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Round 1 Review
Wrong Questions Round FA Part 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What are the two arterial bodies (vessels) that supply the head of the Pancreas? | Gastroduodenal artery and the Superior Mesenteric artery |
| What is an important branch of the Common Hepatic artery which provides blood supply to the head to the Pancreas? | Gastroduodenal artery |
| Is the SMA or IMA part of the blood supply to the head of the Pancreas? | Superior Mesenteric artery |
| What artery supplies the neck, body and tail of the Pancreas? | Splenic artery |
| What part of the pancreas is supplied by the Splenic artery? | Neck, body, and tail of pancreas |
| What is the main histological finding of the Granulosa cell tumors? | Call-Exner bodies |
| What hormone is produced by Granulosa cell tumors of the ovaries? | Estrogen |
| Which ovarian tumors are known to secrete or produce Estrogen? | Granulosa cell tumors |
| What hormone induces the production of Estrogen in Granulosa cell tumors? | FSH |
| FSH causes what effect on Granulosa cell tumors? | Induces the production of Estrogen by Granulosa cell tumors |
| What is an important complication of early and late myocardial infarction? | Fibrinous pericarditis |
| What is the common name of autoimmune carditis? | Dressler syndrome |
| What autoimmune cardiac condition is known to happen weeks afer an MI? | Dressler syndrome |
| What is another name used for Dressler syndrome? | Autoimmune carditis |
| What is an important component of Dressler syndrome? | Fibrinous pericarditis |
| What is the main clinical association of autoimmune carditis? | Friction rub |
| What is a Friction rub? | Continuous scratching or creaking sound |
| What condition is often seen with a Friction rub? | Dressler syndrome |
| What microtubule action is prevented by Paclitaxel? | Microtubule depolymerization |
| Which anticancer drug is known to prevent microtubule depolymerization? | Paclitaxel |
| What does the microtubule depolarization caused by Paclitaxel achieves? | Stabilizes the mitotic spindle and presence migration of chromatids to their respective endos of cell, thus disrupting mitosis |
| Is mitosis or meiosis disrupted by actions of Paclitaxel? | Mitosis |
| Prevented microtubule depolarization is done by: | Paclitaxel |
| To which protein does Vincristine and/or Vinblastine bind to? | Tubulin |
| What does the binding of Vin-/Vinblastine to Tubulin accomplishes? | Prevent mitotic spindle apparatus formation, thereby causing cell cycle arrest |
| Which, Paclitaxel or Vinca alkaloids, cause mitotic spindle apparatus to not form? | Vinca alkaloids |
| So, if the anticancer drug prevents microtubule formation, is it Paclitxel or Vinblastine/Vincristine? | Vinblastine/Vincristine |
| What causes Anterior Cord syndrome? | Occlusion or hypoperfusion of the Ventral Spinal artery |
| What spinal tracts are NOT affected by Anterior Cord syndrome? | Dorsal columns |
| What are the effects of Anterior Cord syndrome? | Below site of lesion: 1. Bilateral deficits in pain and temperature 2. Voluntary loss of motor control 3. Deficits in autonomic motor control |
| When is the artery of Adamkiewicz most commonly injured? | During cardiac surgery |
| What is irrigated by the artery of Adamkiewicz? | Blood supply to lower 2/3 of the spinal cord |
| What artery is known to supply blood flow to the lower two thirds of the spinal cord? | Artery of Adamkiewicz |
| What is the main effect seen in occlusion or hypoperfusion of the artery of Adamkiewicz? | Significant drop in blood pressure |
| What does Km depict in Michaelis-Menten kinetics? | Substrate concentration at which half of enzyme in the sample is saturated |
| Substrate concentration at which 1/2 of enzyme in a sample is saturated. | Km |
| What measurement in Michaelis Menten kinetics is inversely related to affinity of the enzyme for its substrate? | Km |
| Is Km inversely or directly proportional to affinity of enzyme to its substrate? | Inversely |
