Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Hematology
FA complete review part 4 Pharmacology
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the mechanism of action of Heparin? | Activates antithrombin, which decreases action of IIa (thrombin) and factor Xa |
| Which coagulation factors are affected by Heparin? | Factor IIa (thrombin) and Factor Xa |
| Which drugs activates antithrombin? | Heparin |
| Heparin has a ___________ half-life. | Short |
| Clinical uses of Heparin include: | 1. Immediate anticoagulation for pulmonary embolism (PE), 2. Acute coronary syndrome 3. MI 4. DVT 5. Safe to use during pregnancy |
| Which is anticoagulant is safe to be used by pregnancy woman? | Heparin |
| Why is heparin used in pregnancy? | Does not cross the placenta |
| Heparin follows ________. | PTT |
| Which drug follow PTT for monitoring? | Heparin |
| Adverse effects of Heparin? | 1. Bleeding 2. Thrombocytopenia (HIT) 3. Osteoporosis 4. Drug-Drug interactions |
| What is used for rapid reversal (antidote) of Heparin? | Protamine sulfate |
| How does Protamine sulfate counteracts heparin toxicity? | Positively charged molecule that bins negatively charged heparin |
| What drug's toxicity is reversed by Protamine sulfate? | Heparin |
| Heparin's antidote | Protamine sulfate |
| Positively charged molecule that binds to negatively charged heparin? | Protamine sulfate |
| What are two common Low-molecular-weight heparins? | Enoxaparin and Dalteparin |
| On which factor do LMWH work primarily? | Factor Xa |
| Which heparin derivative works exclusively (only) on Factor Xa? | Fondaparinux |
| What anticoagulant can be used if we only want it to work on Factor Xa? | Fondaparinux |
| What are advantages of LMWHs over Unfractionated heparin? | 1. 2-4x longer half-life 2. Administered subcutaneously 3. No laboratory monitoring |
| Which, LMWH or unfractionated heparin, needs to be monitored with PTT? | Unfractionated heparin |
| What does HIT stand for? | Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia |
| What is HIT? | Development of IgG antibodies against heparin-bound platelet factor 4 (PF4). |
| What does the Ab-Heparin-PF4 complex cause? | Activates platelets leading to thrombosis and thrombocytopenia. |
| Patient with low platelets and DVT shortly after emergency anticoagulation therapy in the hospital? | Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia |
| What are the clinical symptoms of HIT? | Thrombosis and thrombocytopenia |
| Direct thrombin inhibitors include: | 1. Bivalirudin 2. Argatroban 3. Dabigatran |
| Which is the only oral direct thrombin (IIa) inhibitor? | Dabigatran |
| Related to hirudin, the anticoagulant used by leeches. | Bivalirudin |
| MOA of Direct IIa inhibitors | Directly inhibits activity of free and clot-associated thrombin |
| What are the 3 most common used of direct thrombin inhibitors? | 1. Venous thromboembolism 2. Atrial fibrillation 3. May be used for HIT |
| What can be used to reverse adverse effects of Dabigatran? | Idarucizumab |
| What is the main adverse effect of Direct Thrombin inhibitors? | Bleeding |
| What are second line drugs used to reverse bleeding associated with direct IIa inhibitors? | PCC and/or antifibrinolytics (tranexamic acid) |
| What is the mechanism of action of Warfarin? | Interferes with gamma-carboxylation of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, and protein C and S. |
| Warfarin has an effect on the ______________ pathway and increase ___. | Extrinsic; PT |
| Contrary to Heparin, Warfarin has a ________ half-life. | Long |
| What can affect the metabolism of Warfarin? | Polymorphisms in the gene for vitamin K epoxide reductase complex (VKORC1). |
| Medication used for as chronic anticoagulation | Warfarin |
| Warfarin increases ______. | PT |
