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Physiology
UWORLD + FA Review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Effects on myocardium function after an MI: | Sharp decrease in Cardiac output due to loss of function of zone of ht myocardium |
| On a Cardiac Function Curve, an MI wuld show what changes? | A decrease in both the slope and the maximal height of the line |
| During which part of the cardiac cycle (a beat) does most of the Left Ventricular perfusion occurs? | Diastole |
| Why is there minimal LV perfusion during Systole? | Dut to the high systolic intraventricular pressure and wall stress on the LV. |
| What is the most important limiting factor for anytime of blood supply? | The duration of diastole. |
| A short diastolic time means: | Shorter time for blood to reach the intended area, thus limiting the perfusion. |
| What is a common condition that shortens the duration of diastole? | Exercise as it produces tachycardia |
| Increased heart rate = | shorter time of ventricular relaxation --> short diastole --> less blood perfusion. |
| What is Hemosiderin? | The iron from the RBCs taken up by alveolar macrophages and stored. |
| What color is usually found in Hemosiderin slides? | Brown-pigment |
| What condition is associated with Hemosiderin filed alveolar macrophages? | Congestive heart failure |
| What are two Class 4 antiarrhythmics? | Verapamil and Diltiazem |
| What kind of arrhythmia is often treated with Class IV antiarrhythmics? | PSVT |
| Mode of action of Verapamil and Diltiazem? | Blockage of Calcium channels in slow-response cardiac tissue, slowing phase 4 (spontaneous depolarization) and Phase 0 (upstroke) |
| What is the overall result in impulse conduction as patient is treated with a Calcium channel blocker? | Reduces impulse conduction velocity in the SA and AV nodes. |
| Phase 4 in Cardiac Pacemaker AP represents: | Spontaneous Depolarization |
| Class IV antiarrhythmics slow down which Phase? | Phase 4 or "Spontaneous Depolarization" and Phase 0 (upstroke) |
| What kind of antiarrhythmics Increase the Refractory period? | K+ channel blockers, especially Class III and Class IA antiarrhythmics, as these prolong REPOLARIZATION |
| Class III (amilidorone) and Class IA (quinidine) antiarrhythmics prolong the______________________ of the cardiomyocyte, which Class IV antiarrhythmics (Verapamil) slow down ______________________ | Repolarization (class III and IA); Spontaneous Depolarization (class IV) |
| The Rough ER is : | Covered by ribosomes and is involved in the transfer of proteins to the cell membrane and extracellular space, attached to a transcoding. |
| The RER (rough endoplasmic reticulum) has well developed _______________________ pancreatic and Plasma cells. | Protein-secreting |
| The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum does not have attached _____________, and funciotos in _________________, _____________, and ______________________. | Ribosomes; Lipid synthesis, carbohydrate metabolism, and detoxification of harmful substances. |
| Free Ribosomes location: | Floating in the Cytosol |
| What is the role of Free Ribosomes? | Responsible for translating proteins found within the cytosol, nucoulsl, peroxisome matrix and nuclear-encoded mitochondrial proteins |
| Renal Blood Flow (RBF) definition: | Volume of blood that flows through the kidney per unit time and can be calculated by dividing the renal plasma flow by (1-hematocrit) |
| What value closely resembles RPF? | PAH clearance |
| PAH clearance = | RPF |
| RPF = | (urine [PAH] x urine flow rate) =------------------------------------- plasma [PAH] |
| RBF = | (PAH clearance) = ---------------------------- (1- hematocrit) |
| Irregular chaotic electrical activity within the ATRIA and presents with absent P-waves, irregularly irregular R-R intervals and narrow QRS. Dx? | Atrial Fibrillation |
| What is the pacemaker in atrial fibrillation? | AV node |
| What is affected in the ECG by abnormal Bundle Brunch conductivity? | Duration of QRS complex |
| The Purkinje system takes over as Pacemaker: | It takes over when heart rate is less than 40 bpm. |
| IV fluids will increase : | The intravascular volume and the LVEDV. |
| An increase in Preload by IV fluids causes: | A stretch in the myocardium and increased End-diastolic sarcomere length, leading to an increase in stroke volume and cardiac output. |
| Polycythemia definition: | Erythrocytosis with a level > 52% in men and >48% in women. |
