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Airway

Paramedic: Airway & Ventilation

QuestionAnswer
Microscopic air sacs where most oxygen and carbon dioxide gas exchange takes place Alveoli
The absence or near-absence of oxygen in certain tissues or in the body as a whole Anoxia
Temporary stop in breathing Apnea
A method of providing oxygen to an apneic patient during ET intubation to minimize the possibility of hypoxia developing during the procedure Apneic Oxygenation
A measure of oxygen content in the arterial blood Arterial Oxygen Concentration (CaO2)
Inhaling foreign material such as vomitus into the lungs Aspiration
Alveolar collapse Atelectasis
Ventilation device consisting of a self-inflating bag with two one-way valves and a transparent plastic face mask Bag-valve Mask (BVM)
Injury caused by pressure within an enclosed space Barotrauma
Air or oxygen delivered under pressure that is higher during inhalation and lower during exhalation Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP)
Tubes from the trachea into the lungs Bronchi
A recording or display of the measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide concentrations over time Capnography
Waste product of the body's metabolism Carbon Dioxide
The stiffness or flexibility of the lung tissue Compliance
Air or oxygen delivered under pressure that is maintained at a steady level during both inhalation and exhalation Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP)
A system for evaluating and scoring airway difficulty based on the portion of the glottic opening and vocal cords that may be seen Cormack and LeHane grading system
Pressure applied in a posterior direction to the anterior cricoid cartilage; occludes the esophagus Cricoid Pressure
Membrane between the cricoid and thyroid cartilages of the larynx Cricothyroid Membrane
Bluish discoloration Cyanosis
A ventilation device that is manually operated by a push button or lever Demand-valve Device
The movement of atoms or molecules from an of higher to lower concentration Diffusion
An abnormality of breathing rate, pattern, or effort Dyspnea
Position in which a supine patient's head is elevated to the point where the ear and sternal notch are horizontally aligned Ear-to-sternal-notch Position
A flexible plastic tube that is inserted into the trachea, usually under laryngoscopy, for the purpose of ventilating the lungs Endotracheal Tube (ETT)
A stylet that can be pushed into the glottis and helps guide ET tube placement. (Bougie) Endotracheal Tube Introducer
A tube that connects the ear with the nasal cavity and allows for equalization of pressure on each side of the tympanic membrane (auditory tubes) Eustachian Tube
Airway device that does not enter the glottis Extraglottic Airway (EGA) Devices
Removing a tube from a body opening Extubation
What is the acronym for Fraction of inspired oxygen? FiO2
Defect in the chest wall that allows segment to move freely, causing paradoxical chest wall movement Flail Chest
Highly reactive unpaired electrons that cause cell damage, especially oxidative damage Free Radicals
Unit of measurement approximately equal to one-third of a millimeter French
Mechanism that stimulates retching when the soft palate is touched Gag Reflex
Lip-like opening between the vocal cords Glottis
An iron-based protein present in red blood cells that binds with oxygen and transports it to the cells Hemoglobin (Hgb)
The amount of oxygen bound to 1 gram of hemoglobin Hemoglobin Oxygen Saturation (SaO2)
Accumulation of blood, or fluid containing blood, in the pleural cavity Hemothorax
The amount of blood present in arterial blood Hgb
Regulator used to transfer oxygen at high pressures from tank to tank High-pressure Regulator
Excessive level of carbon dioxide in the blood Hypercarbia
Excessive level of oxygen in certain tissues or in the body as a whole Hyperoxia
Reduced rate or depth of breathing that does not meet the body's needs Hypoventilation
Decreased partial pressure of oxygen in the blood Hypoxemia
A general oxygen deficiency or oxygen deficiency to a particular organ or tissue Hypoxia
Mechanism that increases respiratory stimulation when PaO2 falls and inhibits respiratory stimualtion when PaO2 climbs Hypoxic Drive
To blow into Insufflate
Passing a tube into a body opening Intubation
Instrument for lifting the tongue and epiglottis in order to see the vocal cords Laryngoscope
The complex structure that joins the pharynx with the trachea Larynx