| Which anticoagulant must be avoided in pregnant women? | Warfarin |
| Which medication is known to follow PT/INR? | Warfarin |
| What can be given for reversal of Warfarin? | Vitamin K |
| What is used for rapid reversal of Warfarin? | FFP or PCC |
| What are the main adverse effects of Warfarin? | Bleeding, teratogenic, skin/tissue necrosis, and drug-drug interactions. |
| What is the initial risk of hypercoagulation with Warfarin? | Protein C has shorter half-life than factors II and X. |
| What is Heparin "bridging"? | Heparin frequently used when starting warfarin to reduce risk of recurrent venous thromboembolism and skin/tissue necrosis. |
| How does Heparin bridging prevent skin necrosis and/or venous thromboembolism? | Heparin activates antithrombin which enables anticoagulation. |
| What type of drugs increase warfarin effect? | Cytochrome P-450 inhibitors |
| Site of action of Heparin | Blood |
| Site of action of Warfarin | Liver |
| Heparin monitoring? | PTT (intrinsic pathway) |
| Warfarin monitoring? | PT/INR (extrinsic pathway) |
| Teratogenic anticoagulant | Warfarin |
| Examples of Direct Xa inhibitors: | Apixaban and Rivaroxaban |
| Bind to and directly inhibit factor Xa | Mechanism of action of Direct factor Xa inhibitors |
| What is the main use for Direct factor Xa inhibitors? | Treatment and prophylaxis for DVT and PE |
| Examples of Thrombolytics: | ALteplase (tPA), reteplase (rPA), streptokinase, tenecteplase (TNK-tPA) |
| MOA of Thrombolytics: | Directly or indirectly aid conversion of plasminogen to plasmin, which leaves thrombin and fibrin clots |
| What are the PT, PTT, and PC of thrombolytics? | Increased in PT and PTT, and no change in Platelet count (PC). |
| Uses for Thrombolytics | 1. Early MI 2. Early ischemic stroke 3. Direct thrombolysis of severe PE |
| The use of thrombolytic is contraindicated in: | Active bleeding, Hx of Intracranial bleeding, recent surgery, known bleeding diathesis, or severe hypertension. |
| What are methods of nonspecific revelral of thrombolytics? | 1. Antifibrinolytics 2. Platelet transfusions 3. Factor corrections |
| What are compounds used as factor correctors? | Cryoprecipitate, FFP, PCC |
| What are some examples of ADP receptor inhibitors? | Clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor (reversible), and ticlopidine |
| Which is the only reversible ADP receptor inhibitor? | Ticagrelor |
| MOA of ADP receptor inhibitors? | Inhibit platelet aggregation by irreversible blocking ADP receptor. |
| What is prevented on platelet surface, the use of ADP receptor inhibitors? | Prevent expression of glycoproteins IIb/IIa on platelet surface. |
| Uses of ADP receptor inhibitor: | 1. Acute coronary syndrome 2. Coronary stenting 3. Decreased incidence or recurrence of thrombotic stroke |
| What are the associated adverse effects of ADP receptor inhibitors? | Neutropenia (ticlopine) and TTP |
| Which ADP receptor inhibitor is associated with Neutropenia? | Ticlopidine |
| What is the mode of action of Cilostazol? | Phosphodiesterase inhibitors |
| MOA of Dipyridamole | Phosphodiesterase inhibitor |
| What are common uses of Cilostazol and Dipyridamole? | Intermittent claudication, coronary vasodilation, prevention of stroke or TIAs |
| What is commonly used with Cilostazol to prevent TIAs or strokes? | Aspirin |
| Adverse effects of Cilostazol and Dipyridamole? | Nausea, headache, facial flushing, hypotension, and abdominal pain. |
| Common GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors: | Abciximab, Eptifibatide, and Tirofiban |
| What drug is made from monoclonal antibody Fab fragments? | Abciximab |
| What type of drug is Abciximab? | GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors |
| What is the mechanism of action of GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors? | Bind to the GpIIb/IIIa on activated platelets, preventing aggregation . |
| What are the associated adverse effects of GpIIb/IIIa inhibitors? | Bleeding and thrombocytopenia. |
| List of Topoisomerase inhibitors: | Etoposide Teniposide Irinotecan Topotecan |
| Which cell phases are interrupted by Topoisomerase inhibitors? | G2 and S-phase |
| Which cancer drugs (list) work exclusively on the S-phase of the cell cycle? | Azathioprine Cladribine Cytarabine 5-fluorouracil Hydroxyurea Methotrexate 6-mercaptopurine |
| In which cell cycle is disrupted by Antimetabolite drugs? | S-phase |
| Which common cancer drugs works exclusively on G2-phase of the cell cycle? | Bleomycin |
| Which cell phase has a the following role: "Double check repair"? | G2 phase |
| Which phase of the cell cycle is interrupted by Microtubule inhibitors? | Mitosis |
| Microtubule inhibitors include: | Paclitaxel Vinblastine and Vincristine Eribulin |
| What occurs during the G1 phase of the cell cycle? | Duplicate cellular content |
| During the _______ phase of cell cycle, the cellular content is duplicated. | G1 |
| Which are the two categories of cell cycle- independent cancer drugs? | 1. Platinum agents (cisplatin) 2. Alkylating agents |
| What are examples of important alkylating agents? | Busulfan, Cyclophosphamide Ifosfamide Nitroureas ( carmustine) |
| Which proteins modulate G1 restriction point? | Rb and p53 |
| Common platinum agent that works in undeficed phase of cell cycle? | Cisplatin |
| What type of cancer drug is Busulfan? | Alkylating agent |
| Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide are both _______________ agents. | Alkylating |
| Which cancer drugs inhibit Nucleotide synthesis? | MTX, 5-FU; 6-MP; Hydroxyurea |
| How does MTX and 5-FU inhibit nucleotide synthesis? | Decrease thymidine synthesis |
| Which cancer drugs are known to decrease thymidine synthesis which causes an inhibition of nucleotide synthesis? | MTX and 5-FU |
| MOA of 6-MP, which leads to decreased/inhibition of nucleotide synthesis? | Decreases de novo purine synthesis |
| Antimetabolite that decrases de novo purine synthesis? | 6-MP |
| MOA of Hydroxyurea | Inhibits ribonucleotide reductase leading to a inhibition of nucleotide synthesis |
| Cancer drugs that inhibit DNA synthesis by causing cross-linking in DNA? | Alkylating agents and platinum agents |
| How do platinum agents decrease DNA production? | Cross-link DNA |
| Which cancer drugs work in the same way as Cisplatin? | Alkylating agents |
| How does Bleomycin (MOA) inhibit DNA synthesis? | DNA strand breakage |
| Commonly used DNA intercalators: | Dactinomycin and Doxorubicin |
| Dactinomycin and Doxorubicin are known as ___________________. | DNA intercalators |
| Common anticancer drug that intercalates DNA and causes heart problems? | Doxorubicin |
| MOA of Etoposide and Teniposide? | Inhibits topoisomerase II |
| Which anti-cancer drugs work by inhibiting Topoisomerase II? | Etoposide and Teniposide |
| What is inhibited by Irinotecan and Topotecan? | Topoisomerase I |
| In Topoisomerase inhibitors, if they end in --poside, it indicates? | Inhibits topoisomerase II |
| If the Topoisomerase inhibitor nomenclature ends with --tecan, it indicates inhibition of? | Inhibits topoisomerase I |
| What process of cell cycle is inhibited by Vinca alkaloids and Paclitaxel? | Cellular division |
| Vinca alkaloids MOA? | Inhibits microtubule formation |
| Which anticancer therapy works by inhibiting microtubule formation during mitosis? | Vinca alkaloids |
| What drug inhibits microtubule disassembly? | Paclitaxel |
| MOA of Paclitaxel? | Inhibition of microtubule disassembly |
| Purine (thiol) analogs that work by inhibiting de novo purine synthesis. | Azathioprine and 6-MP |
