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Airway
Paramedic: Airway & Ventilation
Question | Answer |
---|---|
Microscopic air sacs where most oxygen and carbon dioxide gas exchange takes place | Alveoli |
The absence or near-absence of oxygen in certain tissues or in the body as a whole | Anoxia |
Temporary stop in breathing | Apnea |
A method of providing oxygen to an apneic patient during ET intubation to minimize the possibility of hypoxia developing during the procedure | Apneic Oxygenation |
A measure of oxygen content in the arterial blood | Arterial Oxygen Concentration (CaO2) |
Inhaling foreign material such as vomitus into the lungs | Aspiration |
Alveolar collapse | Atelectasis |
Ventilation device consisting of a self-inflating bag with two one-way valves and a transparent plastic face mask | Bag-valve Mask (BVM) |
Injury caused by pressure within an enclosed space | Barotrauma |
Air or oxygen delivered under pressure that is higher during inhalation and lower during exhalation | Bilevel Positive Airway Pressure (BiPAP) |
Tubes from the trachea into the lungs | Bronchi |
A recording or display of the measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide concentrations over time | Capnography |
Waste product of the body's metabolism | Carbon Dioxide |
The stiffness or flexibility of the lung tissue | Compliance |
Air or oxygen delivered under pressure that is maintained at a steady level during both inhalation and exhalation | Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) |
A system for evaluating and scoring airway difficulty based on the portion of the glottic opening and vocal cords that may be seen | Cormack and LeHane grading system |
Pressure applied in a posterior direction to the anterior cricoid cartilage; occludes the esophagus | Cricoid Pressure |
Membrane between the cricoid and thyroid cartilages of the larynx | Cricothyroid Membrane |
Bluish discoloration | Cyanosis |
A ventilation device that is manually operated by a push button or lever | Demand-valve Device |
The movement of atoms or molecules from an of higher to lower concentration | Diffusion |
An abnormality of breathing rate, pattern, or effort | Dyspnea |
Position in which a supine patient's head is elevated to the point where the ear and sternal notch are horizontally aligned | Ear-to-sternal-notch Position |
A flexible plastic tube that is inserted into the trachea, usually under laryngoscopy, for the purpose of ventilating the lungs | Endotracheal Tube (ETT) |
A stylet that can be pushed into the glottis and helps guide ET tube placement. (Bougie) | Endotracheal Tube Introducer |
A tube that connects the ear with the nasal cavity and allows for equalization of pressure on each side of the tympanic membrane (auditory tubes) | Eustachian Tube |
Airway device that does not enter the glottis | Extraglottic Airway (EGA) Devices |
Removing a tube from a body opening | Extubation |
What is the acronym for Fraction of inspired oxygen? | FiO2 |
Defect in the chest wall that allows segment to move freely, causing paradoxical chest wall movement | Flail Chest |
Highly reactive unpaired electrons that cause cell damage, especially oxidative damage | Free Radicals |
Unit of measurement approximately equal to one-third of a millimeter | French |
Mechanism that stimulates retching when the soft palate is touched | Gag Reflex |
Lip-like opening between the vocal cords | Glottis |
An iron-based protein present in red blood cells that binds with oxygen and transports it to the cells | Hemoglobin (Hgb) |
The amount of oxygen bound to 1 gram of hemoglobin | Hemoglobin Oxygen Saturation (SaO2) |
Accumulation of blood, or fluid containing blood, in the pleural cavity | Hemothorax |
The amount of blood present in arterial blood | Hgb |
Regulator used to transfer oxygen at high pressures from tank to tank | High-pressure Regulator |
Excessive level of carbon dioxide in the blood | Hypercarbia |
Excessive level of oxygen in certain tissues or in the body as a whole | Hyperoxia |
Reduced rate or depth of breathing that does not meet the body's needs | Hypoventilation |
Decreased partial pressure of oxygen in the blood | Hypoxemia |
A general oxygen deficiency or oxygen deficiency to a particular organ or tissue | Hypoxia |
Mechanism that increases respiratory stimulation when PaO2 falls and inhibits respiratory stimualtion when PaO2 climbs | Hypoxic Drive |
To blow into | Insufflate |
Passing a tube into a body opening | Intubation |
Instrument for lifting the tongue and epiglottis in order to see the vocal cords | Laryngoscope |
The complex structure that joins the pharynx with the trachea | Larynx |