A procedure for manually preshaping an Esophageal Tracheal Combitube (ETC) Lipp Maneuver
The channel through a tube Lumen
Scissor-style clamps with circular tips Magill forceps
A system for evaluating and scoring airway difficulty by assessing the tonsillar pillars and uvula Mallampati Classification System
The amount of air (gas) inhaled and exhaled in one minute Minute Volume
Lining in body cavities that handle air transport; usually contains small, mucous-secreting cells Mucous Membrane
A slippery secretion that lubricates and protects airway surfaces Mucus
Medical term for nostrils Nares
Catheter placed at the nares Nasal Cannula
Tubular vessels that drain tears and debris from the eyes and into the nasal cavity Nasolacrimal Ducts
Uncuffed tube that is inserted in the nose; extends from the nostril to the posterior pharynx Nasopharyngeal Airway (NPA)
Through the nose and into the trachea Nasotracheal Route
A surgical airway technique in which a 14-16-gauge needle is inserted into the trachea through the cricothyroid membrane Needle Cricothyrotomy
Normal level of oxygen in certain tissues or the body as a whole Normoxia
Surgical airway technique that places an ET tube or tracheostomy tube directly into the trachea through a surgical incision at the cricothyroid membrane Open Cricothyrotomy
Semicircular device that follows the curvature of the palate and helps prevent the tongue from blocking the airway Oropharyngeal Airway (OPA)
A gas that is necessary for energy production in the body Oxygen
The saturation of arterial blood with oxygen that is measured by pulse oximetry expressed as a percentage Oxygen Saturation Percentage (SpO2)
Arterial partial pressure Pa
Alveolar partial pressure PA
Asymmetrical chest wall movement that lessens respiratory efficiency Paradoxical Breathing
Principal or essential parts of an organ Parenchyma
The pressure exerted by each component of a gas mixture Partial Pressure
A muscular tube that extends vertically from the back of the soft palate to the superior aspect of the esophagus Pharynx
The ____ pleura lines the thoracic cavity and contains nerve fibers Parietal
Accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity Pneumothorax
A system for evaluating and scoring airway difficulty by the percentage of the glottis that can be visualized POGO Scoring System
Blood clot that travels to the pulmonary circulation and hinders oxygenation of the blood Pulmonary Embolism
A measurement of hemoglobin in oxygen saturation in the peripheral tissues Pulse Oximetry (SpO2)
Drop in blood pressure of greater than 10 torr during inspiration Pulsus Paradoxus
The ear-to-sternal-notch position used in an obese patient Ramped Position
Giving medications to sedate and temporarily paralyze a patient and then performing orotracheal intubation Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI)
The exchange of gases between a living organism and its environment Respiration
Number of times a person breathes in 1 minute Respiratory Rate
Extraglottic airway devices that are placed in the esophagus (behind the vocal cords) Retroglottic Airways
Hemoglobin-oxygen saturation SaO2
Cartilage that separates the right and left nasal cavities Septum
Air-filled cavities that are lined with a mucous membrane that help reduce the weight of the overall head and assist in heating, purifying, and moistening inhaled air Sinuses
The ear-to-sternal-notch position used in a non-obese patient Sniffing Position
Narrowing or constricting Stenosis
Opening in the anterior neck that connects the trachea with ambient air Stoma
Plastic-covered metal wire used to bend the ETT into a J or hockey-stick shape Stylet
To remove with a vacuum-type device Suction
Extraglottic airway devices placed above the vocal cords (above the glottis) Supraglottic Airway
Pressure regulator used for delivering oxygen to patients Therapy Regulator
The average volume of gas inhaled or exhaled in one respiratory cycle Tidal Volume (TV)
Maximum lung capacity Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
10-12 inch long tube that connects the larynx to the mainstem bronchi Trachea
An interference with air movement through the upper airway Upper Airway Obstruction
Depression between the epiglottis and the base of the tongue Vallecula
The mechanical process that moves air into and out of the lungs Ventilation
High-concentration face mask that delivers relatively precise oxygen concentrations Venturi Mask
The ____ pleura envelops the lungs and does not contain nerve fibers Visceral
