most prone to cause infections in Sickle cell patients? Encapsulated bacteria
What is the key histological finding of Sickle cell disease? Howell-Jolly bodies
What type of virus causes Yellow Fever? Flavivirus
What is the description of Filoviruses? Single-Stranded (ss)- (+) RNA virus
What important "fevers" are due to Flavivirus infection? 1. Yellow fever 2. Dengue fever
What are the clinical features of Yellow fever? - Fever, nausea, pain and possible jaundice - Black vomitus
What is the mosquito that transmits Yellow fever? Aedes mosquito
What fever is caused by the Aedes mosquito? Yellow Fever
What are the histological findings of Yellow fever? Councilman bodies
What are Councilman bodies? Eosinophilic appearing globules
NK cells are part of the ___________ immune system. Innate
What is the role of NK cells of the innate immune system? Responsible for killing virally infected cells, particularly during the early stage of immune response
What is the CD surface marker of NK cells? CD56
What are the cells involved in the innate immune system? Neutrophils, Macrophages, Monocytes, Dendritic cells, NK cells, Complement, physical epithelial barriers, and secreted enzymes
Neutrophils, Macrophages, and NK cells are part of which immune system? Innate
What are the physical expressions of Unresponsive Testosterone receptor? Female external genitalia, no uterus, and an XY karyotype
What is the reason for the absence of Uterus and Fallopian tubes in Unresponsive Testosterone receptor? Persistence of anti-Mullerian hormone from testes
Which condition is seen with normal functional testes hidden in the labia majora? Unresponsive Testosterone receptor
How are the levels of Unresponsive Testosterone receptor? Elevated testosterone, Estrogen, and LH
Which condition is seen with elevated levels of testosterone, estrogen, and LH? Unresponsive Testosterone receptor
What is the MOA of Probenecid? Inhibit reabsorption of uric acid in the PCT
Drug that act s the same way as Probenecid? Sulfinpyrazone
What receptors are blocked by a second generation antipsychotics? 5-HT 2A receptors and D2 receptor
What is the colloquial name for second generation antipsychotics? Atypical
What is the advantage of Second Generation antipsychotics over First generation antipsychotics? Less EPS and anticholinergic effects
What are the adverse effects of all 2nd generation antipsychotics? 1. Prolonged QT 2. Fever EPS and anticholinergic effects than typical antipsychotics
Which type of 2nd-gen antipsychotics cause metabolic syndrome? Those that end in "-apines"
What is the particular adverse effect of Clozapine? Agranulocytosis
1st or 2nd generation antipsychotic. Clozapine? Second generation
What adverse effect is associated with Risperidone specifically? Hyperprolactinemia
What is a common neuropsychiatric disorders associated with chronic liver disease? Hepatic Encephalopathy
What are common precipitating factors of Hepatic Encephalopathy? Hypokalemia, Azotemia, Metabolic Alkalosis, and Hypovolemia
What type of medications are known to precipitate Hepatic encephalopathy? Diuretics, due to decrease NH3 removal
Subacute inflammatory myopathy that show infiltrates of CD8+ T-lymphocytes and macrophages on muscle biopsy. Polymyositis
What are antibodies (+) in Polymyositis? 1. anti-Jo-1 (histidyl-tRNA synthetase) 2. anti-SRP (signal recognition particle) 3. anti-Mi-2 ( helicase)
(+) Anti-Jo-1 antibody. Dx? Polymyositis
Which enzyme is targeted by anti-Jo-1 antibody? Histidyl-tRNA synthetase
Which antibody is known to target the Helicase (enzyme)? anti-Mi-2 antibody
What is Sjogren syndrome? Autoimmune disease characterized by classic triad of Xerophthalmia, Xerostomia, and arthritis
What is the triad of symptoms seen with Sjogren syndrome? 1. Xerophthalmia 2. Xerostomia 3. Arthritis
What are antibodies of Sjogren syndrome? - anti-SSA (anti-Ro) - anti-SSB (anti-La)
What is the Medullary Thyroid cancer? Calcitonin-secretion tumor signaling from Parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland
What cells give rise to a Medullary Thyroid cancer? Parafollicular C cells of the Thyroid gland
What are two autosomal dominant conditions are associated with Medullary Thyroid cancer? MEN2A and MEN2B
What is the histological description of Medullary Thyroid cancer? Polygonal to spindle-shaped cells, with a granular cytoplasm in an amyloid-filled stroma
What is seen in the PBS of a person that underwent Splenectomy? Howell-Jolly bodies and Target cells
What gives rise to Howell-Jolly bodies and Target cells in post-splenectomy patient? Loss of splenic macrophages
What change in vessel pressure gives rise to the proteinuria in Nephrotic syndrome? Decreased Glomerular Capillary Oncotic pressure
What pressure is decreased in Nephrotic syndrome that leads to proteinuria? Glomerular capillary Oncotic pressure
What is the name of the "Heart-failure cells"? Hemosiderin-laden macrophages
What type of heart failure is seen with Hemosiderin-laden macrophages? Left-sided heart failure
Where are Hemosiderin-laden macrophages located? In lungs of Left-sided heart failure patients
What are the signs/symptoms of Left sided Heart Failure? 1. Orthopnea 2. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea 3. Pulmonary edema
Is Pulmonary edema seen in Left or Right sided Heart failure? Left-sided
How is Status Epilepticus defined? 5 minutes of continuous seizure activity with no return to consciousness between episodes
What is the initial treatment of Status epilepticus? Benzodiazepines
What are common benzodiazepines used in Status Epilepticus? Diazepam and Lorazepam
What is the mode of action of Benzodiazepines? Increase frequency of Cl- channel opening