| What is indicted by Vmax in Michaelis Menten Kinetics? | The highest velocity of the enzyme can achieve |
| What is directly proportional to the enzyme concentration in Michalis Menten kinetics? | Vmax |
| If the enzyme concentration is increased, what is also increased, Vmax or Km? | Vmax |
| What are the two axis in a Lineweaver-Burk plot? | Y-axis ---> 1/V X-axis ---> 1/[S] |
| In a Lineweaver-Burk plot, a Non-competitive inhibitor is indicated by an arrow crossing what? | Higher in the Y axis and same spot on X-axis as compared to a inhibited line. |
| Is 1//V or 1/[S], the point of crossing between a inhibited drug line and a Competitive inhibitor? | They cross at same 1/V, which indicates the 1/Vmax |
| Competitive inhibitors _________________ each other | Cross |
| Noncompetitive inhibitors do __________ ____________ each other. | Not Cross |
| In a Michaelis-Menten Kinetic graph, how are Uninhibited line, Competitive line, and Noncompetitive line depicted with respect to each other? | The hisgest one (top) is the ungitiged, below it the Competitive line, and finally the lowest line would be the Noncompetitive line |
| What are the 3 main types of inhibitors in respect to kinetics? | 1. Reversible, competitive inhibitors 2. Irreversible inhibitors 3. Non-competitive inhibitors |
| Which type of inhibitors are known to increase Km, but have no effect of Vmax? | Reversible, competitive inhibitors |
| What is modified, in Km and Vmax, with Reversible competitive inhibitors? | Increase in Km NO change in Vmax |
| Which type of inhibitors are known to decrease Vmax, and have no effect on Km? | Irreversible inhibitors and Noncompetitive inhibitors |
| If the drug is known to decrease Vmax, and has no effect on Km, is what type of inhibitor? | Irreversible inhibitors and Noncompetitive inhibitors |
| What are the typical symptoms of Addison disease? | 1. Decreased cortisol and aldosterone 2. Fatigue, decrease weight, skin hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia,and decrease blood pressure |
| What is the MCC of Primary Adrenocortical insufficiency? | Autoimmune destruction of adrenal glands |
| What condition is due to autoimmune destruction of adrenal glands? | Primary Adrenocortical insufficiency |
| What test is used to differentiate among primary, secondary,and tertiary adrenal insufficiency? | ACTH test |
| List of symptoms of Primary adrenal insufficiency? | 1. Increased serum K+ from aldosterone insufficiency 2. Increased serum ACTH causing hyperpigmentation 3. Eosinophilia 4. Damage to the adrenal glands |
| Which adrenal insufficiency, Primary or Secondary, is seen with normal serum K+ and decreased ACTH levels? | Secondary adrenal insufficiency |
| Which type of adrenal insufficiency is seen with hyperpigmentation and eosinophilia? | Primary adrenal insufficiency |
| If the damage is to the Pituitary gland, it will cause Primary or secondary adrenal insufficiency? | Secondary adrenal insufficiency |
| For disease with low Prevalence the PPV is? | Low |
| Does PPV or NPV increase with high prevalence? | PPV |
| What happens to NPV with a Low prevalence? | Increases |
| Varies inversely with prevalence or pretest probability | NPV |
| Lowering the Cutoff value produces: | 1. Decrease FN and Increase FP 2. Increase in Sensitivity = Increase NPV 3. Decrease in Specificity = Decrease PPV |
| Does lowering or Increasing the Cutoff value produce an increase in sensitivity and NPV? | Lowering |
| What happens to specificity in cases the cutoff value is reduced? | It is reduced and decrease PPV |
| Increase in specificity is done by increasing or lowering the cut off value? | Increasing |
| Increase in FN and decrease in FP is seen by what type of modification to the cut off value? | Increase |
| What is the GI use for Misoprostol? | Prevent Gastric ulcers |
| What is Misoprostol? | Prostaglandin used to prevent gastric ulcers, and contraindicated in pregnancy |
| Why is Misoprostol contraindicated in pregnancy? | Induced labor |