Internal respiration is the exchange of gases between the blood in the ______ and the cells in the body. Systemic Capillaries
In the pons, the _____ center prolongs inhalation Apneustic
The _____ center interrupts the apneustic center to help bring about exhalation Pneumotaxic
This structure creates turbulent air flow that filters and deposits particles on the mucous membranes lining the nasal cavity Nasal Conchae
Inhaled atmospheric air is ____ % oxygen 21
What is the name of the nerve that innervates and sends signals to the diaphragm during ventilation and controls breathing? Phrenic Nerve
What part of the anatomy divides the upper & lower airway? Cricoid Ring
Serous fluid prevents _____ between the pleural membranes as the lungs expand and recoil. This fluid also keeps the pleural membranes ______ during breathing. friction; together
Most CO2 is carried in the blood in the form of: Bicarbonate ion
This vascular structure is located on the septum and warms inhaled air Kiesselbach Plexus
How many pairs of sinuses are there? 4
Mucous membranes lined with cilia in the nasal cavity help move particles to the ____ where it can be swallowed Pharynx
U-shaped bone located just beneath the chin that is unique in the fact that it is the only bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone Hyoid Bone
Uppermost region of the pharynx that extends from the back of the nasal opening to the plane of the soft palate Nasopharynx
Region of the pharynx that extends from the plane of the soft palate to the hyoid bone Oropharynx
Region of the pharynx that extends from the hyoid bone to the esophagus Laryngopharynx
The pharynx is made up of ___ regions 3
Also known as the "guardian of the airway" this leaf-shaped structure prevents food and fluids from entering the respiratory tract Epiglottis
The _____ mucous membrane is lined with nerve endings from the vagus nerve that, when stimulated during intubation, can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased respiratory rate Laryngeal
This cartilage is shield-shaped and also form the "Adam's Apple" Thyroid Cartilage
This cartilage forms a complete circle and is the narrowest point in a pediatrics airway Cricoid Cartilage
White bands of cartilage that regulate the passage of air through the larynx and vibrate to produce speech Vocal Cords
This pyramid shaped attachment anchors the vocal cords and is an important landmark for ET intubations Arytenoid Cartilage
Fixtures on either side of the glottic opening that form the lateral borders of the larynx Pyriform Fossae (sinus)
The membrane between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage Cricothyroid Membrane
This structure is also known as the "false vocal cords" and aid in closing the glottis Vestibular Folds
Bifurcation of the trachea into the left and right bronchi is known as the: Carina
A structure also known as the "lung roots" that is found on the medial aspect of each lung and is the only site of entry or exit of structures associated with the lungs Hilum
Alveolar ______ cells line more than 95% of the alveolar surface and are extremely thin to help facilitate passive gas diffusion Type I
Alveolar ______ cells secrete surfactant to help reduce surface tension within the alveoli Type II
Term for alveolar collapse Atelectasis
Discreet holes in adjacent alveoli that bypass normal airways and perform collateral ventilation Pores of Kohn
A type of phagocyte (nonspecific white blood cell) that removes particles such as dust or microorganisms from the respiratory surfaces Alveolar Macrophage
The pulmonary _____ carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs Arteries
The pulmonary _____ carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart Veins
The principal or essential parts of an organ Parenchyma
The right lung has ___ lobes 3
The left lung has ___ lobes 2
Membranous connective tissue covering the lungs that consists of 2 layers Pleura
Inflammation of the pleura that causes pain during respiration Pleurisy
This form of respiration is the exchange of O2 and CO2 between the lungs and blood in the pulmonary capillaries through the capillary membranes External Respiration
This form of respiration is the exchange of gases between the blood and various body tissues in the peripheral capillaries Internal Respiration
Abnormal breath sounds that are heard over a patient's lungs and airways Adventitious
Normal, medium-pitched breath sounds that are heard over the mainstem bronchi Bronchovesicular