Do Benzodiazepines or Barbiturates increase the frequency of Chloride channel opening? Benzodiazepines
Which type of anti-seizure medications work by increasing the duration of Cl- channel opening? Barbiturates
What is increased by Benzodiazepines, the frequency or duration of Chloride channel opening? Frequency
On which receptors do Benzodiazepines work on? GABA-A
What is used to treat overdose by Benzodiazepines? Flumazenil
What is the MCC of inherited hypercoagulopathy? Factor V Leiden
What is Factor V Leiden? MCC of hereditary hypercoagulopathy in Caucasians
What area or anatomical structure is to be injured if a knife penetrates the Left 2nd intercostal space at the midclavicular line, medially directed? Superior Left lung
The heart and direct vessels, anatomically, are just behind the _______________. Sternum
What causes Huntington disease? Increased number of CAGn repeats on the allele for Huntingtin protein
What is the common laboratory technique used to diagnose Huntington disease? Southern blot
What is identified by Southern blot? Complementary DNA sequences
What type of probe is used in Southern blot? DNA probe
When is Somatic syndrome disorder diagnosed? As indicative present with several physical complains in multiple organ systems, for more than 6 months
If a patient presents with physical symptoms and an excessive concern to its health, despite repeated negative tests for any type of illness or malignancy. What is the suspected disorder? Somatic syndrome disorder
What are the HLA association for Hashimoto thyroiditis? HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR5
Which are two common HLA-DR5 conditions? Pernicious anemia and Hashimoto's thyroiditis
What is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract? Meckel diverticulum
What is Meckel diverticulum? Blind pouch (true) protruding from the Ileum
Which part of the small intestine gives rise to the Meckel diverticulum? Ileum
From what structure is the Meckel diverticulum derived from? Vitelline duct
What is the "RAS"? Small GTPase proto-oncogene induced in signal transduction
What are common oncogenes thea have Receptor Tyrosine kinase as their gene product? ALK, HER2/neu (c-erbB2), and RET
Which are some common genes that are Non-receptor tyrosine kinase? BCR-ABL
JAK2 gene has what gene product? Tyrosine kinase
What is a common GTPase proto-oncogene? KRAS
What causes Bullous pemphigoid? Antibodies against HEMIDESMOSOMES, which anchor cells to the basement membrane
Antibodies against hemidesmosomes. Dx? Bullous pemphigoid
What are clinical features Bullous pemphigoid? 1. Tense bullae that do not rupture easily 2. Spare the oral mucosa
What does a (-) Nikolsky sign mean? Tense bullae that do not rupture easily
Description of Bullous pemphigoid under IF: Linear pattern of epidermal-dermal junction
What type of Hypersensitivity reaction for Bullous pemphigoid? Type II
Common autoimmune disorder with (-) Nikolsky sign? Bullous pemphigoid
What is the most common fetal neoplasm? Teratoma
What is a common cause of a neonatal "tail" ? Sacrococcygeal teratomas
What is Sacrococcygeal teratomas? Most common extragonadal germ cell tumors in infants and children
What type of tumor is characterized by "multiple tissue types"? Teratoma
When are MOAIs used? Atypical depression or refractory depression
MOA of MOAIs? Increase levels of MOA transmitters of the synapses
What is the MC complication of MOAIs? Hypertensive crisis
What type of food/drink is contraindicated in patients on MOAIs? High Tyramine content such as aged cheeses and red wine
What is a severe complication of combining Cabernet sauvignon and Selegiline? Hypertensive crisis
Diabetic agen, leading to increased insulin resistance and elevated fasting plasma glucose levels. Growth hormone
What are results of ingesting exogenous GH ? 1. Increases insulin resistance 2. Elevated fasting plasma glucose levels
What is the only factor that increases Prevalence? Increased survival time
Using the terms TP, TN, FP, and FN, what is the equation for Prevalence? (TP + FN) -------------------------- (TP + FN + TN +FP)
Number of existing cases divided by the total number of people in a population. Prevalence
How many half-lives are needed to pass in order to reach steady state? 4-5 half lives
Equation for Half-live: (0.7)x (Vd) --------------------- Clearance
0.7Vd/Clearance = Half life
What is the equation for Vd (volume of distribution)? (Amount of drug in body) ---------------------------------- Plasma drug concentration
CL = Rate of Elimination of drug ----------------------------------------- Plasma drug concentration
Vd x Kc (elimination constant) = Clearance
How is Precocious puberty characterised in boys and girls? Development of secondary sexual characteristic before age of 8 in girls and 9 yo in boys.
What are the two classifications of Precocious puberty? 1. Central (gonadotropin-dependent) 2. Peripheral ( gonadotropin- independent)
Precious puberty is associated with: PULSATILE GnRH release
What sexual endocrine condition is associated with early PULSATILE GnRH release? Precocious puberty
What is the main feature of the Genetic code? It is UNIVERSAL
What does the fact the Genetic code is universal, allows it to achieve? Describes common language among all organism to translate nucleotide sequences of DNA and RNA into amino acid sequences of proteins, in humans and bacteria
What causes Gout? Accumulation of Urate crystals in synovial fluid, resulting in painful swollen joints
Negatively birefringent needle crystal s in joint aspirate. Dx? Gout
Created by: rakomi
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