| What enzyme activates Azathioprine and 6-MP? | HGPRT |
| Role of HGPRT in antimetabolites? | Activation of Azathioprine and 6-MP |
| What is the relation/derivation between Azathioprine and 6-MP? | Azathioprine is metabolized into 6-MP |
| What is the most significant adverse effect of 6-MP and Azathiorine? | Myelosuppression |
| Which enzyme metabolizes azathioprine and 6-MP ? | Xanthine oxidase |
| Which antimetabolites are metabolized by XO? | Azathioprine and 6-MP |
| What medications may increase the 6-MP and Azathioprine's toxicity? | Allopurinol or Febuxostat |
| What are the primary clinical uses for azathioprine and 6-MP? | - Preventing organ rejection - Rheumatoid arthritis - IBD -SLE |
| Antimetabolites commonly used to wean off steroids-therapy in patients with chronic use of steroids? | Azathioprine and 6- MP |
| What is the main clinical use of Cladribine? | Hairy cell leukemia |
| Antimetabolite use to treat Hairy cell leukemia? | Cladribine |
| Two forms of MOA of Cladribine: | 1. Inhibition of DNA polymerase 2. DNA strand breaks |
| What are the associated adverse effects of Cladribine? | 1. Myelosuppression 2. Nephrotoxicity 3. Neurotoxicity |
| Besides myelosuppression, what other organs are at risk of adverse effects by treatment with Cladribine? | Kidneys and CNS |
| Azathioprine, 6-MP, and Cladribine are all ------> | Purine analogs |
| Which antimetabolites are Purine analogs? | Azathioprine, 6-MP, and Cladribine |
| Which antimetabolites are Pyrimidine analogs? | Cytarabine and 5-FU |
| Technical name of Cytarabine | Arabinofuranosyl cytidine |
| MOA of Cytarabine: | DNA chain termination. At higher concentrations ---> inhibits DNA polymerase |
| What condition has to be met in order for Cytarabine to inhibit DNA polymerase? | High drug concentration |
| Which malignancies are most commonly treated with Cytarabine? | Leukemias (AML), and lymphomas |
| Which is the most common leukemia treated with Cytarabine? | AML |
| Which antimetabolite may produce Myelosuppression with megaloblastic anemia? | Cytarabine |
| What is a global adverse effect of Cytarabine? | Pancytopenia |
| Similar drug (activity) to 5-FU? | Capecitabine |
| What is Capecitabine? | Prodrug with similar activity to 5-FU |
| Pyridine analog bioactivated to 5-FdUMP, which convenlay complexes with thymidylate synthase and folic acid . | Mechanism of action of 5-FU |
| Mechanism of action of 5-FU | [ 5-FdUMP/thymidylate synthase/folic acid] complex ---> decrease in dTMP which leads to a decrease in DNA synthesis. |
| What is the featured adverse effect of 5-FU? | Palmar-plantar erythrodysesthesia |
| What cancer drug may cause hand-foot syndrome? | 5-FU |
| What can be used to enhance the effects of 5-FU? | Leucovorin |
| What are the uses for 5-FU? | 1. Colon cancer 2. Pancreatic cancer 3. Actinic keratosis 4. Basal cell carcinoma (topical) |
| Which cutaneous conditions are treated with 5-FU? | Actinic keratosis and Basal cell carcinoma |
| Antimetabolite drug that is a Folic acid analog. | Methotrexate |
| Enzyme inhibited by MTX? | Dihydrofolate reductase |
| MOA of MTX? | Competitively inhibits dihydrofolate reductase leading to a decrease in dTMP which produces a decrease in DNA synthesi |
| What cancers are treated with MTX? | 1. Leukemias (ALL) 2. Lymphomas 3. Choriocarcinoma 4. Sarcomas |
| What are non-neoplastic conditions treated with MTX? | - Ectopic pregnancy - Medical abortion (with misoprostol) - Rheumatoid arthritis -Psoriasis - IBD - Vasculitis |
| Main adverse effect of MTX? | Myelosuppression |
| Treatment of myelosuppression caused by MTX? | Coadministered MTX with Leucovorin |
| Which is the "rescue" medication used in a patient on MTX? | Leucovorin |
