Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Neurology
FA complete review part 1 Embryology and Anatomy
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| In terms of neural development, what does the Notochord induces? | Overlying ectodem to diffentiate into neuroectodem and form neural plate. |
| What does the neural plate give rise to? | Neural tube and Neural crest cells |
| What becomes of the Notochord in adults/ | Nucleus pulposus of intervertebral disc |
| What was the preceding or "original" structure that later became the Nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs in adults? | Notochord |
| The alar plate refers to the _____________ surface. | Dorsal |
| The Basal plate of neural development refers to which surface? | Ventral |
| The alar plate bires rise to the ____________________ part. | Sensory |
| What does the Basar plate give rise to, sensory or motor parts? | Motor |
| Basal plate (__________); _______________. | Ventral; Motor |
| Which plate is the dorsal surface and gives rise to sensory part of the nervous system? | Alar plate |
| Alar and Basal plate have the same orientation as the ___ ______________. | Spinal cord |
| Neural development form Notochord to Neural crest cell development, occurs in which days of gestation? | Day 18 to Day 21 |
| What is the first part of the developing brain? | Telencephalon |
| What is the second part of the developing brain? | Diencephalon |
| After the Telencephalon and Diencephalon are developed, what are the next parts of the developing brain? | Mesencephalon, Metencephalon, and Myelencephalon |
| What are the primary three vesicles of the developing brain? | Forebrain, Midbrain, and Hindbrain |
| Another way to name the Forebrain? | Procenphalon |
| Midbrain = | Mesencephalon |
| What is the technical name for the Hindbrain? | Rhombencephalon |
| What are the divisions of the Prosencephalon? | Telencephalon and Diencephalon |
| What are the secondary vesicles of the developing brain? | Telencephalon, Diencephalon, Mesencephalon, Metencephalon, and Myelencephalon. |
| The primary Midbrain becomes into which secondary vesicles? | Mesencephalon only |
| The primary vesicle, Hindbrain, progresses into which secondary vesicles of the developing brain? | Metencephalon and Myelencephalon |
| The Telencephalon is a derivative of which primary vesicle? | Forebrain |
| Forebrain --> ___________________ ---> Thalamus, Hypothalamus, and Third ventricle. | Diencephalon |
| WHat are the adult derivatives (walls) of the Telencephalon? | Cerebral hemispheres |
| The lateral ventricles of the brain, are the adult cavity derivative of the ____________________. | Telencephalon |
| What are the adult derivatives of the Telencephalon? | Walls ----> Cerebral hemispheres Cavities --> Lateral ventricles |
| Adult derivatives of the Diencephalon: | Walls ---> Thalamus and Hypothalamus Cavities ---> Third ventricle |
| Which are the wall derivatives of the Diencephalon? | Thalamus and Hypothalamus |
| What is the primary vesicle that eventually gives rise to the Hypothalamus? | Prosencephalon (Forebrain) |
| Adult derivatives of the Midbrain and later the Mesencephalon: | Walls ---> Midbrain Cavities ---> Cerebral aqueduct |
| What are the two wall adult derivatives of the Metencephalon? | Pons and Cerebellum |
| Upper part of the fourth ventricle is an adult derivative of which primary vesicle of the developing brain? | Rhombencephalon (Hindbrain) |
| Hindbrain --> Myelencephalon ---------> Wall derivative? | Medulla |
| What is the cavitiry adult derivative of the Myelencephalon? | Lower part of the fourth ventricle |
| What are the secondary vesicles that derive the upper and lower part of the Fourth Ventricle, respectively? | Metencephalon and Myelencephalon |
| Medulla of the brain is a wall adult derivative of which secondary vesicle of the developing brain? | Myelencephalon |
| What cells are derived from Neuroepithelial in neural tube? | CNS neurons, ependymal cells, Oligodendrocytes, and astrocytes |
| Which nervous system cells are of Neural crest origin? | PNS neurons and Schwann cells |