A procedure for manually preshaping an Esophageal Tracheal Combitube (ETC) | Lipp Maneuver |
The channel through a tube | Lumen |
Scissor-style clamps with circular tips | Magill forceps |
A system for evaluating and scoring airway difficulty by assessing the tonsillar pillars and uvula | Mallampati Classification System |
The amount of air (gas) inhaled and exhaled in one minute | Minute Volume |
Lining in body cavities that handle air transport; usually contains small, mucous-secreting cells | Mucous Membrane |
A slippery secretion that lubricates and protects airway surfaces | Mucus |
Medical term for nostrils | Nares |
Catheter placed at the nares | Nasal Cannula |
Tubular vessels that drain tears and debris from the eyes and into the nasal cavity | Nasolacrimal Ducts |
Uncuffed tube that is inserted in the nose; extends from the nostril to the posterior pharynx | Nasopharyngeal Airway (NPA) |
Through the nose and into the trachea | Nasotracheal Route |
A surgical airway technique in which a 14-16-gauge needle is inserted into the trachea through the cricothyroid membrane | Needle Cricothyrotomy |
Normal level of oxygen in certain tissues or the body as a whole | Normoxia |
Surgical airway technique that places an ET tube or tracheostomy tube directly into the trachea through a surgical incision at the cricothyroid membrane | Open Cricothyrotomy |
Semicircular device that follows the curvature of the palate and helps prevent the tongue from blocking the airway | Oropharyngeal Airway (OPA) |
A gas that is necessary for energy production in the body | Oxygen |
The saturation of arterial blood with oxygen that is measured by pulse oximetry expressed as a percentage | Oxygen Saturation Percentage (SpO2) |
Arterial partial pressure | Pa |
Alveolar partial pressure | PA |
Asymmetrical chest wall movement that lessens respiratory efficiency | Paradoxical Breathing |
Principal or essential parts of an organ | Parenchyma |
The pressure exerted by each component of a gas mixture | Partial Pressure |
A muscular tube that extends vertically from the back of the soft palate to the superior aspect of the esophagus | Pharynx |
The ____ pleura lines the thoracic cavity and contains nerve fibers | Parietal |
Accumulation of air or gas in the pleural cavity | Pneumothorax |
A system for evaluating and scoring airway difficulty by the percentage of the glottis that can be visualized | POGO Scoring System |
Blood clot that travels to the pulmonary circulation and hinders oxygenation of the blood | Pulmonary Embolism |
A measurement of hemoglobin in oxygen saturation in the peripheral tissues | Pulse Oximetry (SpO2) |
Drop in blood pressure of greater than 10 torr during inspiration | Pulsus Paradoxus |
The ear-to-sternal-notch position used in an obese patient | Ramped Position |
Giving medications to sedate and temporarily paralyze a patient and then performing orotracheal intubation | Rapid Sequence Intubation (RSI) |
The exchange of gases between a living organism and its environment | Respiration |
Number of times a person breathes in 1 minute | Respiratory Rate |
Extraglottic airway devices that are placed in the esophagus (behind the vocal cords) | Retroglottic Airways |
Hemoglobin-oxygen saturation | SaO2 |
Cartilage that separates the right and left nasal cavities | Septum |
Air-filled cavities that are lined with a mucous membrane that help reduce the weight of the overall head and assist in heating, purifying, and moistening inhaled air | Sinuses |
The ear-to-sternal-notch position used in a non-obese patient | Sniffing Position |
Narrowing or constricting | Stenosis |
Opening in the anterior neck that connects the trachea with ambient air | Stoma |
Plastic-covered metal wire used to bend the ETT into a J or hockey-stick shape | Stylet |
To remove with a vacuum-type device | Suction |
Extraglottic airway devices placed above the vocal cords (above the glottis) | Supraglottic Airway |
Pressure regulator used for delivering oxygen to patients | Therapy Regulator |
The average volume of gas inhaled or exhaled in one respiratory cycle | Tidal Volume (TV) |
Maximum lung capacity | Total Lung Capacity (TLC) |
10-12 inch long tube that connects the larynx to the mainstem bronchi | Trachea |
An interference with air movement through the upper airway | Upper Airway Obstruction |
Depression between the epiglottis and the base of the tongue | Vallecula |
The mechanical process that moves air into and out of the lungs | Ventilation |
High-concentration face mask that delivers relatively precise oxygen concentrations | Venturi Mask |
The ____ pleura envelops the lungs and does not contain nerve fibers | Visceral |
