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Sonia Smith

Anatomy & Physiology Study

QuestionAnswer
The sternal region is ________ to the scapular region. anterior
The gluteal region is ________ to the popliteal region. superior
The abdominopelvic cavity is subdivided into the _____ cavities. abdominal and pelvic
Which letter indicates the mental region? Chin area
Anatomy is defined as the study of the _____ of a living organism. structure
The dorsal body cavity is subdivided into a cranial cavity and a vertebral cavity. TRUE or FALSE False
Muscles are ________ to the skin. deep
A coronal section through the human body can pass through both ears.
The ________ system is involved in immunity. lymphatic
Which letter indicates the popliteal region? Behind the knee cap
Which branch of anatomy studies the structural changes that occur as one ages? developmental anatomy
As an anatomical region, lumbar refers to the infero-medial aspect of the back.
The body as a whole can be subdivided into two major divisions. They are axial and appendicular.
Another name for the midsagittal plane is median
Which letter indicates the umbilical region? Belly button area
The inguinal region lies where the thigh joins the trunk.
An example of a tissue in the body is epithelium
Physiology is defined as the study of the _____ of a living organism. function
The space that encloses the brain and spinal cord forms one continuous cavity called the _____ cavity. dorsal
Which structure is located entirely within the right upper quadrant? gallbladder
A frontal plane is the same as a ________ plane. coronal
The knee is ________ to the foot. proximal
Regarding directional terms, superior means toward the head.
The brain is ________ to the skull. deep
The chest is ________ to the abdomen. superior
All of the following are characteristics of human life except synthesis by scientists.
The body as a whole can be subdivided into two major divisions. They are axial and appendicular.
Which organ is not found in the ventral body cavity? spinal cord
_____ refers to an inner region of an organ, whereas _____ refers to an outer region or layer of an organ. Medullary; cortical
Which letter indicates the femoral region? Thigh (above the knee cap)
A surgeon removing a gallbladder should know to find it in the _____ region. right hypochondriac
The structure that is called the “powerhouse” of the cell is the: mitochondria
When many similar cells specialize to perform a certain function, it is referred to as a(n): tissue.
A plane through the body that divides the body into right and left sides is called: sagittal.
Molecules are: atoms combined to form larger chemical aggregates.
A sagittal section divides the body into _____ portions. right and left
A frontal section divides the body into _____ portions. front and back
What is the anatomical direction term that means nearer the surface? Superficial
Which of the following is not one of the characteristics of life? Balance
From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are: chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism.
The number of abdominal regions is: nine
Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, and endoplasmic reticulum are examples of: organelles
Two major cavities of the human body are: ventral/dorsal.
Several kinds of tissues working together are termed a(n): organ
An organization of many similar cells that are specialized to perform a certain function is called a(n): tissue.
Blood production is a function of which system? Skeletal
The abdominal quadrants are located with what structure as their midpoint? Umbilicus
The smallest living units of structure and function in the body are: cells
The mediastinum contains all of the following except the: right lung.
Popliteal refers to the: area behind the knee.
An x-ray technician has been asked to make x-ray films of the liver. Which of the abdominopelvic regions must be included? Right hypochondriac, epigastric, and left hypochondriac
A plane through the body that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is: coronal
Which of the following does not describe anatomical position? Arms extended from the shoulders, palms up
The abdominopelvic cavity contains all of the following except the: heart
The gallbladder lies in the: abdominal cavity.
An organ is one organizational level higher than a(n): tissue
The lungs are located in the: thoracic cavity.
The plane that divides the body into upper and lower parts is the _____ plane. transverse
If your reference point is “farthest from the trunk of the body” versus “nearest to the trunk of the body,” where does the knee lie in relation to the ankle? Proximal
The reproductive system includes all of the following except the: ureter
The normal reading or range is called the set point.
Because negative feedback control systems oppose changes that are opposite in direction to the initial disturbance, they are slowed or maintained in the homeostatic range.
The concept that information may flow ahead to another process to trigger a change in anticipation of an event that will follow is called feed-forward.
Which of the following is a basic component of every feedback control loop? All of these are components of a feedback control loop. sensor mechanism integrating center effector feedback
Many complex processes of the body are coordinated at many levels. These include intracellular. intrinsic. extrinsic. All of these are correct.
The impact of effector activity on sensors may be positive or negative. Therefore, homeostatic control mechanisms are categorized as organs that are directly influenced by physiological variables or mechanisms.