| What is the precursor tissue of PNS neurons? | Neural crest |
| The mesoderm derivatives into which CNS/PNS cells? | Microglia |
| What is the precursor tissue of Schwann cells? | Neural crest |
| CNS neurons are derived from: | Neuroepithelial in neural tube |
| Where ar the ependymal cells located? | Inner lining of ventricles |
| What is produced by the Ependymal cells? | CSF |
| What cells line the inner ventricles of the brain? | Ependymal cells |
| What embryological defects are due to neuropores fail to fuse by the 4th week of gestation? | Neural tube defects |
| Persistent connection between amniotic cavity and spinal canal. | Neural tube defects |
| What are some association oto neural tube defects? | - Maternal diabetes - Low folic acid intake before conception and during pregnancy |
| Levels of AFP in amniotic fluid and maternal serum in neural tubes defects. | Increased |
| Which is the only neural tube defect that has a normal AFP? | Spina bifida occulta |
| What is an important confirmatory test for NT defects? | Increased acetylcholinesterase (AChE) in amniotic fluid |
| List of Neural tube defects: | 1. Spina bifida occulta 2. Meningocele 3. Meningomyelocele 4. Myeloschisis 5. Anencephaly |
| What is the pathogenesis of Spina bifida occulta? | Failure of caudal neuropore to close, but no herniation |
| At point in vertebral parts is Spina bifida occulta most common seen? | Lower vertebral levels |
| What are clinical associations of Spina bifida occulta? | 1. Turf of hair or, 2. Skin dimple at level of bony defect |
| What is the common association of Meningocele? | Spina bifida cystica |
| What is Meningocele? | Meninges (no neural tissue) herniate through bony defect |
| Meninges herniate through bony defect with elevated AFP and AChE, but no neural tissue. Dx? | Meningocele |
| What is the main difference between a Meningocele and a Meningomyelocele? | Meningomyelocele has a herniation in which both, meninges and neural tissue protrude. |
| What is a common example of a meningomyelocele? | Cauda equina |
| What is another name for Myeloschisis? | Rachischisis |
| Exposed unfused neural tissue without skin/meningeal covering. Dx? | Myeloschisis |
| What is myeloschisis? | Exposed unfused neural tissue without any skin or meningeal covering. |
| What does the failure of rostral neuropore to close in Anencephaly lead to? | No forebrain, and open calvarium |
| Which neural tube defect is seen with open calvarium? | Anencephaly |
| What is the most significant clinical finding in anencephaly? | Polyhydramnios |
| Why is polyhydramnios seen with Anencephaly? | No swallowing center in brain |
| What does the lack of a swallowing center in the brain is associated with? | Polyhydramnios seen in Anencephaly |
| What is Holoprosencephaly? | Failure of left and right hemispheres to separate |
| Failure during which weeks of gestation lead most commonly to development of Holoprosencephaly? | Weeks 5-6 |
| What are common mutations associated with Holoprosencephaly? | Sonic hedgehog signaling pathway |
| Which signaling pathway is often seen with mutations in a patient with Holoprosencephaly? | Sonic hedgehog signaling pathway |
| What is the feature physical finding of severe Holoprosencephaly? | Cyclopia |
| What are common pathologies seen with increase incidence of Holoprosencephaly? | Trisomy 13 and Fetal alcohol syndrome |
| What is a common MRI finding of Holoprosencephaly? | Monoventricle and fusion of basal ganglia |
| What part of the brain is seen fused on MRI in a patient with Holoprosencephaly? | Basal ganglia |
| Which rare but severe cranial structural pathology or abnormality is seen at higher risk in Patau patients? | Holoprosencephaly |
| What are 3 common (USMLE) posterior fossa malformations? | 1. Chiari I malformation 2. Chiari II malformation 3. Dandy-Walker syndrmeo |
| Ectopia of cerebellar tonsils. Dx? | Chiari I malformation |
| What are the adult symptoms of Chiari I malformation? | Headaches and cerebellar symptoms |