| MOA of Misoprostol? | PGE1 analogue; increase production of gastric mucosal barrier, and decrease acid production |
| What are common Antiprogestins? | Mifepristone and Ulipristal |
| What is the MOA of Antiprogestins? | Competitive inhibitors of progestins at progesterone receptors |
| What is a common drug combination to terminate a pregnancy? | Mifepristone + Misoprostol |
| What antiprogestin is often used for Emergency contraception? | Ulipristal |
| What is Yellow fever? | Mosquito-borne viral illness caused by a Flavivirus |
| What are the intracellular neuronal inclusions seen in Alzheimer disease made of? | Protein Tau |
| Protein Tau is the main component of: | Intracellular neuronal inclusions seen in Alzheimer disease |
| What substances are able to cross the phospholipid bilayer of cell membranes via passive diffusion? | Free fatty acids and other non-polar solutes |
| Adrenergic receptor a-2 is what type of G-protein linked second messenger? | Gi-protein linked; inhibits adenyl cyclase |
| Alpha-2 receptors, are Gi, Gq, or Gs? | Gi |
| List of functions of a-2 adrenergic receptor stimulation: | 1. Decrease sympathetic (adrenergic) outflow 2. Decrease insulin release 3. Decrease lipolysis 4. Decrease aqueous humor production 5. Increase platelet aggregation |
| Does alpha-2 stimulation increases or decreases sympathetic outflow? | Decrease |
| Stimulation of alpha-2 receptor would cause an increase or decrease in aqueous humor production? | Decrease |
| Inhibition of alpha-2 receptors would cause what to insulin release? | Increase insulin release |
| What are common and severe complications of chronic statin use? | Rhabdomyolysis and Myoglobinuria |
| What is the possible renal complication of chronic statin use? | Rhabdomyolysis and Myoglobinuria lead to Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN) and acute kidney injury |
| What is the pathogenesis of ATN due to Statin use? | Patchy necrosis leading to debris obstruction the tubules and fluid backflow which results in decreased GFR |
| What type of casts are associated with ATN? | Epithelial/granular casts |
| What are the classic signs and/or clinical features of increased ICP? | Coma, bradycardia, hypertension, hypoventilation, and papilledema |
| Common ocular sing of Ipsilateral Uncal herniation: | Fixed and dilated pupil |
| What is the 1st and immediate treatment for increased ICP? | Intubation and mechanical ventilation |
| What type of diuretics are used to treat increased ICP? | Osmotic diuretics (Mannitol) |
| What is the cause of Peripheral artery disease (PAD)? | Occlusion by atherosclerotic plaque |
| How is PAD clinically characterized? | Pain with activity that is quickly relieved with rest |
| What is a common complication of Peripheral Artery disease? | Intermittent claudication |
| What increases the chances of forming atherosclerotic plaques? | High turbulence of the branch points in arteries |
| What is the role of TGF-B? | Inhibitory cytokine responsible for dampening and restoring balance to the immune response |
| Which cytokine is known to decrease or "damp" the immune response? | TGF-B |
| What are TGF-B main roles in wound healing? | Angiogenesis and fibrosis |
| Which cytokine is known to have roles in angiogenesis and fibrosis during the process of wound healing? | TGF-B |
| What causes Compartment syndrome? | Lacerated artery bleeding into a closed space |
| In which compartment of the leg is the Deep fibular nerve located? | Anterior Compartment |
| What muscles are innervated by the Deep Fibular nerve? | Muscles that DORSIFLEX the foot |
| Which nerve innervates the muscles involved in dorsiflexion of the foot? | Deep Fibular nerve |
| The Deep Fibular nerve is located in the Posterior or Anterior compartment of the leg? | Anterior Compartment |
| Which nerve is located at the Posterior compartment of the leg? | Tibial nerve |
| If the diagnosis of Posterior Compartment syndrome is made, which nerve is involved? | Tibial nerve |
| What action is mediated by the muscles innervated the the Tibial nerve, dorsiflexion or plantarflexion of the foot? | Plantarflexion |