Internal respiration is the exchange of gases between the blood in the ______ and the cells in the body. | Systemic Capillaries |
In the pons, the _____ center prolongs inhalation | Apneustic |
The _____ center interrupts the apneustic center to help bring about exhalation | Pneumotaxic |
This structure creates turbulent air flow that filters and deposits particles on the mucous membranes lining the nasal cavity | Nasal Conchae |
Inhaled atmospheric air is ____ % oxygen | 21 |
What is the name of the nerve that innervates and sends signals to the diaphragm during ventilation and controls breathing? | Phrenic Nerve |
What part of the anatomy divides the upper & lower airway? | Cricoid Ring |
Serous fluid prevents _____ between the pleural membranes as the lungs expand and recoil. This fluid also keeps the pleural membranes ______ during breathing. | friction; together |
Most CO2 is carried in the blood in the form of: | Bicarbonate ion |
This vascular structure is located on the septum and warms inhaled air | Kiesselbach Plexus |
How many pairs of sinuses are there? | 4 |
Mucous membranes lined with cilia in the nasal cavity help move particles to the ____ where it can be swallowed | Pharynx |
U-shaped bone located just beneath the chin that is unique in the fact that it is the only bone in the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone | Hyoid Bone |
Uppermost region of the pharynx that extends from the back of the nasal opening to the plane of the soft palate | Nasopharynx |
Region of the pharynx that extends from the plane of the soft palate to the hyoid bone | Oropharynx |
Region of the pharynx that extends from the hyoid bone to the esophagus | Laryngopharynx |
The pharynx is made up of ___ regions | 3 |
Also known as the "guardian of the airway" this leaf-shaped structure prevents food and fluids from entering the respiratory tract | Epiglottis |
The _____ mucous membrane is lined with nerve endings from the vagus nerve that, when stimulated during intubation, can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and decreased respiratory rate | Laryngeal |
This cartilage is shield-shaped and also form the "Adam's Apple" | Thyroid Cartilage |
This cartilage forms a complete circle and is the narrowest point in a pediatrics airway | Cricoid Cartilage |
White bands of cartilage that regulate the passage of air through the larynx and vibrate to produce speech | Vocal Cords |
This pyramid shaped attachment anchors the vocal cords and is an important landmark for ET intubations | Arytenoid Cartilage |
Fixtures on either side of the glottic opening that form the lateral borders of the larynx | Pyriform Fossae (sinus) |
The membrane between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage | Cricothyroid Membrane |
This structure is also known as the "false vocal cords" and aid in closing the glottis | Vestibular Folds |
Bifurcation of the trachea into the left and right bronchi is known as the: | Carina |
A structure also known as the "lung roots" that is found on the medial aspect of each lung and is the only site of entry or exit of structures associated with the lungs | Hilum |
Alveolar ______ cells line more than 95% of the alveolar surface and are extremely thin to help facilitate passive gas diffusion | Type I |
Alveolar ______ cells secrete surfactant to help reduce surface tension within the alveoli | Type II |
Term for alveolar collapse | Atelectasis |
Discreet holes in adjacent alveoli that bypass normal airways and perform collateral ventilation | Pores of Kohn |
A type of phagocyte (nonspecific white blood cell) that removes particles such as dust or microorganisms from the respiratory surfaces | Alveolar Macrophage |
The pulmonary _____ carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs | Arteries |
The pulmonary _____ carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart | Veins |
The principal or essential parts of an organ | Parenchyma |
The right lung has ___ lobes | 3 |
The left lung has ___ lobes | 2 |
Membranous connective tissue covering the lungs that consists of 2 layers | Pleura |
Inflammation of the pleura that causes pain during respiration | Pleurisy |
This form of respiration is the exchange of O2 and CO2 between the lungs and blood in the pulmonary capillaries through the capillary membranes | External Respiration |
This form of respiration is the exchange of gases between the blood and various body tissues in the peripheral capillaries | Internal Respiration |
Abnormal breath sounds that are heard over a patient's lungs and airways | Adventitious |
Normal, medium-pitched breath sounds that are heard over the mainstem bronchi | Bronchovesicular |