What term describes a signal traveling toward a particular center or point of reference? afferent
The relatively constant state maintained by the body is known as homeostasis.
Local control or _____, intrinsic mechanisms often make use of chemical signals. autoregulation
Effectors can be described as organs that directly influence controlled physiological variables.
Processes for maintaining or restoring homeostasis are known as homeostatic control mechanisms.
Which level of control operates at the cell level, often using genes and enzymes to regulate cell function? intracellular regulation
The body naturally changes some set points to different values at different times of the day. These daily cycles are called circadian cycles.
Events that lead to an immune response to an infection or the formation of a blood clot are examples of positive feedback.
To accomplish self-regulation, a highly complex and integrated communication control system or network is required. This type of network is called a(n) feedback control loop.
Extrinsic control usually involves which mode of regulation? nervous & endocrine
The term that literally means self-immunity is: autoimmunity.
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Prion
Intrinsic control: is sometimes called autoregulation.
Negative-feedback control systems: oppose a change.
Intrinsic control: is sometimes called autoregulation.
The contraction of the uterus during the birth of a baby is an example of _____ feedback. positive
Of the pathogenic organisms, which of the following are the most complex? Tapeworms
The body’s thermostat is located in the: hypothalamus.
Negative-feedback mechanisms: minimize changes in blood glucose levels. maintain homeostasis. are responsible for an increased rate of sweating when air temperature is higher than body temperature. All of the above are correct.
Epidemiology is the study of the _____ of diseases in human populations. occurrence distribution transmission All of the above are correct.
Positive-feedback control systems: accelerate a change.
The term that literally means self-immunity is: autoimmunity.
Which of the following is a protein substance with no DNA or RNA and is thought to be the cause of mad cow disease? Prion
Pathogenesis can be defined as: the course of disease development.
Which of the following is not one of the basic components in a feedback control loop? Transmitter
Which of the following may put one at risk for developing a given disease? Environment Stress Lifestyle All of the above
Negative-feedback control systems: oppose a change.
Intracellular parasites that consist of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat and sometimes by a lipoprotein envelope are called: viruses.
If the secretion of oxytocin during childbirth operated as a negative-feedback control loop, what effect would it have on uterine contractions? Oxytocin would inhibit uterine contractions.
The normal reading or range of normal is called the: set point.
Homeostasis can best be described as: a state of relative constancy.
Shivering to try to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of: the body trying to maintain homeostasis & a negative-feedback mechanism.
Of the 11 major body systems, which is the least involved in maintaining homeostasis? Reproductive
Which of the following is a basic component of every feedback control loop? sensor mechanism integrating center effector feedback All of these are components of a feedback control loop.
Hydrolysis _____ a water molecule. breaks down compounds by adding
The reaction between hydrogen and oxygen needed to form water is an example of a: synthesis reaction.
The elements carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen make up which percentage of the human body? 96%
The type of chemical reaction most likely to require energy is a(n) _____ reaction. synthesis
An element that contains the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons is called a(n) isotope.
Electrolytes are: called cations if they have a positive charge.
Hydrogen bonds result from unequal charge distribution on a molecule. Such molecules are said to be polar.
The atomic number tells you the number of protons in the nucleus.
Ionic bonds are chemical bonds formed by the: transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
Salts: can form as the result of a chemical reaction between acids and bases. are electrolytes. will form crystals if the water is removed. All of the above are correct.
The water molecule has two distinct ends, each with a partial electrical charge. Because of this structure, water is said to be polar.
A substance that cannot be broken down or decomposed into two or more different substances is called a(n) element.
Which type of chemical reaction results in the breakdown of a complex substance into two or more simpler substances? decomposition reaction
Which subatomic particles carry a charge? Protons and electrons
An atom can be described as chemically inert if its outermost electron shell contains _____ electrons. eight
Chemical bonds formed by the sharing of electrons are called: covalent.
What term is used to describe all of the chemical reactions that occur in body cells? metabolism
A weak acid: dissociates very little in solution.
The total number of electrons in a neutral atom equals the number of: protons in its nucleus.
The most abundant element essential to life is carbon.
Atoms with fewer than eight electrons in the outer energy level will attempt to lose, gain, or share electrons with other atoms to achieve stability. This tendency is called the octet rule.
The element oxygen has an atomic number of 8, which means it contains: eight protons.
A molecule that is polar: can form a hydrogen bond & has an unequal charge.
A force holding two atoms together is a(n) chemical bond.