What is the name of the nerve that is associated with stimulating the gag reflex and also controls breathing rate via the parasympathetic receptors? Vagus
The muscles located between the ribs Intercostal Muscles
The pressure within the atmosphere Atmospheric Pressure
The pressure within the lungs Intrapulmonary Pressure
The pressure within the pleural space Intrapleural Pressure
____ Law states that in a mixture of non-reacting gases, the total pressure exerted is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases. Dalton's
____ Law states that the pressure of a given mass of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to its volume at a constant temperature. Boyle's
The abbreviation that represent the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood PO2
The abbreviation that represents the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood PCO2
The abbreviation for alveolar partial pressures PA
The abbreviation for arterial partial pressures Pa
The abbreviation for the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli PAO2
The abbreviation for the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli PACO2
The abbreviation for the partial pressure of oxygen in the arteries PaO2
The abbreviation for the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries PaCO2
FiO2 stands for: Fraction of inspired O2
For every increase of 1 lpm, the FiO2 will increase by ___% 4
Cells that secrete mucous Goblet Cells
Iron bearing proteins in red blood cells that have 4 heme sites Hemoglobin
Hemoglobin without oxygen Deoxyhemoglobin
Hemoglobin with oxygen Oxyhemoglobin
Tool that monitors inspiratory pressure and helps providers keep ventilations below 20 cmH2O Manometer
The pressure that will remain in the lungs at the end of expiration Positive End Expiratory Pressure (PEEP)
CO2 binds to an amino acid of hemoglobin Carbaminohemoglobin (HbCO2)
Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin Carboxyhemoglobin
Increased CO2 levels Hypercarbia
Primary respiratory control center that sends signals to the muscles that control respiration to cause breathing to occur Medulla
Secondary respiratory control center controls the rate or speed of involuntary respiration Pons
The ____ Center in the pons sends signals for long and deep inspiratory breaths, increases tidal volume, and controls the intensity of breathing Apneustic
The ___ Center in the pons sends signals to inhibit inspiration, decreases tidal volume, and controls respiratory rate Pneumotaxic
Reflex that sends impulses to the respiratory center via the vagus nerve in the medulla to stop inspiration; prevents over-expansion Hering-Breuer Reflex
Receptors in the body that maintain homeostasis by detecting changes in O2, CO2, and pH Chemoreceptors
The ____ chemoreceptors are located in the medulla and detect changes in pH in the cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) Central
The ____ chemoreceptors are located in the aortic arch and carotid arteries and detect changes in O2 Peripheral
What percent of oxygen is dissolved in plasma? 1.5%
What percent of oxygen is bound to red blood cells? 98.5%
What percentage of carbon dioxide is transported via bicarbonate ions? 70%
What percentage of carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin? 23%
What percentage of carbon dioxide is dissolved in plasma? 7%
The respiratory control center is located in the ____ Brainstem
The ____ can influence the respiratory control center during voluntary control Cerebrum
Decreased partial pressure of O2 in the blood Hypoxemia
The amount of air moved into & out of the lungs in a single breath Tidal Volume (TV)
Amount of air moved into and out of the lungs in 1 minute Minute Volume (Vmin)
Amount of air that can be maximally inhaled after a normal breath Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
Amount of air that can be maximally exhaled after a normal expiration Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
Amount of air that can be maximally exhaled after a maximal inhale Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV)
Air left in the lungs after maximal exhalation (ERV) Residual Volume (RV)
Air that remains in air passages and unavailable for gas exchange (stays in conducting zone) Dead Space (VD)
Amount of gas in the tidal volume that reaches the alveoli for has exchange Alveolar Volume (VA)
The amount of gas that reaches the alveoli for gas exchange in 1 minute Alveolar Minute Volume (Va-min)
Total amount of air that can be inhaled Inspiratory Capacity (IC)