| What is an important association of Chiari I malformations? | Spinal cavitiations |
| What are cerebellar symptoms? | 1. Asynergia 2. Dysmetria 3. Adiadochokinesia 4. Intention tremor 5. Ataxic gait 6. Tendency toward falling 7. Hypotonia 8. Ataxic dysarthria 9. Nystagmus |
| What is a common syndrome of spinal caviatons? | Syringomyelia |
| A person with diagnosed Syringomyelia, is often seen also with which Posterior fossa malformation? | Chiari I malformation |
| Herniation of low-lying cerebellar vermis and tonsils through foramen magnum with aqueductal stenosis, leading to development of hydrocephalus. Dx? | Chiari II malformation |
| Which cerebellar structures are herniated through the foramen magnum in Chiari II malformation? | Vermis and tonsils |
| Which is the main clinical feature or symptoms of Chiari II malformation? | Hydrocephalus |
| What causes the hydrocephalus seen in Chiari II malformation? | Cerebellar vermis and tonsils herniation through the foramen magnum with aqueductal stenosis |
| What is the most common associated pathology with Chiari II malformation? | Lumbosacral meningomyelocele |
| What posterior fossa malformation is seen with Lumbosacral meningomyelocele? | Chiari II malformation |
| What are the symptoms seen with Lumbosacral meningomyelocele? | Paralysis/sensory loss at and below the level of the lesion |
| The Chiari malformations, I and II, are ____________ ____________ malformations. | Posterior fossa |
| What is the pathogenesis of Dandy-Walker syndrome? | Agenesis of cerebellar vermis leads to cystic enlargement of the 4th ventricle that fills the enlarged posterior fossa. |
| What are the common associated conditions with Dandy-Walker syndrome? | 1. Non-communicating hydrocephalus and, 2. Spina bifida |
| Which brain structure is affected by Chiari II, II, and Dandy-Walker syndrome, all part of the posterior fossa? | Cerebellum |
| Which posterior fossa malformation is seen with a cystic enlargement of the 4th ventricle? | Dandy-Walker syndrome |
| What syndrome/pathology is due to the agenesis of cerebellar vermis? | Dandy-Walker syndrome |
| Large 4th ventricle is seen with: | Dandy-Walker syndrome |
| Cystic cavity within central canal of spinal cord. Dx? | Syringomyelia |
| What is the term used for the cystic cavity of the spinal cord, seen in Syringomyelia? | Syrinx |
| What is "syrinx"? | Cystic cavity in central canal of the spinal cord |
| What are the first structures to be damage in Syringomyelia? | Fibers crossing in anterior white commissure |
| The fibers first affected in Syringomyelia, are part of which tract? | Spinothalamic tract |
| What is the commonly used term to describe the sensory loss in Syringomyelia? | "cape-like" |
| What are the manifestations of Syringomyelia? | 1. "Cape-like", bilateral symmetrical loss of pain and temperature sensation in upper extremities |
| Which sensation is preserved in Syringomyelia upper body? | Fine touch |
| What are associated malformations of Syringomyelia? | Chiari malformations |
| At what level is the most common location for Syringomyelia? | C8-T1 |
| Which branchial arches make up the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? | 1st and 2nd branchial arches |
| Sensation of the anterior 2/3 of tongue is via which cranial nerve? | CN V3 |
| Which cranial nerve provides taste to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? | CN VII |
| Is sensation or taste affected in the anterior 2/3 of tongue if CN VII is severed? | Taste |
| Which two branchial arches give rise the posterior 1/3 of tongue? | 3rd and 4th branchial arches |
| Which nerve provides most of the sensation and taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue? | CN IX |
| The extreme posterior of the tongue is innervated by which cranial nerve? | CN X |
| Cranial nerve 9 damage will affect what and which part of the tongue? | Taste and sensation of most of the posterior 1/3 of tongue |
| Cranial nerves that give taste to the tongue | CN VII, IX, and X (solitary nucleus). |
| Which cranial nerves are involved in pain sensation to the tongue? | CN V3, IX, and X |