Which of the following is not a subatomic particle? Radon
Acids, bases, and salts belong to a large group of compounds called electrolytes.
Acids release hydrogen ions.
For sodium to transform from a neutral atom to a positive ion, it must: lose an electron.
As a result of which reaction during catabolism is a water molecule added to break a larger compound into smaller subunits? hydrolysis
What decomposition reaction requires the addition of a water molecule to break a bond? hydrolysis
A chemical bond formed by the sharing of one or more pairs of electrons between the outer shells of two atoms is called a(n) _____ bond. covalent
As the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) increases, the: solution becomes more basic & pH rises.
As the concentration of hydrogen ions increases, the pH goes _____, and the solution becomes more _____. down; acidic
Which of the following represents a trace element in the body? Iron
The hydrogen isotope tritium consists of: one proton and two neutrons.
A negatively charged subatomic particle that moves around the nucleus is a(n): electron.
An example of a catabolic process is: hydrolysis.
Carbon has an atomic number of 6. The number of electrons found in the first shell is: two.
In the presence of a base, red litmus paper will: turn blue.
The process of the digestion of food is an example of which type of reaction? Decomposition
Substances that accept hydrogen ions are called: bases.
AB + CD → AD + CB is an example of a(n) _____ reaction. decomposition
Atomic mass is determined by the number of: protons and neutrons.
Which of the following represents properties of water? High specific heat High heat of vaporization Strong polarity
An example of a catabolic process is: hydrolysis
The formation of sucrose involves the removal of a molecule of water. This is called: dehydration synthesis.
A solution that contains a greater concentration of hydroxide ions (OH–) than hydrogen ions (H+) is a(n) _____ solution. alkaline (basic)
Which of the following elements is least likely to combine with another element? Helium
The approximate pH of gastric fluid is: 2.
As the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) increases, the: solution becomes more acidic.
Which of the following is not one of the major elements present in the human body? Zinc
The study of metabolism includes examination of: catabolism. anabolism. ATP requirements. all of the above.
The octet rule refers to the: stability of the atom when there are eight electrons in the outermost energy level.
A magnesium atom has an atomic number of 12, an atomic mass of 25, and a +2 charge. This atom would contain _____ protons, _____ neutrons, and _____ electrons. 12; 13; 10
The kind of element is determined by the number of: protons.
The study of metabolism includes examination of: catabolism. anabolism. ATP requirements. all of the above.
An example of an element would be: Ne.
The atomic number of carbon is 6. How many unpaired electrons are in its outer shell? Four
Acids: are proton donors. taste sour. release hydrogen ions in an aqueous solution. All of the above are true of acids.
Approximately what percentage of the body weight of an adult female is water? 50%
The type of reaction in which substances are combined to form more complex substances is called a(n) _____ reaction. synthesis
When atoms combine, they may gain, lose, or share: electrons.
An ionic bond is formed by: a positive and a negative ion attracting each other.
Which of the following bonds are the weakest? Hydrogen
All proteins have which four elements? carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, and nitrogen
A triglyceride is composed of a glycerol molecule and three of the same type of fatty acid. TRUE or FALSE False
Chaperone proteins assist in the proper folding of other proteins so they can have the correct functional shape. TRUE or FALSE True
The most important monosaccharide is glucose.
The lipid that is often referred to as a tissue hormone is prostaglandin.
Proteins are polymers of amino acids.
Which of these is not a lipid? polysaccharide
Which term means “water loving” and applies to the phospholipid head? hydrophilic
What determines how a protein performs? shape
A very large molecule composed of subunits of sugar, a nitrogen base, and a phosphate bond is a nucleic acid.
In base pairing of DNA molecules, _____ is bound to _____. adenine; thymine
RNA and DNA have the same pyrimidine bases but different purine bases. TRUE or FALSE False
Which of the following is polymer of glucose that is sometimes referred to as animal starch? Glycogen
DNA and RNA are important because information molecules.
When two amino acids are joined, a peptide bond is formed and an H+ ion is released. TRUE or FALSE False
ATP is the form of energy that cells generally use.
Any large molecule made up of many identical small molecules is called a(n) polymer.
The carbon-containing molecules formed by living things are often called organic molecules.
What term is often used to describe certain arrangements of atoms attached to the carbon core of many organic molecules? functional group
A saturated fatty acid is one in which all available bonds of its hydrocarbon chain are filled.
Which of the following cytoskeleton elements are the largest in diameter? microtubules
This membranous organelle contains oxidase and catalase enzymes. peroxisome
A spherical membrane-bound structure that contains the genetic material of the cell and is often referred to as the “command center” of the cell is the nucleus.