| What value is used to differentiate from Absolute and Relative erythrocytosis? | RBC mass |
| What does a normal RBC mass value indicate about Erythrocytosis? | Plasma volume contraction as the cause of the Polycythemia |
| Relative Polycythemia: | - Normal RBC mass |
| What are some causes of Relative Polycythemia? | 1. Dehydration 2. Excessive diuresis |
| Absolute Polycythemia reveals a: | True increase in RBC mass |
| Secondary Absolute Erythrocytosis: | 1. Only RBC increases; normal WBC and platelets 2. Hypoxia; EPO-producing tumors |
| What is the MCC of Primary Absolute Polycythemia? | Polycythemia Vera |
| What happens in Renal Artery Stenosis? | 1. Hypoperfusion 2. Activation of the RAAS |
| What are the actions of Angiotensin II (AT II)? | - Arteriolar vasoconstriction - Increases Aldosterone and ADH production |
| In Renal Artery Stenosis the Affected Kidney produces: | Renal Hypoxia and, Increased Renin output |
| What are the final effects seen in the Unaffected (good) kidney in Renal artery stenosis? | 1. Increase in Na+ excretion 2. Decrease in Renin Output |
| The cascade of effects seen in Unilateral Renal Artery Stenosis, produce what final effect in affected kidney? | Improved GFR |
| Leydig cell: | Stimulated by ----> LH Secretes ------> Testosterone |
| Sertoli cell: | Stimulated by -----> FSH Secretes ---- Inhibin B |
| Which node is the normal pacemaker in a healthy individual? | SA node |
| In cases of SA node been damaged, what are other "replacement" conduction pacemakers? | AV node (afib) bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers |
| In a 3 AVB, what is the pacemaker in charge? | AV node |
| Pacemakers below the AV node and bundle of His? | Take over when HR is below 20 bpm with abnormally shaped QRS complexes. |
| What are the 2 main causes of Normal A-a gradient hypoxemia? | 1. Hypoventilation 2. Low inspired fraction of Oxygen |
| What are conditions associated with Hypoventilation-induced hypoxemia? | - Obesity Hypoventilation syndrome - Neuromuscular disease |
| What condition is associated with Low Inspired fraction of oxygen, thus causing Hypoxemia? | High altitude |
| What are the 3 main categories of Elevated A-a gradient Hypoxemia? | 1. Right -to - left shunts 2. V/Q mismatch 3. Impaired diffusion |
| Cardiac septal defects and Pulmonary edema are examples of: | Right to left shunts that cause Elevated A-a gradient hypoxemia |
| What are conditions associated with V/Q mismatch? | -Pulmonary embolism - COPD |
| Impaired diffusion in lungs is seen with | Interstitial lung disease |
| What is a sign of Hypoventilation? | [PaCO2] > 45 mm Hg while awake (patient is keeping the CO2 inside) |
| MVP is audible as the _______________________, just before _________________. | Mitral Valve Opens; Diastolic filling. |
| Everytime GFR halves, ___________________________________. | Serum Creatine doubles |
| What is the function of Neprilysin? | Breakdown of Natriuretic peptides and AT-2. |
| What is caused by the inhibition of Neprilysin? | Activation of ANP/BNP and AT II |
| What are the combined effects of Neprilysin inhibitor and ARBs in treatment of Heart failure? | 1. Optimize the Positive effects of Natriuretic peptides (vasodilation, dirures) 2. Blocking the negative effects of AT II (vasoconstriction and fluid retention) |
| ARBs treatment is beneficial as it: | Blocks the negative effects of AT II, such as vasoconstriction and Fluid retention |
| What effects are enhanced by inhibiting Neprilysin? | Positive effects of Natriuretic peptides such as Vasodilation and diuresis. |
| Where is Proinsulin cleaved? | Pancreatic B-cells secretory granules |
| What are the breakdown products of Proinsulin? | Insulin and C-peptide |
| Where would you find Preproinsulin in the B-pancreatic cell? | Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum |
| Dobutamine injection would cause an increase in ______________. | Contractility. |
| Hyperventilation causes | Decrease in PaCO2 |
| Hypoventilation causes | Increase in PaCO2 |
| A decrease of HCO3- is seen with: | Metabolic Acidosis |
| What enzyme is overproduced or expressed in Sarcoidosis? | 1-a-hydroxylase |
| Elevated levels of 1-a-hydrolase produces: | 1. 1, 25 -(OH)2 Vitamin D 2. Hypercalcemia |
| Airway resistance: | At each level of the the lower respiratory tract is inversely related to the total cross-sectional areas of all the airway at that level |
| Airway resistance in the trachea is: | High, and then reaches a peak at the medium-sized bronchi |
| Where is the total cross-sectional area of the airways the minimum? | Medium-size bronchi |