| Motor innervation of the tongue is done via which cranial nerves? | CN X and CN XII |
| CN 12 is involved in sensation or motor innervation of the tongue? | Motor |
| Which muscles are motor innervated by the CN XII? | 1. Hyoglossus 2. Genioglossus 3. Styloglossus |
| Which muscle, associated to tongue physiology, is innervated by CN X? | Palatoglossus |
| What is the function of the Hyoglossus ? | Retracts and depresses tongue |
| Which muscle of the tongue protrudes tongue? | Genioglossus |
| What is the function of tongue muscle, Styloglossus? | Draws sides of tongue upward to create a through for swallowing |
| Which muscle damage may be represented by the tongue's inability to create a "passage" for swallowing? | Styloglossus |
| What is the function of the Palatoglossus during swallowing? | Elevates posterior tongue during swallowing |
| Which tongue associated muscle is known to elevate the posterior part of the tongue during swallowing? | Styloglossus |
| Name or term for the signal-transmitting cells of the nervous system. | Neurons |
| What does it mean that Neurons are permanent cells? | Do not divide in adulthood |
| What are the neurons? | Signal-relaying cells of the nervous system with dendrites, cell bodies, and axons. |
| Which part of the neuron is designed as the to receive input? | Dendrites |
| Which part of the neuron is in charge to sent output? | Axons |
| What is the function of the dendrites in neurons? | Receive input |
| What is the role for the Axons of neurons? | Send output |
| Which organelle is not present in the axon of a neuron? | RER |
| Which the common stain used for neurons? | Nissl staining |
| What organelle of a cell (neuron) is stained by Nissl stingin? | RER |
| Which part of the neuron would not be depicted (stained) with Nissl staining? | Axon because it lacks RER |
| What is Wallerian degeneration? | Degeneration of axon distal to site of injury and axonal retraction proximally. |
| What is the process that follows injury to the axon? | Wallerian degeneration |
| Which, PNS or CNS, has better potential for Wallerian degeneration? | PNS |
| What is the role of Macrophages of the Nervous system following injury to an axon? | Remove debris and myelin |
| Most common glial cell type in the CNS | Astrocytes |
| What is the role or function of Astrocytes? | Physical support, repair, extracellular K+ buffer, removal of excess neurotransmitter, component of BBB, glycogen fuel reserve buffer |
| What process is seen in Astrocytes after neural injury? | Reactive gliosis |
| The term "Reactive gliosis" would indicate involvement of which Nervous system cell? | Astrocytes |
| Astrocytes are derived from _____________. | Neuroectoderm |
| What is the Astrocyte marker? | GFAP |
| GFAP is a marker of which type of nervous system cells? | Astrocytes |
| True or False. Are astrocytes part of the BBB? | True |
| In which two buffer systems are astrocytes involved? | 1. Extracellular K+ buffer 2. Glycogen fuel reserve buffer |
| Phagocytic scavenger cells of CNS. | Microglia |
| What are the origin cells that derived into Microglia? | Mesodermal, mononuclear origin |
| When is Microglia activated? | In response to tissue damage |
| What occurs to Microglia in HIV patients? | FUses tos form multinucleated giant cells in CNS |
| Which type of patients are often seen with multinucleated giant cells in CNS made up of microglia? | HIV-infected |
| What is a common finding in an HIV-infected patient, in association to microglia? | Multinucleated giant cell in CNS made up of fused microglia |
| Glial cells with ciliated simple columnar form atha line the ventricles and central canal of the spinal cord. | Ependymal cells |
| Which structures are known to be lined by Ependymal cells? | 1. Ventricles of the brain 2. Central canal of Spinal cord |
| A sample of the central canal of the spinal cord, will likely show what type of cells lining it? | Ependymal cells |
| An Ependymal cell apical surface is covered with ______________. | Cilia |