Amount of air remaining in the lungs after exhalation that still participates in gas exchange Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)
Amount of air moved during a full inspiration and expiration Vital Capacity (VC)
Maximal lung capacity Total Lung Capacity
The amount of air that can be maximally expired after maximum inspiration Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV)
Amount of gas in the tidal volume that reaches the alveoli for gas exchange Alveolar Volume (Va)
How do you calculate Minute Volume? Respiratory Rate x Tidal Volume
How do you calculate Alveolar Minute Volume? (Tidal Volume – Dead Space) x RR
The ____ is the most common cause of airway obstruction Tongue
___cardia is a sign of anoxia Bradycardia
___cardia is a sign of hypoxemia Tachycardia
An abnormal respiratory pattern that presents as deep, slow or rapid, gasping breathing, and is common in DKA Kussumaul
An abnormal respiratory pattern that presents as progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing, and may indicate a brainstem injury Cheyne-Stokes
An abnormal respiratory pattern that presents with an irregular respiratory rate/depth with sudden, periodic episodes of apnea; indicates increased intracranial pressure Biot's
An abnormal respiratory pattern that presents as deep, rapid respirations; indicates increased intracranial pressure Central Neurogenic Hyperventilation
An abnormal respiratory pattern that presents as shallow, slow, or infrequent breathing; indicates brain anoxia Agonal
A fine, bubbling sound heard on inspiration, associated with fluid in the smaller bronchioles Crackles (rales)
A coarse rattling noise heard on inspiration, associated with inflammation, mucus, or fluid in the bronchioles (chronic bronchioles, pneumonia) Rhonchi
The measurement of expired CO2 (ETCO2) Capnometry
Used to measure ETCO2 levels that contains pH-sensitive, chemically impregnated paper encased within a plastic chamber that changes color when exposed to CO2 Colorimetric Device
Position where the patient’s head is elevated to the point where the ear and the sternal notch are horizontally aligned Ear-to-sternal-notch Position
Position used in non-obese patients to maximize upper airway patency Sniffing Position
Position used in obese position to maximize upper airway patency Ramped Position
How do you calculate tank life of an O2 cylinder? (tank pressure psi) x (constant) / lpm
What is the constant of a D cylinder O2 tank? 0.16
What is the constant of an E cylinder O2 tank? 0.28
What is the constant of a M cylinder O2 tank? 1.56
What is the FiO2 of 1 lpm? 24%
Airway device that provides up to 40% O2 supplementation when set at 6 lpm Nasal Cannula
What is the flow rate range of a nasal cannula? 1-6 lpm
What is the FiO2 range of a nasal cannula? 24-44%
Precision controlled airway device that provides consistent FiO2 regardless of a patient's rate or depth Venturi Mask
What is the flow rate range of a venturi mask? 12-15 lpm
What is the FiO2 range of a venturi mask? 24-50%
A non-form fitting mask that has side ports that allows room air to enter the mask and dilute the O2 concentration Simple Face Mask
What is the flow rate range of a simple face mask? 4-10 lpm
What is the FiO2 range of a simple face mask? 40-60%
Airway mask with one-way side ports and a reservoir bag to hold O2 ready to inhale and delivers highest O2 concentration Nonrebreather Mask
What is the flow rate range of a nonrebreather mask? 10-15 lpm
What is the FiO2 of a nonrebreather mask? 80%
What is the flow rate of CPAP? 50 lpm
What is the fixed FiO2 range of CPAP? 30-80%
When checking the pressure gauge before suctioning a patient, the pressure needs to raise up to ___ mmHg within 4 seconds 300 mmHg
What 3 axes should you attempt to align to accomplish optimal upper airway patency to improve ventilations and increase intubation success? Oral, Pharyngeal, Laryngeal
How many liters of O2 does a D cylinder hold? 400 Liters
How many liters of O2 does an E cylinder hold? 660 Liters
How many liters of O2 does an M cylinder hold? 3450 Liters
What is the constant for D cylinder O2 tanks? 0.16
What is the constant for E cylinder O2 tanks? 0.28
What is the constant for M cylinder O2 tanks? 1.56
When connecting a regulator to an O2 cylinder, what type of pin index would you use? (2,5)
The ____ Respiratory Group in the medulla stimulates inhalation Dorsal
The ____ Respiratory Group in the medulla stimulates exhalation Ventral
What is the name of the nerves that stimulate the intercostal muscles located in the pleura and are a type of somatic nerve? Posterior Thoracic Nerves