| Airways resistance is the lower in the | Terminal bronchioles |
| Calcium is most important in the process of contraction and relaxation in which type of muscle? | Cardiac and Smooth muscle cells. |
| Myocyte depolarization causes: | Activation of the L-type Calcium-channel at the plasma membrane |
| The activation of the L-type Ca2+ channels in the plasma membrane causes: | INFLUX of Extracellular calcium that activates sarcoplasm RyR channels, including the release of additional Calcium from the Sarcoplasmic reticulum. |
| The released Calcium from the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum: | 1. Binds to Troponin in cardiac muscle 2. Binds to Calmodulin in Smooth muscle |
| As Sarcoplasmic Reticulum release Calcium is attached to either Troponin or Calmodulin, in cardiac and smooth muscle, respectively, it allows for: | Actin and myosin to interact and cause contraction. |
| Sarcoplasmic Ca2+ binds to Troponin in __________________ cells. | Cardiac |
| Sarcoplasmic Ca2+ bins to Calmodulin in _________________ cells. | Smooth Muscle |
| After initial influx of Extracellular calcium via the L-type Ca2+-channels, what receptor is activated and causes? | Sarcoplasmic RyR receptor; allow for release of additional Sarcoplasmic Calcium. |
| What process of interaction is unique to Skeletal muscle contraction process? | Mechanical Coupling |
| What is Mechanical Coupling in Skeletal muscle? | The direct interaction between L-type Ca2+ channels and RyR sarcoplasmic receptors, that cause the release of Sarcoplasmic Calcium. |
| Which type of muscle tissue is less impacted by the influx of Calcium across the plasma membrane? | Skeletal muscle |
| What receptors are blocked by Class IV antiarrhythmics? | L-type Calcium channel |
| Class IV antiarrhythmics have a little to no effect on _________________ muscle, due to__________________________. | Skeletal Muscle; It is not affected greatly by the influx of extracellular calcium across the plasma membrane. |
| Serum FSH in menopause is: | Elevated due to resistant ovarian follicles and lack of feedback mechanism form Inhibin. |
| How are the levels of Estrogen and Progesterone in Menopause? | Low (decreased) due to decreased ovarian function |
| Menopause: | Occurs on average of 51 years old and is diagnosed retrospectively after 12 months of amenorrhea. |
| What is B-endorphin? | Endogenous opioid peptide that is derived from Proopiomelanocortin (POMC). |
| What is POMC: | Polypeptide precursor that goes through enzymatic cleavage and modification to produce B-endorphins, ACTH, and MSH. |
| What are the products made from POMC? | B-endorphin, ACTH and MSH. |
| The CFTR protein is a: | Transmembrane ATP-gated Cl- channel |
| Defective CFTR gene is clinically presented with: | Thick, plugging mucus and elevated sodium and chloride levels in sweat. |
| Transport of glucose is done by: | Facilitated Diffusion |
| Facilitated diffusion is done: | By a protein and does not require ATP (energy) |
| What are the proteins used in Glucose transport? | GLUT 1-5 |
| What kind of Transport mechanism requires a protein and energy? | Active transport |
| Simple diffusion: | Does not require energy neither a protein. |
| Movement of particles along the concentration gradient with out use of energy or proteins. | Simple diffusion |
| Examples of Simple diffusion: | Oxygen (O2) and carbon dioxide (CO2) |
| Characteristics of Active Transport: | 1. Movement against concentration gradient 2. Most energy required is provided by ATP hydrolysis 3. Ex: Glucose against gradient via Na+/glucose symporter. |
| What are the three variables that affect Total Oxygen Content? | 1. Hemoglobin (Hb) concentration 2. Oxygen Saturation of Hemoglobin (SaO2) 3. Partial pressure of oxygen dissolved in blood (PaO2) |
| How does anemia alter or change Total Oxygen Content? | Decreased Hb concentration with normal SaO2 and PaO2. |
| How are Hb, SaO2, and PaO2 affected in high altitude situations? | All 3 variables are decreased |
| Describe alteration in Hb, SaO2 and PaO2 in Polycythemia? | PaO2 and SaO2 are normal, but there is an increase oxygen content due to increase production of RBCs. |
| What vessel has the most deoxygenated blood? | Coronary sinus (venous) |
| What are the two vessels that have the greatest difference in O2 levels? | Aorta (O2-richest) and Coronary venous sinus (O2-poorest) |
| Where is the Ectopic electrical foci in the development of Atrial fibrillation? | Pulmonary veins |