| What is the function of cilia in the apical surface aon an ependymal cell? | Circulation of CSF |
| What action would be halted in case of dysfunctional cilia in apical surface of ependymal cells? | Circulation of CSF |
| Which part of an ependymal cell aids in CSF absorption? | Microvilli |
| What covers the apical surface of the ependymal cells? | Cilia and microvilli |
| What is the main function of Myelin? | Increase conduction velocity of signal transmitted down axons |
| Which part of the axon is known to have high concentrations of Na+ channels? | Nodes of Ranvier |
| Where does myelin produces the fastest signal conduction velocity in the axon? | Nodes of Ranvier |
| What cells produce myelin in the CNS? | Oligodendrocytes |
| Which cells produce myelin in the PNS? | Schwann cells |
| A person with no Schwann cells will produce no myelin in the __________. | PNS |
| Wraps and insulates axons; Increase space constant and increase conduction velocity? | Myelin |
| Axon insulator? | Myelin |
| How many PNS axons are stimulated by one Schwann cell? | 1 axon |
| What NS cells are affected of injured in Guillain-Barre syndrome? | Schwann cells |
| Schwann cells are derived from which neural tissue? | Neural crest |
| Which cells are derived from Neuroectoderm, Schwann cells or Oligodendrocytes? | Oligodendrocytes |
| Which condition are known to affect or damage Oligodendrocytes? | 1. Multiple sclerosis 2. Progressive leukoencephalopathy (PML), 3. Leukodystrophies |
| What is the common histological description of Oligodendrocytes? | "Fried egg" appearance |
| Each _________________ can myelinate many axons. | Oligodendrocytes |
| Approximately how many CNS axons are myelinated by 1 Oligodendrocyte? | ~30 |
| What is the predominant type of glial cell in white matter? | Oligodendrocytes |
| Sensory neuron fiber of Free nerve endings: | 1. C-slow, unmyelinated fibers 2. AS-fast, myelinated fibers |
| Location of Free nerve endings | All skin, epidermis, and some viscera |
| Which sensory receptors are located in all the skin, epidermis, and some of the viscera? | Free nerve endings |
| Which fiber of free nerve endings is the slow type? | C-type, which is unmyelinated |
| Myelinated fibers of free nerve endings: | AS fiber type |
| Which type of fiber of free nerve endings is the fast type? | AS-type, which are myelinated |
| What is the difference between AS fibers and C-fibers of free nerve endings? | C-fibers are unmyelinated and AS fibers are myelinated |
| What is sensed by Free nerve endings? | Pain and temperature |
| Pain and temperature are sense by which sensory receptors? | Free nerve endings |
| Description of sensory neuron fiber of Meissner corpuscles? | Large, myelinated fibers; adapt quickly |
| What is the location for Meissner corpuscles? | Glabrous (hairless) skin |
| Which sensory receptors are located in hairless skin? | Meissner corpuscles |
| What does the word "Glabrous" mean? | Hairless |
| Senses dynamic, fine/light touch, and position sense. | Meissner corpuscles |
| Large, myelinated fibers that are quickly adapted. This describes which sensory receptors? | Meissner corpuscles and Pacinian corpuscles |
| Which structures (location) have Pacinian corpuscles? | Deep skin layers, ligaments, and joints |
| What is sensed by the Pacinian corpuscles? | Vibration and Pressure |
| Which sensory receptors are known to sense Vibration and Pressure? | Pacinian corpuscles |
| What type of sensory receptors are likely to be found in the ligaments? | Pacinian corpuscles |
| Which are the two sensory receptors that are found in the joints? | Pacinian corpuscles and Ruffini corpuscles |
| What is the difference between Pacinian/Meissner corpuscles and Merkel discs, sensory neuron type? | Both are large and myelinated fibers, but Merkel discs adapt slowly. |
| A large, myelinated fiber that adapts slowly. Which the sensory receptor type? | Merkel discs |
| Where are Merkel discs located? | Fingertips, and superficial skin |
| What is sensed by the Merkel discs? | Pressure, Deep static touch (shapes, edges) Position sense |