| Tibial nerve responsible for dorsiflexion or plantarflex the foot? | Plantarflexion |
| What is the MC testicular tumor in men 15-35 years of age? | Seminoma |
| What is the histological description of a Testicular Seminoma? | Large cells with watery cytoplasm or "fried-egg" appearance |
| Which testicular tumors are known to be very radiosensitive and have a good prognosis? | Seminoma |
| What are the two main categories of Testicular tumors? | 1. Germ cell tumors 2. Non-germ cell tumors |
| What are some key features of Testicular Germ cell tumors? | - Arise from germ cells that produce sperm - These DO NOT transilluminate |
| List of Testicular Germ cell tumors: | 1. Seminoma (MC) 2. Teratoma 3. Embryonal carcinoma 4. Yolk sac tumor 5. Choriocarcinoma |
| Which are the malignant Testicular tumors? | Testicular Germ cell tumors |
| What are the Non-germ cell testicular tumors? | 1. Sertoli Cell tumor 2. Leydig cell tumor 3. Testicular lymphoma |
| Which are the two most common benign testicular tumors? | Sertoli cell and Leydig cell tumors |
| What are the classic physical signs of Spontaneous Pneumothorax? | Hyperresonance, decreased breath sounds, decreased tactile fremitus, and occasional tracheal deviation toward affected side |
| All lung diseases have a decrease fremitus, except: | Consolidation |
| Which lung conditions are seen with Hyperresonance on auscultation? | Tension and Spontaneous pneumothorax |
| How is the trachea deviated in Tension pneumothorax? | Away from side of lesion |
| Which conditions are seen with tracheal deviation toward the side of the lesion? | Atelectasis and Spontaneous pneumothorax |
| What is Amantadine? | Weak NDMA receptor antagonist |
| What are some associated adverse effects of Amantadine? | Anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, and unsteady gait |
| What is a particular and/or defining adverse effect of Amantadine? | Reddish-bluish rash |
| What is the MOA of Amantadine? | Increase dopamine availability, by increasing dopamine release and decrease the dopamine reuptake |
| What type of eye drops are used in order to diagnose the site of lesion of Horner syndrome? | Eye drops the alter Norepinephrine levels at the neuromuscular synapse |
| Which catecholamine is altered by eye drops in order to localize the lesion causing Horner syndrome? | Norepinephrine |
| Does NE haves stronger Beta or Alpha features? | Alpha |
| If the lesion is is PREganglionic in Horner syndrome, the eyes drops used will cause: | Dilation as expected with different NE altering eye drops |
| What is the location of Horner syndrome, if at the moment of using altering NE eye drops, one does not cause dilation as expected? | Postganglionic |
| What are the key characteristics seen in a person with Gerstmann syndrome? | Acalculia, agraphia, finger agnosia, and Left-Right confusion |
| Where is the damage in Gerstmann syndrome? | Dominant visual association cortex, which is located in teh Left-Angular gyrus |
| Where in the brain anatomy is the Dominant visual association cortex located? | Left-angular gyrus |
| Where is the Left angular gyrus located? | Near the tempo-parietal junction in the dominant parietal lobe |
| What type of deficit is seen is injury to the Perisylvian region? | Aphasia |
| What condition is seen to develop by damaging the Left-Angular gyrus? | Gerstmann syndrome |
| What is p21 protein? | Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor that functions as a cell regulator at the G1 and S-phases of cell cycle |
| What causes a decrease level of p21 protein? | Presence of E6 |
| What cancer is associated with E6 leading to decreased levels of p21 protein? | Cervical cancer |
| What is Uniparental disomy? | Inheritance of two copies of a chromosome from one parent through nondisjunction |
| What genetic feature is considered in a patient with a recessive disorder but only one parent is affected or is a carrier? | Uniparental disomy |