What is the name of the nerve that is associated with stimulating the gag reflex and also controls breathing rate via the parasympathetic receptors? | Vagus |
The muscles located between the ribs | Intercostal Muscles |
The pressure within the atmosphere | Atmospheric Pressure |
The pressure within the lungs | Intrapulmonary Pressure |
The pressure within the pleural space | Intrapleural Pressure |
____ Law states that in a mixture of non-reacting gases, the total pressure exerted is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases. | Dalton's |
____ Law states that the pressure of a given mass of an ideal gas is inversely proportional to its volume at a constant temperature. | Boyle's |
The abbreviation that represent the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood | PO2 |
The abbreviation that represents the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood | PCO2 |
The abbreviation for alveolar partial pressures | PA |
The abbreviation for arterial partial pressures | Pa |
The abbreviation for the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli | PAO2 |
The abbreviation for the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli | PACO2 |
The abbreviation for the partial pressure of oxygen in the arteries | PaO2 |
The abbreviation for the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the arteries | PaCO2 |
FiO2 stands for: | Fraction of inspired O2 |
For every increase of 1 lpm, the FiO2 will increase by ___% | 4 |
Cells that secrete mucous | Goblet Cells |
Iron bearing proteins in red blood cells that have 4 heme sites | Hemoglobin |
Hemoglobin without oxygen | Deoxyhemoglobin |
Hemoglobin with oxygen | Oxyhemoglobin |
Tool that monitors inspiratory pressure and helps providers keep ventilations below 20 cmH2O | Manometer |
The pressure that will remain in the lungs at the end of expiration | Positive End Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) |
CO2 binds to an amino acid of hemoglobin | Carbaminohemoglobin (HbCO2) |
Carbon monoxide binds to hemoglobin | Carboxyhemoglobin |
Increased CO2 levels | Hypercarbia |
Primary respiratory control center that sends signals to the muscles that control respiration to cause breathing to occur | Medulla |
Secondary respiratory control center controls the rate or speed of involuntary respiration | Pons |
The ____ Center in the pons sends signals for long and deep inspiratory breaths, increases tidal volume, and controls the intensity of breathing | Apneustic |
The ___ Center in the pons sends signals to inhibit inspiration, decreases tidal volume, and controls respiratory rate | Pneumotaxic |
Reflex that sends impulses to the respiratory center via the vagus nerve in the medulla to stop inspiration; prevents over-expansion | Hering-Breuer Reflex |
Receptors in the body that maintain homeostasis by detecting changes in O2, CO2, and pH | Chemoreceptors |
The ____ chemoreceptors are located in the medulla and detect changes in pH in the cerebral spinal fluid (CSF) | Central |
The ____ chemoreceptors are located in the aortic arch and carotid arteries and detect changes in O2 | Peripheral |
What percent of oxygen is dissolved in plasma? | 1.5% |
What percent of oxygen is bound to red blood cells? | 98.5% |
What percentage of carbon dioxide is transported via bicarbonate ions? | 70% |
What percentage of carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin? | 23% |
What percentage of carbon dioxide is dissolved in plasma? | 7% |
The respiratory control center is located in the ____ | Brainstem |
The ____ can influence the respiratory control center during voluntary control | Cerebrum |
Decreased partial pressure of O2 in the blood | Hypoxemia |
The amount of air moved into & out of the lungs in a single breath | Tidal Volume (TV) |
Amount of air moved into and out of the lungs in 1 minute | Minute Volume (Vmin) |
Amount of air that can be maximally inhaled after a normal breath | Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) |
Amount of air that can be maximally exhaled after a normal expiration | Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) |
Amount of air that can be maximally exhaled after a maximal inhale | Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) |
Air left in the lungs after maximal exhalation (ERV) | Residual Volume (RV) |
Air that remains in air passages and unavailable for gas exchange (stays in conducting zone) | Dead Space (VD) |
Amount of gas in the tidal volume that reaches the alveoli for has exchange | Alveolar Volume (VA) |
The amount of gas that reaches the alveoli for gas exchange in 1 minute | Alveolar Minute Volume (Va-min) |
Total amount of air that can be inhaled | Inspiratory Capacity (IC) |