| What type of figures are sensed by deep static touch sensation of the Merkel discs? | Shapes and edges |
| The ability to distinguish the edges and shape of a structure by touch is known as ___________________. | Deep static touch |
| Which sensory receptors provide deep static touch sensation? | Merkel discs |
| What are the fibers that make up the Ruffini corpuscles? | Dendritic endings with capsule |
| Do Ruffini corpuscles adapt slowly or rapidly? | Slowly |
| Where are Ruffini corpuscles found in the body? | Fingertips and joints |
| Which sensory receptors are found in the fingertips? | Merkel discs and Ruffini corpuscles |
| What is sensed by the Ruffini corpuscles? | Pressure, slippage of objects along surface of skin, and joint angle change. |
| Rolling a pencil along the distal surface of the fingers, is sensed by the ___________ _____________. | Ruffini corpuscles |
| Dendritic endings with capsule. | Sensory neuron fiber of the Ruffini corpuscles |
| What 3 main structures surround the nerve fibers? | Endoneurium, Perineurium, and Epineurium |
| Which surrounding structure of the nerve is the outermost? | Epineurium |
| Description of the Epineurium? | Dense connective tissue that surrounds entire nerve |
| What is (are) found in the Epineurium? | Fascicles and blood vessels |
| Invest single nerve fiber layers | Endoneurium |
| In which surrounding structure of the nerve are inflammatory infiltrates found in Guillain-Barre syndrome? | Endoneurium |
| Which surrounding structure of the nerve is affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome? | Endoneurium |
| Which surrounding nerve structure is the Blood-nerve permeability barrier? | Perineurium |
| Surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers. | Perineurium |
| Which part of the nerve must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment? | Perineurium |
| Accident that requires reattachment of an appendage, must rejoin which nerve surrounding structure? | Perineurium |
| What is Chromatolysis? | Reaction of neuronal cell body to axonal injury |
| Reaction of neuronal cell body to axonal injury. | Chromatolysis |
| What changes depict chromatolysis? | Increase protein synthesis in effort to repair the damaged axon |
| What are the main characteristics or features of Chromatolysis? | 1. Round cellular swelling 2. Displacement of nucleus to the periphery 3. Dispersion of Nissl substance throughout cytoplasm |
| In a neuron that has a dispersed Nissl substance in the cytoplasm can be indicative of what process undergoing? | Chromatolysis |
| Chromatolysis is concurrent with: | Wallerian degeneration |
| Which axon/neuron repair processes occur at the same time? | Chromatolysis and Wallerian degeneration |
| Where is Acetylcholine synthesized? | Basal nucleus of Meynert |
| What is produced in the Basal nucleus of Meynert? | Acetylcholine |
| Which two conditions are seen with DECREASED levels of Acetylcholine? | Alzheimer disease and Huntington disease |
| Which neurological conditions is associated with elevated levels of Acetylcholine? | Parkinson disease |
| Acetylcholine levels in Parkinson disease are ____________________. | Elevated |
| Where is Dopamine synthesized? | - Ventral tegmentum, - SNc |
| Which neurotransmitter is synthesized in the Ventral tegmentum and SNc? | Dopamine |
| Which psychiatric and neurodegenerative conditions have increased/elevated Dopamine levels? | Schizophrenia and Huntington disease |
| A person with depression has ________________ levels of Dopamine. | Decreased |
| Which neurodegenerative condition is seen with decreased dopamine? | Parkinson disease |
| Which neurotransmitter is elevated in Schizophrenia and Huntington's disease, and decreased in depression and Parkinson's? | Dopamine |
| What neurotransmitter is made by the Nucleus accumbens? | GABA |
| GABA is decreased in which neurological conditions? | Anxiety and Huntington disease |
| Level of GABA in anxious patient, most likely is _______________. | Decreased |
| Which neurotransmitters are decreased in Huntington disease? | Acetylcholine and GABA |