Type of stretcher receptors that send impulses to the respiratory center via the vagus nerve in the medulla to stop inspiration; prevents over-expansion Baroreceptors
What 2 nerves innervate the inspiratory neurons of the dorsal respiratory group? Phrenic; Intercostal
Another name for a tonsil-tip catheter Yankauer Catheter
Another name for a whistle-tip catheter French Catheter
When suctioning a patient, do not suction for more than ___ seconds. 15
To correctly size an NPA, you should measure from the nostril to the: Earlobe, Tragus, Angle of the jaw
To correctly size an OPA, you should measure from the front of the teeth to the: Angle of the jaw
Devices inserted blindly into the airway to facilitate oxygenation and ventilation via a self-inflating bag or transport ventilator Extraglottic Airway (EGA) Devices
Airway adjuncts that sit in the esophagus, behind the vocal cords Retroglottic
Airway adjuncts that sit above the vocal cords Supraglottic
What are the 7 P's of DSI? Preparation, Positioning, Preoxygenation, Pretreatment, Paralysis, Placement and Proof, Post Intubation Management
What does SALAD stand for when referring to the SALAD Technique used to suction an airway? Suction-Assisted Laryngoscopy Airway Decontamination
A musical, squeaking, or whistling sound heard during inspiration and/or expiration, associated with bronchial constriction Wheezing
A harsh, high-pitched sound heard on inhalation that is associated with laryngeal edema or constriction Stridor
To measure SpO2, deoxyhemoglobin absorbs more ____ Red Light
To measure SpO2, oxyhemoglobin absorbs more ___ Infrared Light
The ___ the amount of light that reaches the sensor, the ___ the amount of Hgb that absorbs that specific type of light is present in the blood. lower; higher
An SpO2 % between _____ would indicate mild hypoxemia 91-94%
An SpO2 % of ____ would indicate moderate hypoxemia 86-90%
An SpO2 % of ____ would indicate severe hypoxemia? < 85%
____ capnography detects the presence of CO2 in the body Qualitative
This type of quantitative capnography samples gas via an in-line sensor that connects directly to the ETT circuit Quantitative
This type of quantitative capnography samples gas via an in-line sensor that connects directly to the ETT circuit Mainstream
A form of quantitative capnography in which samples of gas from the airway travel through a thin tube that is attached to a sensor unit to measure ETCO2 levels Sidestream
A device that measures and displays expired CO2 levels as a waveform Capnogram
This phase of a capnogram is the respiratory baseline. It is displayed as a flat line in which no CO2 is present and corresponds to the late phase of inspiration and the early part of expiration Phase I
This phase of a capnogram is the respiratory upstroke, It represents the appearance of CO2 in the alveoli Phase II
This phase of a capnogram is the respiratory plateau. It reflects the airflow through uniformly ventilated alveoli with a nearly constant CO2 level Phase III
This phase of a capnogram is the inspiratory phase. It is displayed as a sudden down stroke and ultimately returns to the baseline during inspiration Phase IV
The ____ effect can be described as a decrease in O2 affinity with Hgb in response to decreased blood pH resulting from an increased concentration of CO2 in the blood Bohr
The ____ effect can be described as an increase in O2 affinity with Hgb that promotes the release of CO2 Haldane
The color purple from a colorimetric device means that the concentration of exhaled CO2 is ____ mmHg < 4 mmHg CO2
The color tan from a colorimetric device means that the concentration of exhaled CO2 is ____ mmHg 4-15 mmHg CO2
The color yellow from a colorimetric device means that the concentration of exhaled CO2 is ____ mmHg > 20 mmHg CO2
What 3 unpaired cartilages make up the larynx? Epiglottis, Thyroid cartilage, Cricoid cartilage
What are the 3 paired cartilages that make up the larynx? Arytenoid, Corniculate, Cuneiform
What is the average NPA size range used on an adult? 6-8 mm (26-34 FR)
What is the average OPA size range used on an adult? 80-100 mm (Size 3-5)
What is the flow rate range of a BVM? 10-15 lpm
What is the FiO2 range of a BVM? 90-95%
How many mL is an adult BVM? 1500 mL
How many mL is a child BVM? 500 mL
How many mL is an infant BVM? 350 mL
When using a manometer to monitor pressure during BVM ventilations you should try to keep each ventilation below ___ cm H2O 20