Which of the following statements about integral proteins in the plasma membrane is false? They are more abundant by volume than the membrane phospholipids. <-------- They determine which molecules are transported through the membrane. Some attach to the glycocalyx. Most extend all the way through the membrane.
Which type of junction is formed when membrane channels of adjacent plasma membranes adhere to each other? gap junction
Cisternae of this organelle are continuous with the nuclear envelope. rough endoplasmic reticulum
The outer boundary of a human cell is called the plasma membrane.
Ribosomes are organelles that float in the cytoplasm and attach to the endoplasmic reticulum.
Of the following, the only organelle that has a double membrane structure is the mitochondrion.
The inside of the cell is composed largely of a gel-like substance called cytoplasm.
This organelle is characterized by folded membranes called cristae. mitochondria
This membranous organelle is the site of protein synthesis for proteins that are secreted by the cell. rough endoplasmic reticulum
Ribosomes may be either free within the cytoplasm or bound to a membrane system known as the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Which area of the cytoplasm near the nucleus coordinates the building and breaking of microtubules in the cell? centrosome
This organelle has both a cis and a trans face. Golgi apparatus
Which of the following is not a cytoskeleton element? centriole
This organelle primarily modifies products from the rough ER, and it resembles a stack of hollow saucers, one cupped inside the next. Golgi apparatus
This organelle is primarily a sac of powerful digestive enzymes called acid hydrolases. lysosome
In the matrix of the plasma membrane, a variety of proteins are embedded. Some of these proteins serve as passageway for Na+ ions or glucose. These proteins are called transport proteins.
Phospholipids of the plasma membrane are arranged as a bilayer with their nonpolar tails sandwiched between the polar heads.
The plasma membrane is composed of all of the following except tubulin protein.
Often referred to as the “power plant” of the cell, which organelle is the site of ATP production? mitochondrion
A major function of the cell membrane is to control what enters and leaves the cell.
This organelle is numerous in liver and kidney cells. peroxisome
Which of the following is a type of cell extension that lines the intestines and other areas of the body? microvilli
DNA is a major constituent of which cell organelle? Nucleus
The enzyme catalase is an important chemical in the functioning of the: peroxisomes.
The inner membrane of what double-membrane structure is contorted into folds called cristae? Mitochondrion
Which organelle processes and packages material to be secreted? Golgi apparatus
A specialized cell structure that propels the sperm is the: flagellum.
Which organelles consist of vesicles that have pinched off from the Golgi apparatus? Lysosomes
Rafts are stiff groupings of membrane molecules. What is their function? Help organize the various components of the plasma membrane. Play an important role in the pinching of a parent cell into two daughter cells. Sometimes allow the cell to form depressions that form a means of carrying substances into the cell. ALL
Granules or threads within the nucleus are called: chromatin.
The presence of which substance in the cell membrane keeps it from breaking too easily? Cholesterol
Which of the following is not true about ribosomes? Surrounded by a membrane structure
The structure in cells that is associated with the enzymatic breakdown (digestion) of foreign material is the: lysosome.
The barrier function of the plasma membrane is accomplished by the: phospholipid bilayer.
Skin cells (epithelial) are held tightly together by: desmosomes.
The identification function of the cell membrane is carried out by the: glycoprotein molecules.
Which cell extension lacks a central pair of microtubules, is not found in blood cells, and functions in the kidney to monitor urine flow? Primary cilium
Main cell structures include all of the following except: interstitial fluid.
In the cell membrane, the hydrophilic part of the phospholipid molecule: faces the exterior of the cell & faces the interior of the cell.
The ____ is often called the microtubule organizing center. centrosome
Which of the following is not true of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? It makes lipids and carbohydrates.
ATP production occurs within which organelle? Mitochondrion
Which of the following organelles is considered a nonmembranous organelle? Ribosome
Which are the organelles that allow for the recycling of amino acids in the cell? Proteasomes
The nucleolus is composed chiefly of: rRNA.
The structure that separates the contents of a cell from the surrounding tissue is known as: plasma membrane.
The cell extension that assists epithelial cells in absorption is called: microvilli.
The cell extension that contains microfilaments is called: microvilli.
The largest human cell, measuring about 150 μm, is a: female sex cell or ovum.
Which cell fiber serves as part of our “cellular muscles?” Microfilament
Tiny indentations of the plasma membrane that resemble caves are called: caveolae.