| Decreased in anxiety and Huntington disease. | GABA |
| Which structure synthesizes Norepinephrine? | Locus ceruleus |
| A injury or defect in the Locus ceruleus will cause a decrease production of which common neurotransmitter? | Norepinephrine |
| Which condition is known to produce elevated levels of Norepinephrine (NE)? | Anxiety |
| A person with diagnosed depression has low levels of the following neurotransmitters: | Dopamine, Norepinephrine, and Serotonin |
| Decreased dopamine, NE, and Serotonin. What is a possible Dx? | Depression |
| Raphe nucleus synthesizses ___________________. | Serotonin |
| Where is Serotonin synthesized? | Raphe nucleus |
| Levels of Serotonin in Parkinson's disease are ________________. | Decreased |
| Which conditions lead to low levels of Serotonin? | Anxiety, Depression, and Parkinson disease |
| Elevated Acetylcholine, and decreased serotonin and NE. Dx? | Parkinson disease |
| Which neurotransmitter are either low or high in Anxiety? | Decreased GABA and Serotonin, but elevated Norepinephrine |
| An anxious person very likely will show high levels of which neurotransmitter? | Norepinephrine |
| Which is the only neurotransmitter that is changed in Alzheimer disease? | Acetylcholine |
| Three membranes that surround and protect the brain and spinal cord? | Meninges |
| What are the meninges? | Three membranes that surround and protect the brain and spinal cord. |
| What are the three membranes that make up the meninges? | Dura mater, Arachnoid mater, and Pia mater |
| What is the dura mater? | Thick outer layer closest to skull |
| What is the Arachnoid mater? | Middle layer (meninge) of the skull, that contains web-like connections |
| What is the Pia mater? | The thin, fibrous inner layer that firmly adheres to brain and spinal cord. |
| Which meninges are derived from the Neural crest? | Arachnoid mater and Pia mater |
| Which meninge is derived from the Mesoderm? | Dura mater |
| Which meninge is the one in direct contact with the brain and spinal cord? | Pia mater |
| Where is the subarachnoid space located? | Between arachnoid and pia mater |
| What structure is between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater? | Subarachnoid space |
| Where does the CSF flow into, in respect with the meninges? | Subarachnoid space |
| What is the Epidural space? | A potential space between the dura mater and skull |
| What is found or contains in the Epidural space? | Fat and blood vessels |
| Potential space between the dura mater and skull | Epidural space |
| What is the function of the Blood Brain Barrier (BBB)? | Prevents circulating blood substances from reaching the CSF/CNS. |
| What known structure blocks the passage of blood substances, such as drugs and bacteria, to readily reach the CSF and CNS? | Blood brain barrier |
| What composes the BBB? | 1. Tight junctions between non-fenestrated capillary endothelial cells 2. Basement membrane 3. Astrocyte foot processes |
| Which nervous system cells are known to be part of the BBB composition? | Astrocytes foot processes |
| What cell foot processes' are part of the Blood brain barrier? | Astrocytes |
| Which substances cross slowly the BBB? | Glucose and amino acids |
| How do glucose and amino acids cross across the BBB? | Carrier-mediated transport mechanisms |
| Which substances are known to cross the BBB rapidly? | Nonpolar/Lipid-soluble substances |
| Why is a lipid soluble drug more likely to cause CNS toxicity? | It lipid solubility allow for rapid cross of the Blood brain barrier |
| Which areas of the brain are not protected by the BBB? | 1. Area postrema 2. OVLT (organum vasculosum lamina terminalis) |
| What is the result of destruction of the endothelial cell tight junctions? | Vasogenic edema |
| Which part of the BBB must be destroyed or affected in order to cause vasogenic edema? | Endothelial cell tight junctions |
| Besides the BBB, which are other notable barriers found in the human body? | 1. Blood-testis barrier 2. Maternal-fetal blood barrier of placenta |