| What is a common complication of a patient with Sickle cell disease? | Acute Chest syndrome |
| What type of organisms are most prone to cause infections in Sickle cell patients? | Encapsulated bacteria |
| What is the key histological finding of Sickle cell disease? | Howell-Jolly bodies |
| What type of virus causes Yellow Fever? | Flavivirus |
| What is the description of Filoviruses? | Single-Stranded (ss)- (+) RNA virus |
| What important "fevers" are due to Flavivirus infection? | 1. Yellow fever 2. Dengue fever |
| What are the clinical features of Yellow fever? | - Fever, nausea, pain and possible jaundice - Black vomitus |
| What is the mosquito that transmits Yellow fever? | Aedes mosquito |
| What fever is caused by the Aedes mosquito? | Yellow Fever |
| What are the histological findings of Yellow fever? | Councilman bodies |
| What are Councilman bodies? | Eosinophilic appearing globules |
| NK cells are part of the ___________ immune system. | Innate |
| What is the role of NK cells of the innate immune system? | Responsible for killing virally infected cells, particularly during the early stage of immune response |
| What is the CD surface marker of NK cells? | CD56 |
| What are the cells involved in the innate immune system? | Neutrophils, Macrophages, Monocytes, Dendritic cells, NK cells, Complement, physical epithelial barriers, and secreted enzymes |
| Neutrophils, Macrophages, and NK cells are part of which immune system? | Innate |
| What are the physical expressions of Unresponsive Testosterone receptor? | Female external genitalia, no uterus, and an XY karyotype |
| What is the reason for the absence of Uterus and Fallopian tubes in Unresponsive Testosterone receptor? | Persistence of anti-Mullerian hormone from testes |
| Which condition is seen with normal functional testes hidden in the labia majora? | Unresponsive Testosterone receptor |
| How are the levels of Unresponsive Testosterone receptor? | Elevated testosterone, Estrogen, and LH |
| Which condition is seen with elevated levels of testosterone, estrogen, and LH? | Unresponsive Testosterone receptor |
| What is the MOA of Probenecid? | Inhibit reabsorption of uric acid in the PCT |
| Drug that act s the same way as Probenecid? | Sulfinpyrazone |
| What receptors are blocked by a second generation antipsychotics? | 5-HT 2A receptors and D2 receptor |
| What is the colloquial name for second generation antipsychotics? | Atypical |
| What is the advantage of Second Generation antipsychotics over First generation antipsychotics? | Less EPS and anticholinergic effects |
| What are the adverse effects of all 2nd generation antipsychotics? | 1. Prolonged QT 2. Fever EPS and anticholinergic effects than typical antipsychotics |
| Which type of 2nd-gen antipsychotics cause metabolic syndrome? | Those that end in "-apines" |
| What is the particular adverse effect of Clozapine? | Agranulocytosis |
| 1st or 2nd generation antipsychotic. Clozapine? | Second generation |
| What adverse effect is associated with Risperidone specifically? | Hyperprolactinemia |
| What is a common neuropsychiatric disorders associated with chronic liver disease? | Hepatic Encephalopathy |
| What are common precipitating factors of Hepatic Encephalopathy? | Hypokalemia, Azotemia, Metabolic Alkalosis, and Hypovolemia |
| What type of medications are known to precipitate Hepatic encephalopathy? | Diuretics, due to decrease NH3 removal |
| Subacute inflammatory myopathy that show infiltrates of CD8+ T-lymphocytes and macrophages on muscle biopsy. | Polymyositis |
| What are antibodies (+) in Polymyositis? | 1. anti-Jo-1 (histidyl-tRNA synthetase) 2. anti-SRP (signal recognition particle) 3. anti-Mi-2 ( helicase) |
| (+) Anti-Jo-1 antibody. Dx? | Polymyositis |
| Which enzyme is targeted by anti-Jo-1 antibody? | Histidyl-tRNA synthetase |
| Which antibody is known to target the Helicase (enzyme)? | anti-Mi-2 antibody |
| What is Sjogren syndrome? | Autoimmune disease characterized by classic triad of Xerophthalmia, Xerostomia, and arthritis |