Amount of air remaining in the lungs after exhalation that still participates in gas exchange | Functional Residual Capacity (FRC) |
Amount of air moved during a full inspiration and expiration | Vital Capacity (VC) |
Maximal lung capacity | Total Lung Capacity |
The amount of air that can be maximally expired after maximum inspiration | Forced Expiratory Volume (FEV) |
Amount of gas in the tidal volume that reaches the alveoli for gas exchange | Alveolar Volume (Va) |
How do you calculate Minute Volume? | Respiratory Rate x Tidal Volume |
How do you calculate Alveolar Minute Volume? | (Tidal Volume – Dead Space) x RR |
The ____ is the most common cause of airway obstruction | Tongue |
___cardia is a sign of anoxia | Bradycardia |
___cardia is a sign of hypoxemia | Tachycardia |
An abnormal respiratory pattern that presents as deep, slow or rapid, gasping breathing, and is common in DKA | Kussumaul |
An abnormal respiratory pattern that presents as progressively deeper, faster breathing alternating gradually with shallow, slower breathing, and may indicate a brainstem injury | Cheyne-Stokes |
An abnormal respiratory pattern that presents with an irregular respiratory rate/depth with sudden, periodic episodes of apnea; indicates increased intracranial pressure | Biot's |
An abnormal respiratory pattern that presents as deep, rapid respirations; indicates increased intracranial pressure | Central Neurogenic Hyperventilation |
An abnormal respiratory pattern that presents as shallow, slow, or infrequent breathing; indicates brain anoxia | Agonal |
A fine, bubbling sound heard on inspiration, associated with fluid in the smaller bronchioles | Crackles (rales) |
A coarse rattling noise heard on inspiration, associated with inflammation, mucus, or fluid in the bronchioles (chronic bronchioles, pneumonia) | Rhonchi |
The measurement of expired CO2 (ETCO2) | Capnometry |
Used to measure ETCO2 levels that contains pH-sensitive, chemically impregnated paper encased within a plastic chamber that changes color when exposed to CO2 | Colorimetric Device |
Position where the patient’s head is elevated to the point where the ear and the sternal notch are horizontally aligned | Ear-to-sternal-notch Position |
Position used in non-obese patients to maximize upper airway patency | Sniffing Position |
Position used in obese position to maximize upper airway patency | Ramped Position |
How do you calculate tank life of an O2 cylinder? | (tank pressure psi) x (constant) / lpm |
What is the constant of a D cylinder O2 tank? | 0.16 |
What is the constant of an E cylinder O2 tank? | 0.28 |
What is the constant of a M cylinder O2 tank? | 1.56 |
What is the FiO2 of 1 lpm? | 24% |
Airway device that provides up to 40% O2 supplementation when set at 6 lpm | Nasal Cannula |
What is the flow rate range of a nasal cannula? | 1-6 lpm |
What is the FiO2 range of a nasal cannula? | 24-44% |
Precision controlled airway device that provides consistent FiO2 regardless of a patient's rate or depth | Venturi Mask |
What is the flow rate range of a venturi mask? | 12-15 lpm |
What is the FiO2 range of a venturi mask? | 24-50% |
A non-form fitting mask that has side ports that allows room air to enter the mask and dilute the O2 concentration | Simple Face Mask |
What is the flow rate range of a simple face mask? | 4-10 lpm |
What is the FiO2 range of a simple face mask? | 40-60% |
Airway mask with one-way side ports and a reservoir bag to hold O2 ready to inhale and delivers highest O2 concentration | Nonrebreather Mask |
What is the flow rate range of a nonrebreather mask? | 10-15 lpm |
What is the FiO2 of a nonrebreather mask? | 80% |
What is the flow rate of CPAP? | 50 lpm |
What is the fixed FiO2 range of CPAP? | 30-80% |
When checking the pressure gauge before suctioning a patient, the pressure needs to raise up to ___ mmHg within 4 seconds | 300 mmHg |
What 3 axes should you attempt to align to accomplish optimal upper airway patency to improve ventilations and increase intubation success? | Oral, Pharyngeal, Laryngeal |
How many liters of O2 does a D cylinder hold? | 400 Liters |
How many liters of O2 does an E cylinder hold? | 660 Liters |
How many liters of O2 does an M cylinder hold? | 3450 Liters |
What is the constant for D cylinder O2 tanks? | 0.16 |
What is the constant for E cylinder O2 tanks? | 0.28 |
What is the constant for M cylinder O2 tanks? | 1.56 |
When connecting a regulator to an O2 cylinder, what type of pin index would you use? | (2,5) |
The ____ Respiratory Group in the medulla stimulates inhalation | Dorsal |
The ____ Respiratory Group in the medulla stimulates exhalation | Ventral |