| List of adverse effects seen with MTX | 1. Myelosuppression 2. Hepatotoxicity 3. Mucositis 4. Pulmonary fibrosis 5. Folate deficiency 6. Nephrotoxicity (rare) |
| MTX + misoprostol = | Medical abortion |
| What drug is used with MTX to cause an abortion? | Misoprostol |
| Teratogenic effect of MTX | Neural tube defects due to Folate deficiency |
| Which are the "antitumor antibiotics"? | 1. Bleomycin 2. Dactinomycin (actinomycin D) 3. Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin |
| MOA Bleomycin | Induces free radical formation which produce breaks in DNA strands |
| What are the most common uses for Bleomycin? | - Testicular cancer - Hodgkin lymphoma |
| Which antitumor antibiotic is often used to treat Testicular cancer? | Bleomycin |
| Most widely tested (USMLE) adverse effect of Bleomycin? | Pulmonary fibrosis |
| What are the key adverse effects of Bleomycin? | 1. Pulmonary fibrosis 2. Skin hyperpigmentation 3. Minimal myelosuppression |
| A person with Hx of testicular cancer, presents with dark skin and a restrictive lung pattern. Dx? | Adverse effects of Bleomycin therapy |
| What is the mode of action of Dactinomycin? | Intercalated into DNA, preventing RNA synthesis |
| What synthesis is prevented with Dactinomycin? | RNA |
| What is another name for Dactinomycin? | Actinomycin D |
| Antitumor antibiotic often used for childhood tumors | Dactinomycin |
| What tumors are treated with Dactinomycin? | 1. Wilms tumor 2. Ewing sarcoma 3. Rhabdomyosarcoma |
| Dactinomycin associated adverse effect? | Myelosuppression |
| MOA(s) of Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin | 1. Generate free radical by intercalation in DNA causing breaks in DNA and a decrease in replication 2. INterferes with topoisomerase II enzyme |
| Dactinomycin prevents _______ synthesis. | RNA |
| Doxorubicin decreases ________________________. | Replication |
| Solid tumors, leukemias, and lymphomas are treated with: | Doxorubicin and Daunorubicin |
| What is the most common adverse effect of Doxorubicin? | Cardiotoxicity (Dilated cardiomyopathy) |
| Which antitumor antibiotic is associated with development of Dilated cardiomyopathy? | Doxorubicin |
| What medication is used to prevent Doxorubicin-induced DCM? | Dexrazoxane |
| What is Dexrazoxane? | Iron chelating agent used to prevent cardiotoxicity |
| What are less important adverse effects of Daunorubicin and Doxorubicin? | Myelosuppression and alopecia |
| MOA Busulfan | Cross-links DNA |
| Clinical use of Busulfan | Ablate patient's bone marrow before bone marrow transplantation |
| What drug is used to obliterate the bone marrow of bone marrow recipient? | Busulfan |
| What are main 3 adverse effects seen with Busulfan? | 1. Severe myelosuppression 2. Pulmonary fibrosis 3. Hyperpigmentation |
| Which alkylating agent is known to work by cross-link DNA at guanine? | Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide |
| Nitrogen mustard | Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide |
| What is needed by Cyclophosphamide in order to function? | Bioactivation by liver |
| Featured/ unique adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide? | Hemorrhagic cystitis |
| What is co administered with Cyclophosphamide to prevent Hemorrhagic cystitis? | Mesna |
| Associated adverse effects of Cyclophosphamide and Ifosfamide? | 1. Myelosuppression 2. SIADH 3. Hemorrhagic cystitis (prevented with Mesna) |
| What is Mesna? | Medication given with Cyclophosphamide to prevent Hemorrhagic cystitis |
| MOA of Mesna | Thiol group of mesna binds toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide |
| Which alkylating agents are know to cross the BBB? | Nitrosoureas |
| Cross-link DNA; Require bioactivation; Cross the BBB. | Nitrosoureas |
| Alkylating agent often used in Brain tumors? | Nitrosoureas |