| What is the triad of symptoms seen with Sjogren syndrome? | 1. Xerophthalmia 2. Xerostomia 3. Arthritis |
| What are antibodies of Sjogren syndrome? | - anti-SSA (anti-Ro) - anti-SSB (anti-La) |
| What is the Medullary Thyroid cancer? | Calcitonin-secretion tumor signaling from Parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland |
| What cells give rise to a Medullary Thyroid cancer? | Parafollicular C cells of the Thyroid gland |
| What are two autosomal dominant conditions are associated with Medullary Thyroid cancer? | MEN2A and MEN2B |
| What is the histological description of Medullary Thyroid cancer? | Polygonal to spindle-shaped cells, with a granular cytoplasm in an amyloid-filled stroma |
| What is seen in the PBS of a person that underwent Splenectomy? | Howell-Jolly bodies and Target cells |
| What gives rise to Howell-Jolly bodies and Target cells in post-splenectomy patient? | Loss of splenic macrophages |
| What change in vessel pressure gives rise to the proteinuria in Nephrotic syndrome? | Decreased Glomerular Capillary Oncotic pressure |
| What pressure is decreased in Nephrotic syndrome that leads to proteinuria? | Glomerular capillary Oncotic pressure |
| What is the name of the "Heart-failure cells"? | Hemosiderin-laden macrophages |
| What type of heart failure is seen with Hemosiderin-laden macrophages? | Left-sided heart failure |
| Where are Hemosiderin-laden macrophages located? | In lungs of Left-sided heart failure patients |
| What are the signs/symptoms of Left sided Heart Failure? | 1. Orthopnea 2. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea 3. Pulmonary edema |
| Is Pulmonary edema seen in Left or Right sided Heart failure? | Left-sided |
| How is Status Epilepticus defined? | 5 minutes of continuous seizure activity with no return to consciousness between episodes |
| What is the initial treatment of Status epilepticus? | Benzodiazepines |
| What are common benzodiazepines used in Status Epilepticus? | Diazepam and Lorazepam |
| What is the mode of action of Benzodiazepines? | Increase frequency of Cl- channel opening |
| Do Benzodiazepines or Barbiturates increase the frequency of Chloride channel opening? | Benzodiazepines |
| Which type of anti-seizure medications work by increasing the duration of Cl- channel opening? | Barbiturates |
| What is increased by Benzodiazepines, the frequency or duration of Chloride channel opening? | Frequency |
| On which receptors do Benzodiazepines work on? | GABA-A |
| What is used to treat overdose by Benzodiazepines? | Flumazenil |
| What is the MCC of inherited hypercoagulopathy? | Factor V Leiden |
| What is Factor V Leiden? | MCC of hereditary hypercoagulopathy in Caucasians |
| What area or anatomical structure is to be injured if a knife penetrates the Left 2nd intercostal space at the midclavicular line, medially directed? | Superior Left lung |
| The heart and direct vessels, anatomically, are just behind the _______________. | Sternum |
| What causes Huntington disease? | Increased number of CAGn repeats on the allele for Huntingtin protein |
| What is the common laboratory technique used to diagnose Huntington disease? | Southern blot |
| What is identified by Southern blot? | Complementary DNA sequences |
| What type of probe is used in Southern blot? | DNA probe |
| When is Somatic syndrome disorder diagnosed? | As indicative present with several physical complains in multiple organ systems, for more than 6 months |
| If a patient presents with physical symptoms and an excessive concern to its health, despite repeated negative tests for any type of illness or malignancy. What is the suspected disorder? | Somatic syndrome disorder |
| What are the HLA association for Hashimoto thyroiditis? | HLA-DR3 and HLA-DR5 |
| Which are two common HLA-DR5 conditions? | Pernicious anemia and Hashimoto's thyroiditis |
| What is the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract? | Meckel diverticulum |
| What is Meckel diverticulum? | Blind pouch (true) protruding from the Ileum |