What is the name of the nerves that stimulate the intercostal muscles located in the pleura and are a type of somatic nerve? | Posterior Thoracic Nerves |
Type of stretcher receptors that send impulses to the respiratory center via the vagus nerve in the medulla to stop inspiration; prevents over-expansion | Baroreceptors |
What 2 nerves innervate the inspiratory neurons of the dorsal respiratory group? | Phrenic; Intercostal |
Another name for a tonsil-tip catheter | Yankauer Catheter |
Another name for a whistle-tip catheter | French Catheter |
When suctioning a patient, do not suction for more than ___ seconds. | 15 |
To correctly size an NPA, you should measure from the nostril to the: | Earlobe, Tragus, Angle of the jaw |
To correctly size an OPA, you should measure from the front of the teeth to the: | Angle of the jaw |
Devices inserted blindly into the airway to facilitate oxygenation and ventilation via a self-inflating bag or transport ventilator | Extraglottic Airway (EGA) Devices |
Airway adjuncts that sit in the esophagus, behind the vocal cords | Retroglottic |
Airway adjuncts that sit above the vocal cords | Supraglottic |
What are the 7 P's of DSI? | Preparation, Positioning, Preoxygenation, Pretreatment, Paralysis, Placement and Proof, Post Intubation Management |
What does SALAD stand for when referring to the SALAD Technique used to suction an airway? | Suction-Assisted Laryngoscopy Airway Decontamination |
A musical, squeaking, or whistling sound heard during inspiration and/or expiration, associated with bronchial constriction | Wheezing |
A harsh, high-pitched sound heard on inhalation that is associated with laryngeal edema or constriction | Stridor |
To measure SpO2, deoxyhemoglobin absorbs more ____ | Red Light |
To measure SpO2, oxyhemoglobin absorbs more ___ | Infrared Light |
The ___ the amount of light that reaches the sensor, the ___ the amount of Hgb that absorbs that specific type of light is present in the blood. | lower; higher |
An SpO2 % between _____ would indicate mild hypoxemia | 91-94% |
An SpO2 % of ____ would indicate moderate hypoxemia | 86-90% |
An SpO2 % of ____ would indicate severe hypoxemia? | < 85% |
____ capnography detects the presence of CO2 in the body | Qualitative |
This type of quantitative capnography samples gas via an in-line sensor that connects directly to the ETT circuit | Quantitative |
This type of quantitative capnography samples gas via an in-line sensor that connects directly to the ETT circuit | Mainstream |
A form of quantitative capnography in which samples of gas from the airway travel through a thin tube that is attached to a sensor unit to measure ETCO2 levels | Sidestream |
A device that measures and displays expired CO2 levels as a waveform | Capnogram |
This phase of a capnogram is the respiratory baseline. It is displayed as a flat line in which no CO2 is present and corresponds to the late phase of inspiration and the early part of expiration | Phase I |
This phase of a capnogram is the respiratory upstroke, It represents the appearance of CO2 in the alveoli | Phase II |
This phase of a capnogram is the respiratory plateau. It reflects the airflow through uniformly ventilated alveoli with a nearly constant CO2 level | Phase III |
This phase of a capnogram is the inspiratory phase. It is displayed as a sudden down stroke and ultimately returns to the baseline during inspiration | Phase IV |
The ____ effect can be described as a decrease in O2 affinity with Hgb in response to decreased blood pH resulting from an increased concentration of CO2 in the blood | Bohr |
The ____ effect can be described as an increase in O2 affinity with Hgb that promotes the release of CO2 | Haldane |
The color purple from a colorimetric device means that the concentration of exhaled CO2 is ____ mmHg | < 4 mmHg CO2 |
The color tan from a colorimetric device means that the concentration of exhaled CO2 is ____ mmHg | 4-15 mmHg CO2 |
The color yellow from a colorimetric device means that the concentration of exhaled CO2 is ____ mmHg | > 20 mmHg CO2 |
What 3 unpaired cartilages make up the larynx? | Epiglottis, Thyroid cartilage, Cricoid cartilage |
What are the 3 paired cartilages that make up the larynx? | Arytenoid, Corniculate, Cuneiform |
What is the average NPA size range used on an adult? | 6-8 mm (26-34 FR) |
What is the average OPA size range used on an adult? | 80-100 mm (Size 3-5) |
What is the flow rate range of a BVM? | 10-15 lpm |
What is the FiO2 range of a BVM? | 90-95% |
How many mL is an adult BVM? | 1500 mL |
How many mL is a child BVM? | 500 mL |
How many mL is an infant BVM? | 350 mL |
When using a manometer to monitor pressure during BVM ventilations you should try to keep each ventilation below ___ cm H2O | 20 |