| What is the most significant side effect of Nitrosoureas? | CNS toxicity, which cause convulsions, ataxia, and dizziness. |
| Glioblastoma multiforme may be treated with which kind of alkylating agents? | Nitrosoureas |
| What kind of cancer drug is Procarbazine? | Alkylating agent |
| What are malignancies often treated with Procarbazine? | Hodgkin lymphoma and Brain tumors |
| What are the associated (severe) adverse effects of Procarbazine? | Bone marrow suppression, pulmonary toxicity, and leukemia |
| Hyper-stabilize polymerized microtubules in M phase so that mitotic spindle cannot break down. | Mechanism of action of Paclitaxel |
| Which mitosis phase cannot occur by using Paclitaxel or other taxanes? | Anaphase |
| What are the two malignancies treated with Paclitaxel? | Ovarian and Breast carcinomas |
| Adverse effects seen with Paclitaxel? | Myelosuppression, neuropathy, and hypersensitivity |
| Vinca alkaloids binding to B-tubulin cause: | Inhibition of polymerization into microtubules, which cause, prevention of mitotic spindle formation |
| M-phase afres is seen with: | Vinca alkaloids |
| Protein to which vinca alkaloids bind to: | B-tubulin |
| Vincristine is used in _________________ lymphomas. | Non-Hodgkin |
| Vinblastine is used to treat __________ lymphomas. | Hodgkin |
| Adverse effects seen with Vincristine: | 1. Neurotoxicity, 2. Constipation |
| Which adverse effect seen with Vinblastine? | Bone marrow suppression |
| Cancer patient develops paralytic ileus. Dx? | Treatment with Vincristine |
| What are clinical signs of Vincristine-caused neurotoxicity? | Arreflexia and peripheral neuritis |
| What are the clinical uses for Cisplatin and Carboplatin? | Testicular, bladder, ovary, and lung carcinomas |
| How is nephrotoxicity caused by Cisplatin prevented? | Coadministration with Amifostine and chloride |
| What is Amifostine? | Free radical scavenger that prevents nephrotoxicity caused by Cisplatin. |
| Associated adverse effects of Platinum agents? | #1 - Nephrotoxicity Peripheral neuropathy, and ototoxicity. |
| Inhibit topoisomerase II leading to increased DNA degradation. | Mechanism of action of Etoposide and Teniposide |
| What are the solid tumors treated with Etoposide and Teniposide? | Testicular and small cell lung cancer |
| MOA of Irinotecan and Topotecan: | -Inhibit topoisomerase I and, -Prevent DNA unwinding and replication |
| Which cancer is treated with Irinotecan? | Colon cancer |
| Topotecan is used to treat: | Ovarian and Small Cell lung cancers |
| What is an inconvenient adverse effect of Irinotecan and Topotecan? | Diarrhea |
| Which anticancer medication decraes DNA synthesis in the S-phase by inhibiting ribonucleotide reductase? | Hydroxyurea |
| What are the main uses for Hydroxyurea? | 1. Myeloproliferative disorders (CML, polycythemia vera) 2. Sickle cell |
| Why is Hydroxyurea used in Sickle cell disease? | Increase levels of HbF |
| Worrisome adverse effect of Hydroxyurea? | Severe myelosuppression |
| Monoclonal antibody against VEGF. | Bevacizumab |
| How does Bevacizumab works? | Monoclonal antibody against VEGF that inhibits angiogenesis |
| Which monoclonal antibody works by inhibiting angiogenesis? | Bevacizumab |
| What type of tumors are often treated with Bevacizumab? | Solid tumors, such as Colorectal cancer and RCC |
| What medication is used to treat Wet age-related macular degeneration? | Bevacizumab |
| Associated adverse effects of Bevacizumab: | Hemorrhage, blood clots, and impaired wound healing |
| MOA of Erlotinib | EGFR tyrosine kinase inhibitor |
| What is the clinical use of Erlotinib? | Non-small cell lung carcinoma |
| Adverse effect associated with Erlotinib: | Rash |
| Monoclonal antibody against EGFR? | Cetuximab |