| Defective or damage electrical conduction near the Pulmonary veins, will be reflected in the development of? | Atrial fibrillation |
| Atrial Flutter is due to: | Disruption of electrical impulse int eh area between the Crista terminalis and the Tricuspid valve annulus, known as the Cavotricuspid isthmus. |
| What is the approximate K+ levels in the different parts of the nephron? | Bowman Capsule-- 100% Late PCT ---- 35% Ascending Loop of Henle and DCT ------ 5-10 % Medullary Collecting Ducts ----110% (1005 +10%) |
| What is the normal A-a gradient range? | - 4-15 mm Hg |
| Explain difference of the slight decrease in pO2 levels between the Alveolar Capillary blood and the Systemic Arterial blood. | Mixing of Oxygenated blood from the Pulmonary veins with Deoxygenated blood for the bronchial circulation and Thebesian veins |
| What blood vessels provide Deoxygenated blood to the Alveolar capillary O2-rich (only) blood? | The Bronchial circulation and the Thebesian veins. |
| V/Q mismatch has two main categories: | 1. Dead Space Ventilation 2. Intrapulmonary Shunt |
| Describe the physiology of Dead Space Ventilation: | - Good (adequate) ventilation - NO perfusion |
| What is an example of Dead Space Ventilation: | Pulmonary Embolism |
| What are examples of Intrapulmonary shunts? | Pneumonia and Pulmonary edema |
| Describe the physiology of Intrapulmonary shunt: | 1. Bad (NO) ventilation 2. Adequate (good) perfusion |
| What is the cause of Pneumoconiosis? | Diseases resulting form the inhalation of fine particles that reach the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli (Most distal areas) |
| How are particles removed by body in cases of Pneumoconiosis? | Cleared by alveolar macrophages, as they are phagocytosed. |
| How are substances (dust) cleared in the Nasal passage and Pharynx? | By cough and sneezing |
| How are substances cleared in the Bronchi and Proximal bronchioles? | Cleared by Mucociliary transport |
| What is the result of Vitamin K deficiency? | Impaired factor carboxylation |
| Vitamin K deficiency lead to bleeding in which areas? | Intracranial, GI, cutaneous, umbilical and surgical site bleeding. |
| Suspect of Vitamin K deficiency when: | 1. Newborn with spontaneous bleeding 2. Parents refusing vaccinations 3. Parents opting for "natural" births due to religious beliefs. |
| Germinal Matrix fragility: | Responsible for IVH in Premature infants |
| What is Dead Space? | Space where there is no gas exchange |
| Increase heart rate causes ______________________ to Dead space. | No change |
| What would occur in a person with tachypnea in respect to Dead Space ratio? | The increased in Respiratory rate will lead to an decrease in tidal volume, thus and the Dead Space ratio would increase. |
| The lung volume is _________________ in pulmonary fibrosis. | Decreased. |
| Hypobaric hypoxia; Decreased inhaled pO2 is the pathogenesis of? | High Altitude Sickness |
| What are the physiological responses to High Altitude sickness? | 1. Hyperventilation --> Increase blood oxygenation, lowers pCO2 2. Erythrocytes: Increase in 2,3-BPG production 3. Kidneys: Increase EPO production and increase in Bicarbonate excretion. |
| LH stimulates the _________________ and produce _______________. | Theca Internal -------> Progesterone |
| What cells is stimulated by FSH? What is produced? | FSH stimulates the Granulosa cell to produce Estrogen |
| ______________ ---> Granulosa cell -------> Estrogen | FSH |
| LH -----> ______________________ ----------> __________ | Theca interna; Progesterone |
| Gastin: | - Secreted by G cells in the Gastric antrum and duodenum - Role: Increase Gastric H+ secretion |
| Somatostatin: | - Secreted by D cell sin the Pancreatic islets and gut mucosa - Function: Decrease secretion of most GI hormones |
| CCK: | Secreted by I cells in the Small intestine - Function: Increase Pancreatic enzyme and HCO3- secretion |
| Secretin: | Secred by S cells ijn the Small intestine Function: Increase Pancreatic HCO3- secretion, and decrease Gastric H+ secretion |
| GIP: | Secreted by K cells in the small intestine Function: Increase insulin release and Decrease gastric H+ secretion |
| Motilin: | Secreted by M cells in the Small intestine Funtin: Increase GI motility |
| Which GI hormones cause a decrease in Gastric H+ secretion? | Secretin, GIP, and possibly somatostatin |
| Increase in Pancreatic enzyme and high bicarbonate secretion is seen with? | CCK |
| What is the unique role or function of GIP? | Increase the release of Insulin |