| Which part of the small intestine gives rise to the Meckel diverticulum? | Ileum |
| From what structure is the Meckel diverticulum derived from? | Vitelline duct |
| What is the "RAS"? | Small GTPase proto-oncogene induced in signal transduction |
| What are common oncogenes thea have Receptor Tyrosine kinase as their gene product? | ALK, HER2/neu (c-erbB2), and RET |
| Which are some common genes that are Non-receptor tyrosine kinase? | BCR-ABL |
| JAK2 gene has what gene product? | Tyrosine kinase |
| What is a common GTPase proto-oncogene? | KRAS |
| What causes Bullous pemphigoid? | Antibodies against HEMIDESMOSOMES, which anchor cells to the basement membrane |
| Antibodies against hemidesmosomes. Dx? | Bullous pemphigoid |
| What are clinical features Bullous pemphigoid? | 1. Tense bullae that do not rupture easily 2. Spare the oral mucosa |
| What does a (-) Nikolsky sign mean? | Tense bullae that do not rupture easily |
| Description of Bullous pemphigoid under IF: | Linear pattern of epidermal-dermal junction |
| What type of Hypersensitivity reaction for Bullous pemphigoid? | Type II |
| Common autoimmune disorder with (-) Nikolsky sign? | Bullous pemphigoid |
| What is the most common fetal neoplasm? | Teratoma |
| What is a common cause of a neonatal "tail" ? | Sacrococcygeal teratomas |
| What is Sacrococcygeal teratomas? | Most common extragonadal germ cell tumors in infants and children |
| What type of tumor is characterized by "multiple tissue types"? | Teratoma |
| When are MOAIs used? | Atypical depression or refractory depression |
| MOA of MOAIs? | Increase levels of MOA transmitters of the synapses |
| What is the MC complication of MOAIs? | Hypertensive crisis |
| What type of food/drink is contraindicated in patients on MOAIs? | High Tyramine content such as aged cheeses and red wine |
| What is a severe complication of combining Cabernet sauvignon and Selegiline? | Hypertensive crisis |
| Diabetic agen, leading to increased insulin resistance and elevated fasting plasma glucose levels. | Growth hormone |
| What are results of ingesting exogenous GH ? | 1. Increases insulin resistance 2. Elevated fasting plasma glucose levels |
| What is the only factor that increases Prevalence? | Increased survival time |
| Using the terms TP, TN, FP, and FN, what is the equation for Prevalence? | (TP + FN) -------------------------- (TP + FN + TN +FP) |
| Number of existing cases divided by the total number of people in a population. | Prevalence |
| How many half-lives are needed to pass in order to reach steady state? | 4-5 half lives |
| Equation for Half-live: | (0.7)x (Vd) --------------------- Clearance |
| 0.7Vd/Clearance = | Half life |
| What is the equation for Vd (volume of distribution)? | (Amount of drug in body) ---------------------------------- Plasma drug concentration |
| CL = | Rate of Elimination of drug ----------------------------------------- Plasma drug concentration |
| Vd x Kc (elimination constant) = | Clearance |
| How is Precocious puberty characterised in boys and girls? | Development of secondary sexual characteristic before age of 8 in girls and 9 yo in boys. |
| What are the two classifications of Precocious puberty? | 1. Central (gonadotropin-dependent) 2. Peripheral ( gonadotropin- independent) |
| Precious puberty is associated with: | PULSATILE GnRH release |
| What sexual endocrine condition is associated with early PULSATILE GnRH release? | Precocious puberty |
| What is the main feature of the Genetic code? | It is UNIVERSAL |
| What does the fact the Genetic code is universal, allows it to achieve? | Describes common language among all organism to translate nucleotide sequences of DNA and RNA into amino acid sequences of proteins, in humans and bacteria |
| What causes Gout? | Accumulation of Urate crystals in synovial fluid, resulting in painful swollen joints |
| Negatively birefringent needle crystal s in joint aspirate. Dx? | Gout |
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rakomi
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