| What type of colorectal cancer is treated with Cetuximab? | Stage IV colorectal cancer (wild-type KRAS) |
| What are some adverse effects of Cetuximab? | Rash, elevated LFTs, and diarrhea |
| Imatinib is: | Tyrosine kinase inhibitor of BCR-ABL and c-kit. |
| Which monoclonal antibody works on the Philadelphia chromosome fusion gene in CML? | Imatinib |
| What is a common used drug in CML treatment? | Imatinib |
| What cancers are treated with Imatinib? | 1. CML 2. GI stromal tumors (GIST) |
| A person on Imatinib may develop ______________ due to: | Edema due to fluid retention |
| Adverse effect -- Fluid retention | Imatinib |
| What is the monoclonal antibody against CD20? | Rituximab |
| Where is CD20 expressed/found? | Most B-cell neoplasms |
| Clinical uses of Rituximab: | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma, CLL, ITP, and rheumatoid arthritis |
| Which type fo lymphoma is treated with Rituximab? | Non-Hodgkin lymphoma |
| What is a serious and unique adverse effect of Rituximab? | Incrase risk of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy |
| Name 2 proteasome inhibitors, wich induce arrest at G2-M phase and apoptosis? | Bortezomib, and carfilzomib |
| What is often treated with Bortezomib? | Multiple myeloma, and Mantle cell lymphoma |
| MM is treated with what proteasome inhibitor? | Bortezomib |
| What are associated adverse effects of Bortezomib and Carfilzomib? | Peripheral neuropathy and Herpes zoster reactivation |
| What infection is often reactivated by the use of Bortezomib? | Herpes zoster |
| Common SERMs | Tamoxifen and Raloxifene |
| MOA of SERMs | Selective estrogen receptor modulators - receptor antagonists in breast and agonist in bone |
| Block the binding of estrogen to ER (+) cells | SERMs mode of action |
| Which SERM is used in Breast cancer treatment and prevention? | Tamoxifene |
| Common use, non-neoplastic, of Raloxifene? | Osteoporosis |
| What are the adverse effects of Tamoxifen? | Partial agonist in endometrium, which increases changes of endometrial cancer; "hot flashes" |
| Contrary to Tamoxifen, Raloxifene does not increase risk of endometrial cancer because: | It is an Estrogen receptor antagonist in endometrial tissue |
| What is a shared adverse effect of SERMs (Tamoxifen and Raloxifene)? | Increased risk of thromboembolic evens (DVT, PE) |
| Monoclonal antibody against HER-2 (c-erbB2), a tyrosine kinase receptor. | Trastuzumab |
| What is another name for Trastuzumab? | Herceptin |
| Anti-cancer mechanism of Trastuzumab? | Helps kill cancer cell that overexpress HER-2 through inhibition of HER-2 initiated cellular signaling and antibody-dependent cytotoxicity |
| Trastuzumab clinical use: | HER-2 (+) breast cancer and gastric cancer |
| What is the most common adverse effect of Trastuzumab? | Cardiotoxicity |
| What is Vemurafenib? | Small molecule inhibitor of BRAF oncogene (+) melanoma |
| What monoclonal antibody is used for V600E- mutated BRAF inhibition? | Vemurafenib |
| Common anticancer drug used for metastatic melanoma | Vemurafenib |
| MOA of Rasburicase | Recombinant uricase that catalyzes metabolism of uric acid to allantoin. |
| Which drug can cause the conversion of uric acid into allantoin? | Rasburicase |
| Use of Rasburicase | Prevention and treatment of Tumor lysis syndrome |
| Most common toxicities of Cisplatin and Carboplatin: | Ototoxicity and Nephrotoxicity |
| Chemotoxicity of Vincristine | Peripheral neuropathy |
| Which chemotherapy treatments are known to cause Pulmonary fibrosis? | Bleomycin and Busulfan |
| Main chemotoxicity of Doxorubicin | Cardiotoxicity |
| Which cancer medications are known to cause Cardiotoxicity? | Doxorubicin and Trastuzumab |
| Cyclophosphamide may produce which adverse effect? | Hemorrhagic cystitis |
Created by:
rakomi
Popular USMLE sets