A curved blade that has a large flange for sweeping the tongue from the right to the left side of the mouth | Macintosh |
A straight blade that fits under the epiglottis to manually lift it out of the way | Miller |
The ____ ligament is triggered when a Macintosh blade is advanced into the vallecula, causing the epiglottis to raise up. | Hypoepiglottic |
The average ETT sizes used on an adult female is ____. | 7.0-7.5 mm |
The average ETT sizes used on an adult male is ____. | 7.5-8.0 mm |
The second opening on the distal tip of an ETT that functions as a vent and prevents complete obstruction of the airway | Murphy's Eye |
When shaping an ETT with a stylet the distal tip should be angulated no more than ____ degrees. | 35-degrees |
The distal tip of an ETT introducer is formed into a coude tip, which is angulated at ____ degrees. | 40-degrees |
Direct visualization, tube misting, and auscultation for breathe sounds are all forms of ____ techniques used to verify tube placement. | Subjective |
Using capnography (EtCO2) or an esophageal detector device (EDD) are both forms of ____ techniques used to verify tube placement. | Objective |
What are the 3 indications for Medically Assisted Intubation (MAI)? | 1. Failure to maintain or protect airway 2. Failure of oxygenation or ventilation 3. Intubation is the anticipated clinical course |
When inserting an ET tube, how many cm past the vocal cords should you insert the cuff? | 1-2 cm |
What does the "B" in BURP stand for? | Backward |
What does the "U" in BURP stand for? | Upward |
What does the "R" in BURP stand for? | Rightward |
What does the "P" in BURP stand for? | Pressure |
What acronym would you use to thoroughly assess a patient for possible difficulties you may encounter during intubation? | LEMONS |
What does the "L" in LEMONS stand for? | Look externally |
What does the "E" in LEMONS stand for? | Evaluate 3-3-2 Rule |
What does the "M" in LEMONS stand for? | Mallampati Score |
What does the "O" in LEMONS stand for? | Obstruction/Obesity |
What does the "N" in LEMONS stand for? | Neck Mobility |
What does the "S" in LEMONS stand for? | Saturation |
What does the first "3" of the 3-3-2 Rule stand for? | Check that the mouth opening is equal to at least 3 patient-sized fingers |
What does the "2" in the 3-3-2 Rule stand for? | Check that there is room for 2 patient-sized fingers between the hyoid bone and the top of the thyroid |
What does the second "3" of the 3-3-2 Rule represent? | Check that there is room for 3 patient-sized fingers between the tip of the chin and the hyoid bone |
Cormack and LeHane grading system (Grade 1) | The entire glottic opening and vocal cords can be seen |
Cormack and LeHane grading system (Grade 2) | The epiglottis and the posterior portion of the glottic opening may be seen with a partial view of the vocal cords |
Cormack and LeHane grading system (Grade 3) | Only the epiglottis and (sometimes) posterior cartilages can be seen |
Cormack and LeHane grading system (Grade 4) | Neither the epiglottis nor the glottis can be seen |
What is the average endotrol tube size range for most adults? | 6.0-7.0 |
A nasal intubation tube is placed ___cm deeper than an oral intubation. | 3 cm |
What sized ETT would be used during a surgical cricothyrotomy? | 6.0-6.5 ETT |
A type of pneumothorax that occurs without any obvious cause or injury in which air will flow from the alveoli and into the pleural space | Spontaneous |
A type of pneumothorax in which there is usually only partial collapse of a lung due to penetrating or blunt trauma or spontaneous pneumothorax. | Simple |
A type of pneumothorax in which air moves into and out of the chest through a large open wound and creates a "sucking" sound | Open |
A type of pneumothorax in which the pressure inside of the intrapleural cavity is greater than atmospheric pressure, causing cardiopulmonary function compromise | Tension |
A needle thoracostomy performed at the midclavicular line is inserted at the ___ intercostal space. | Second |
A needle thoracostomy performed at the midaxillary line is inserted at the ___ intercostal space. | Fifth |
A short-acting anesthetic agent that enhances GABA activity at the GABA-receptor complex and has no analgesic properties | Etomidate |
What is the Dosage of Etomidate? | 0.3 mg/kg IV push |
What is the Onset of Etomidate? | 15-45 seconds |
What is the Duration of Etomidate? | 3-12 minutes |
A short-acting dissociative anesthetic that interacts with NMBA receptors and promotes neuroinhibition and anesthesia. | Ketamine |
What is the Mechanism of Action of Ketamine? | 1. Analgesic effect 2. Stimulates the release of catecholamines (epi/norepi) 3. Directly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle |
What is the Dosage of Ketamine? | 1-2 mg/kg IV push |
What is the Onset of Ketamine? | 30-60 seconds |
What is the Duration of Ketamine? | 10-20 minutes |
A benzodiazepine that binds to a receptor of the GABA complex and increases the frequency with which inhibitory chloride channels open | Midazolam |
What is the Trade Name of Midazolam? | Versed |
What is the Trade Name of Etomidate? | Amidate |
What is the Trade Name of Ketamine? | Ketalar |
What is the Dosage of Midazolam? | 0.1-0.3 mg/kg IV push |
What is the Onset of Midazolam? | 2-5 minutes |
What is the Duration of Midazolam? | 15-30 minutes |
Medications that inhibit skeletal muscle contraction by interfering with cholinergic nicotinic receptors | Neuromuscular Blocking Agents (NMBA) |
A neurotransmitter that binds to nicotinic receptors and promotes depolarization and muscle contraction | Acetylcholine (ACH) |
An ____ NMBA binds to an ACH receptor site and causes consistent depolarization of the motor end plates (folds in sarcolemma) which exhausts the ability of the receptor to respond to further stimuli | Agonist |
An ____ NMBA binds to ACH receptor sites and block ACH from binding causing an interference of nerve impulse transmission | Antagonist |
What Class of drug is Succinylcholine? | Depolarizing NMBA (Agonist) |
Muscle twitches or spasms that may be a result after induction of a depolarizing NMBA | Fasciculations |
What is the Dosage of Succinylcholine? | 1-1.5 mg/kg IV push |
What is the Onset of Succinylcholine? | 45-60 seconds |
What is the Duration of Succinylcholine? | 5-10 minutes |
A depolarizing NMBA that is used to induce paralysis during intubation | Succinhylcholine |
A nondepolarizing NMBA that may be used to induce or maintain paralysis for intubation | Rocuronium |
What is the Dosage of Rocuronium? | 1 mg/kg IV push |
What is the Onset of Rocuronium? | 60-90 seconds |
What is the Duration of Rocuronium? | 45-120 minutes |
A nondepolarizing NBMA that is commonly used to maintain paralysis after succinhylcholine administration | Vecuronium |
What is the Dosage of Vecuronium? | 0.1-0.2 mg/kg IV push |
What is the Onset of Vecuronium? | 1-3 minutes |
What is the Duration of Vecuronium? | 45-90 minutes |
How high should the systolic BP of a patient be in order to perform ET intubation? | 100 mmHg |
What is the formula for creating a Push-Dose Pressor of Epinephrine? | 9 mL of NS + 1 mL Epi (1:10,000) |
How much and how often should adults receive a Push-Dose Pressor of Epi? | 2 mL every 3-5 minutes |
How much and how often should children receive a Push-Dose Pressor of Epi? | 1 mL every 3-5 minutes |
What is the Rule of 15? | Nasal cannula at 15 lpm BVM at 15 lpm PEEP up to 15 cm H2O |
A sympathetic agonist that functions as a peripheral vasoconstrictor that stimulates the heart and causes coronary artery dilation | Norepinephrine |
A sympathetic agonist that causes both alpha and beta adrenergic stimulation | Epinephrine |
What is the formula for creating a Norepinephrine infusion for adults? | Mix 4 mg Norepi into 250 mL NS and administer via a 60 gtts/set at 16 mcg/mL |
What is the Infusion Rate for a Norepinephrine Infusion for an Adult? | 0.1-0.5 mcg/kg/min |
What is the Infusion Rate for a Norepinephrine Infusion for a Pediatric? | 0.1-2 mcg/kg/min |
What is the formula used to calculate an uncuffed ETT size for pediatrics? | (Age in years/4) + 4 |
What formula is used to calculate a cuffed ETT size for pediatrics? | (Age in years/4) + 3.5 |
What formula is used to calculate ETT depth insertion for pediatrics? | (Tube internal diameter) x 3 |
What formula is used to calculate the french catheter size to use during ETT suctioning? | ETT size x 2 |
How do you measure the depth of insertion of a french catheter when suctioning an ETT? | Measure from the hub to 0.5 cm beyond the tip of the ETT |
Shelf-like bony projections within the internal nares that causes turbulent airflow and serves as conduits into the sinuses | Nasal Conchae |
Another name for nasal conchae | Turbinates |
Intrapleural pressure is always slightly ____ than atmospheric pressure, and slightly ____ than intrapulmonary pressure | higher; lower |
The normal range for ETCO2 is ___ to 45 mmHg | 35 |
An overproduction of red blood cells to increase the amount of O2 that is able to be transported to tissues throughout the body; Common in patients with chronic lung disease and chronic hypoxia | Polycythemia |
Muscle pain and tingling in the fingers and toes due to hyperventilation; PCO2 is expelled too quickly from the body and results in changes to blood pH level. | Carpopedal Spasms |