| List of functions and roles of the Hypothalamus: | 1. Maintains homeostasis by regulating thirst and water balance 2. Controlling Adenohypophysis and Neurohypophysis release of hormones produced in the hypothalamus 3. Regulating hunger, autonomic nervous system, temperature, and sexual urges |
| One of this structure's main functions is to maintain homeostasis by regulating thirst and water balance? | Hypothalamus |
| Areas not protected by the blood-brain barrier are commonly known as ____________________. | Inputs |
| What are the inputs? | Areas not protected by the BBB |
| What is sensed by the OVLT? | Change in osmolarity |
| Where is the area postrema found? | Medulla |
| Which structure is know to respond well to antiemetics? | Area postrema |
| What features are regulated by the Hypothalamus? | Hunger, Autonomic NS, Temperature, and Sexual urges |
| The pituitary secretion of hormones by both anterior and posterior, are controlled by the ____________. | Hypothalamus |
| List of nucleus found in the Hypothalamus: | 1. Lateral nucleus 2. Ventromedial nucleus 3. Anterior nucleus 4. Posterior nucleus 5. Suprachiasmatic nucleus 6. Supraoptic and Paraventricular nuclei 7. Preoptic nucleus |
| What is regulated by the Lateral nucleus of the Hypothalamus? | Hunger |
| Which hypothalamic nucleus regulates hunger? | Lateral nucleus of the hypothalamus |
| What occurs in damaging or injuring the Lateral nucleus of the hypothalamus? | Anorexia, failure to thrive (infants) |
| Its destruction makes you lean or thin. | Lateral nucleus of the hypothalamus |
| What stimulates the hypothalamic lateral nucleus? | Ghrelin |
| Which substance is known to inhibit the hypothalamic lateral nucleus? | Leptin |
| Leptin in the Hypothalamic Lateral nucleus ----> | Inhibits the hypothalamic lateral nucleus |
| What is regulated by the Hypothalamic Ventromedial nucleus? | Satiety |
| Which nucleus of the hypothalamus is known to control or regulate satiety? | Ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus |
| What is a common cause of the destruction of the Ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus? | Craniopharyngioma |
| Leptin in the Hypothalamic ventromedial nucleus ---> | Stimulates |
| What is the result of destruction of the Ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus? | Hyperphagia |
| Which hypothalamic nucleus damage can make you become fat? | Ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus |
| What is the role or function of the Hypothalamic anterior nucleus? | Cooling |
| Hypothalamic anterior nucleus is , parasympathetic or sympathetic? | Parasympathetic |
| What is the function of the the Posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus? | Heating |
| Which nervous system is associated with posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus? | Sympathetic |
| Which hypothalamic nucleus is known to control the Circadian rhythm? | Suprachiasmatic nucleus |
| What is a controlled by the Suprachiasmatic nucleus of the Hypothalamus? | Circadian rhythm |
| What is hormones are produced by the Supraoptic and Paraventricular nuclei? | ADH and oxytocin |
| Synthesize ADH and oxytocin . | Supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei |
| Which proteins carry ADH and oxytocin? | Neurophysins |
| ADH and oxytocin are carried by neurophysins down --> | Axons to posterior pituitary |
| Where are ADH and oxytocin stored and released? | Posterior pituitary |
| What is controlled by the Preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus? | Thermoregulation and sexual behavior |
| What hormone is released by the Preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus? | GnRH |
| Failure of GnRH-producing neurons to migrate from olfactory pit lead to: | Kallmann syndrome |
| Thermoregulation and sexual behavior is controlled or regulated by which hypothalamic nucleus? | Preoptic nucleus |
| Which hypothalamic nucleus releases GnRH? | Preoptic nucleus |
| Which hypothalamic nucleus may be damaged or abnormal in Kallmann syndrome? | Preoptic nucleus |
Created by:
rakomi
Popular USMLE sets