Which of the following is not a function of the integral membrane proteins? Acting as receptors Signal transduction Identification of “self” All of the above are functions of the integral membrane proteins.
A list of the cell fibers from largest to smallest would read: microtubules, intermediate filaments, microfilaments.
The fundamental organizational unit of life is the: cell.
Projections from the cell that move materials and mucus are called: cilia.
The membranous structure containing substances that protect the cell from harm are: lysosomes & peroxisomes.
Which of the following does not describe a structure or function of the proteasome? Breaking down abnormal and misfolded proteins released from the ER. Looks like a hollow cylindrical drum made of protein subunits. Requires the small protein called ubiquitin to pull proteins in. ALL
Red blood cells are placed in an unknown solution. After 45 minutes, the cells are examined and determined to have decreased in size. The unknown solution is hypertonic.
Meiosis is called “reduction division” because the number of chromosomes is reduced by half.
The component that distinguishes one nucleotide from another is the nitrogen base.
The cell process in which microorganisms or other large particles are engulfed is called phagocytosis.
Which of the following phases is NOT correctly matched with its description? metaphase – chromosomes align along the center of the cell anaphase – mitosis is complete <----- prophase – chromatin condenses into chromosomes telophase – nuclear envelope reappears
Proteins that act as catalysts are called enzymes.
Which of the following is an active transport process? endocytosis
In the DNA molecule, a sequence of three base pairs forms a(n) codon.
Normal mitosis results in cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.
Mitosis is subdivided into four phases, including all of the following except karyophase.
Diffusion can be defined as the net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
Meiotic division occurs in primitive sex cells.
The total number of 46 chromosomes per cell is referred to as _________ number. diploid
Osmosis can be defined as the net movement of water molecules from a region of lower solute concentration to a region of higher solute concentration.
The two processes of protein synthesis are transcription and translation.
RNA makes proteins by translation.
Facilitated diffusion is not an active transport process because it does not depend on cell energy.
Transcription can best be described as the synthesis of mRNA.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of meiosis? two haploid gametes
Replication of DNA occurs in which phase of interphase? S phase
If oxygen is available, the pyruvate molecules formed by glycolysis are prepared to enter the next phase of aerobic cellular respiration, called the citric acid cycle.
If red blood cells containing 10% solute are placed in a solution containing 10% solute, what will happen? Water will move into and out of the cells at equal rates.
In the electron transport system, the final electron acceptor is oxygen.
In which stage of mitosis do chromosomes move to the opposite ends of the cells along the spindle fibers? anaphase
Water pressure that develops in a solution as a result of osmosis into that solution is called _____ pressure. osmotic
A chemical that reduces the amount of activation energy needed to start a chemical reaction is a(n) catalyst.
The result of meiosis is four daughter cells that are haploid.
Diffusion moves down a concentration gradient.
Glycolysis occurs in what part of the cell? cytoplasm
A molecule or other agent that alters enzyme function by changing its shape is called a(n) allosteric effector.
Which of the following contains intercalated disks? cardiac muscle
Of the many different kinds of protein compounds in the body, which is the most abundant? collagen
All glands in the body can be classified as either exocrine or endocrine.
Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue? cardiac
The conducting unit of the nerve tissue is the neuron.
Which type of tissue has cube-shaped cells and can be found lining the kidney tubules? simple cuboidal epithelium
Which of the following is the most superficial layer of the epidermis? stratum corneum
The _____ junction “glues” the epidermis and dermis together and provides mechanical support for the epidermis. dermoepidermal
Which principal type of tissue covers and protects body surfaces and lines body cavities? epithelial
Which of the following is not a principal type of tissue? cardiac
The union of basal and fibroreticular laminae forms the basement membrane.
The basic determinant of skin color is melanin.
The fluid environment that fills the spaces between the cells of the body is called extracellular matrix.
Each hair follicle has a small bundle of involuntary muscles attached to it called the arrector pili muscle.
Which of the following is not a primary germ layer? epiderm
The skin glands include three kinds of microscopic glands. They are the __________ glands. sweat, sebaceous, and ceruminous
Which of the following tissues lacks a direct blood supply and consequently heals very slowly? cartilage
The mixed secretions of sebaceous and ceruminous glands form a brown waxy substance called the cerumen.
The structure that lies deep to the dermis and forms a connection between the skin and the underlying structures of the body is the hypodermis.
Besides water, extracellular matrix contains proteins and proteoglycans.
Created by: sonsmith