A curved blade that has a large flange for sweeping the tongue from the right to the left side of the mouth Macintosh
A straight blade that fits under the epiglottis to manually lift it out of the way Miller
The ____ ligament is triggered when a Macintosh blade is advanced into the vallecula, causing the epiglottis to raise up. Hypoepiglottic
The average ETT sizes used on an adult female is ____. 7.0-7.5 mm
The average ETT sizes used on an adult male is ____. 7.5-8.0 mm
The second opening on the distal tip of an ETT that functions as a vent and prevents complete obstruction of the airway Murphy's Eye
When shaping an ETT with a stylet the distal tip should be angulated no more than ____ degrees. 35-degrees
The distal tip of an ETT introducer is formed into a coude tip, which is angulated at ____ degrees. 40-degrees
Direct visualization, tube misting, and auscultation for breathe sounds are all forms of ____ techniques used to verify tube placement. Subjective
Using capnography (EtCO2) or an esophageal detector device (EDD) are both forms of ____ techniques used to verify tube placement. Objective
What are the 3 indications for Medically Assisted Intubation (MAI)? 1. Failure to maintain or protect airway 2. Failure of oxygenation or ventilation 3. Intubation is the anticipated clinical course
When inserting an ET tube, how many cm past the vocal cords should you insert the cuff? 1-2 cm
What does the "B" in BURP stand for? Backward
What does the "U" in BURP stand for? Upward
What does the "R" in BURP stand for? Rightward
What does the "P" in BURP stand for? Pressure
What acronym would you use to thoroughly assess a patient for possible difficulties you may encounter during intubation? LEMONS
What does the "L" in LEMONS stand for? Look externally
What does the "E" in LEMONS stand for? Evaluate 3-3-2 Rule
What does the "M" in LEMONS stand for? Mallampati Score
What does the "O" in LEMONS stand for? Obstruction/Obesity
What does the "N" in LEMONS stand for? Neck Mobility
What does the "S" in LEMONS stand for? Saturation
What does the first "3" of the 3-3-2 Rule stand for? Check that the mouth opening is equal to at least 3 patient-sized fingers
What does the "2" in the 3-3-2 Rule stand for? Check that there is room for 2 patient-sized fingers between the hyoid bone and the top of the thyroid
What does the second "3" of the 3-3-2 Rule represent? Check that there is room for 3 patient-sized fingers between the tip of the chin and the hyoid bone
Cormack and LeHane grading system (Grade 1) The entire glottic opening and vocal cords can be seen
Cormack and LeHane grading system (Grade 2) The epiglottis and the posterior portion of the glottic opening may be seen with a partial view of the vocal cords
Cormack and LeHane grading system (Grade 3) Only the epiglottis and (sometimes) posterior cartilages can be seen
Cormack and LeHane grading system (Grade 4) Neither the epiglottis nor the glottis can be seen
What is the average endotrol tube size range for most adults? 6.0-7.0
A nasal intubation tube is placed ___cm deeper than an oral intubation. 3 cm
What sized ETT would be used during a surgical cricothyrotomy? 6.0-6.5 ETT
A type of pneumothorax that occurs without any obvious cause or injury in which air will flow from the alveoli and into the pleural space Spontaneous
A type of pneumothorax in which there is usually only partial collapse of a lung due to penetrating or blunt trauma or spontaneous pneumothorax. Simple
A type of pneumothorax in which air moves into and out of the chest through a large open wound and creates a "sucking" sound Open
A type of pneumothorax in which the pressure inside of the intrapleural cavity is greater than atmospheric pressure, causing cardiopulmonary function compromise Tension
A needle thoracostomy performed at the midclavicular line is inserted at the ___ intercostal space. Second
A needle thoracostomy performed at the midaxillary line is inserted at the ___ intercostal space. Fifth
A short-acting anesthetic agent that enhances GABA activity at the GABA-receptor complex and has no analgesic properties Etomidate
What is the Dosage of Etomidate? 0.3 mg/kg IV push
What is the Onset of Etomidate? 15-45 seconds
What is the Duration of Etomidate? 3-12 minutes
A short-acting dissociative anesthetic that interacts with NMBA receptors and promotes neuroinhibition and anesthesia. Ketamine
What is the Mechanism of Action of Ketamine? 1. Analgesic effect 2. Stimulates the release of catecholamines (epi/norepi) 3. Directly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle
What is the Dosage of Ketamine? 1-2 mg/kg IV push
What is the Onset of Ketamine? 30-60 seconds
What is the Duration of Ketamine? 10-20 minutes
A benzodiazepine that binds to a receptor of the GABA complex and increases the frequency with which inhibitory chloride channels open Midazolam
What is the Trade Name of Midazolam? Versed
What is the Trade Name of Etomidate? Amidate
What is the Trade Name of Ketamine? Ketalar
What is the Dosage of Midazolam? 0.1-0.3 mg/kg IV push
What is the Onset of Midazolam? 2-5 minutes
What is the Duration of Midazolam? 15-30 minutes
Medications that inhibit skeletal muscle contraction by interfering with cholinergic nicotinic receptors Neuromuscular Blocking Agents (NMBA)
A neurotransmitter that binds to nicotinic receptors and promotes depolarization and muscle contraction Acetylcholine (ACH)
An ____ NMBA binds to an ACH receptor site and causes consistent depolarization of the motor end plates (folds in sarcolemma) which exhausts the ability of the receptor to respond to further stimuli Agonist
An ____ NMBA binds to ACH receptor sites and block ACH from binding causing an interference of nerve impulse transmission Antagonist
What Class of drug is Succinylcholine? Depolarizing NMBA (Agonist)
Muscle twitches or spasms that may be a result after induction of a depolarizing NMBA Fasciculations
What is the Dosage of Succinylcholine? 1-1.5 mg/kg IV push
What is the Onset of Succinylcholine? 45-60 seconds
What is the Duration of Succinylcholine? 5-10 minutes
A depolarizing NMBA that is used to induce paralysis during intubation Succinhylcholine
A nondepolarizing NMBA that may be used to induce or maintain paralysis for intubation Rocuronium
What is the Dosage of Rocuronium? 1 mg/kg IV push
What is the Onset of Rocuronium? 60-90 seconds
What is the Duration of Rocuronium? 45-120 minutes
A nondepolarizing NBMA that is commonly used to maintain paralysis after succinhylcholine administration Vecuronium
What is the Dosage of Vecuronium? 0.1-0.2 mg/kg IV push
What is the Onset of Vecuronium? 1-3 minutes
What is the Duration of Vecuronium? 45-90 minutes
How high should the systolic BP of a patient be in order to perform ET intubation? 100 mmHg
What is the formula for creating a Push-Dose Pressor of Epinephrine? 9 mL of NS + 1 mL Epi (1:10,000)
How much and how often should adults receive a Push-Dose Pressor of Epi? 2 mL every 3-5 minutes
How much and how often should children receive a Push-Dose Pressor of Epi? 1 mL every 3-5 minutes
What is the Rule of 15? Nasal cannula at 15 lpm BVM at 15 lpm PEEP up to 15 cm H2O
A sympathetic agonist that functions as a peripheral vasoconstrictor that stimulates the heart and causes coronary artery dilation Norepinephrine
A sympathetic agonist that causes both alpha and beta adrenergic stimulation Epinephrine
What is the formula for creating a Norepinephrine infusion for adults? Mix 4 mg Norepi into 250 mL NS and administer via a 60 gtts/set at 16 mcg/mL
What is the Infusion Rate for a Norepinephrine Infusion for an Adult? 0.1-0.5 mcg/kg/min
What is the Infusion Rate for a Norepinephrine Infusion for a Pediatric? 0.1-2 mcg/kg/min
What is the formula used to calculate an uncuffed ETT size for pediatrics? (Age in years/4) + 4
What formula is used to calculate a cuffed ETT size for pediatrics? (Age in years/4) + 3.5
What formula is used to calculate ETT depth insertion for pediatrics? (Tube internal diameter) x 3
What formula is used to calculate the french catheter size to use during ETT suctioning? ETT size x 2
How do you measure the depth of insertion of a french catheter when suctioning an ETT? Measure from the hub to 0.5 cm beyond the tip of the ETT
Shelf-like bony projections within the internal nares that causes turbulent airflow and serves as conduits into the sinuses Nasal Conchae
Another name for nasal conchae Turbinates
Intrapleural pressure is always slightly ____ than atmospheric pressure, and slightly ____ than intrapulmonary pressure higher; lower
The normal range for ETCO2 is ___ to 45 mmHg 35
An overproduction of red blood cells to increase the amount of O2 that is able to be transported to tissues throughout the body; Common in patients with chronic lung disease and chronic hypoxia Polycythemia
Muscle pain and tingling in the fingers and toes due to hyperventilation; PCO2 is expelled too quickly from the body and results in changes to blood pH level. Carpopedal Spasms
Created by: sarah.thomas32
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