| What GI hormone is secreted by I cells in the Small intestine? | CCK |
| K cells in the small intestine secrete? | GIP; increase insulin release + decrease in gastric H+ secretion |
| Where are the G-cells the secrete Gastrin? | Antrum of Stomach and duodenum |
| What area is commonly infected by H. pylori in the stomach architecture? | Antrum of Stomach |
| What is hepcidin? | Polypeptide synthesized in the liver that acts a central regulator of Iron homeostasis |
| What is a key protein involved in the homeostasis and regulation of Iron? | Hepcidin |
| What causes elevation in Hepcidin levels? | 1. High iron levels 2. Inflammatory conditions |
| What conditions cause a decrease or low Hepcidin levels? | 1. Hypoxia and, 2. Increased erythropoiesis |
| Low levels of Hepcidin cause ---p> | Increase intestinal iron absorption and stimulate iron release by macrophages |
| What protein allows the passage of Iron for the Gut lumen into the Enterocyte? | DMT-1 |
| Transferrin is found as a dimer in the _________________. | Bloodstream |
| What protein, involved in Iron regulation and transport, allow for entrance of Iron into bloodstream either from the Enterocyte or macrophage? | Ferroportin-1 |
| What structure transports iron in the blood? | Transferrin |
| Hepcidin is synthesized in the ________________. | Liver |
| What is the Tm of glucose (TmG)? | 375 |
| At what concentration is there first glucose in the urine? | 200 |
| What is the threshold of glucose? | 200 |
| Where does ADH act in the Nephron? | Medullary segment of the Collecting ducts |
| WHat is the role of ADH in the nephron? | Increased urea and water reabsorption, allowing the production of maximally concentrated urine |
| Muscarinic receptors may be activated by: | 1. ACh and, 2. Cholinergic agonists |
| The activation of muscarinic receptors result in : | Peripheral vasodilation due the synthesis of Nitric Oxide in the endothelial cells, which lead to vascular smooth muscle relaxation (hypotension) |
| M1 receptors have their effects in the______________. | Brain |
| Stimulation of the M1 receptors cause: | 1. Memory formation 2. Cognitive functioning |
| Inhibition of M1 receptors cause: | Confusion |
| M2 receptors are found primarily in the_____________. | Heart |
| What are the effects seen in M2 receptor stimulation? | Decreases Heart rate and atrial contraction |
| What are the inhibitory effects of M2 receptor inhibition? | Increase heart rate and contractility |
| In which organs are M3 receptors located? | Peripheral vasculature, Lungs, Bladder, Eyes, GI, and Skin |
| What are the effects of Peripheral vasculature M3 receptor stimulation? | 1. Smooth muscle relaxation 2. Vasodilation 3. Hypotension |
| What happens if peripheral vasculature M3 receptors are inhibited? | - Smooth muscle contraction - Vasoconstriction - Hypertension |
| Hypotension would be treated by M3 receptor stimulation or inhibition? | Inhibition |
| Lung M3 receptor stimulation causes ________________--, while its inhibition produces ___________________. | Bronchoconstriction; Bronchodilation |
| What are the effects produced by stimulation of the M3 receptors found in the eyes? | 1. Pupillary Sphincter muscle contraction (miosis) 2. Ciliary muscle contraction (accomodation) |
| Inhibition of the Muscarinic (M3) receptors in the eye, causes: | Mydriasis, cycloplegia, acute angle glaucoma in elderly patients |
| Increase stimulation of M3 skin receptors cause? Inhibition? | Stimulation increased sweat production; Inhibition increases body temperature due to lack of sweating |
| What are the effects of GI M3 receptor stimulation? | 1. Increased peristalsis 2. Increase salivary and gastric secretions |
| Constipation, dry mouth, and decreased acid production can be due to inhibition of _______________________. | Gastrointestinal M3 receptors. |
| What is the relation between exercise and CO2 content of venous blood? | Increased skeletal CO2 production that increases the CO2 content of venous blood, is seen with exercise. |
| Only ____________________ is increased during exercise. | CO2 content in venous blood, due to increase Skeletal muscle CO2 production. |
| Thyroid surgery may cause: | Postoperative Hypocalcemia due to accident removal or damage of the PTH glands. |
| Acute drop in PTH leads: | 1. Decrease in Calcium and phosphate resorption from the bone 2. Decreased calcium reabsorption by the kidneys |
| Chvostek sign? | Typical manifestation of Acute hypocalcemia, which very commonly cause perioral paresthesias. |
| WHat are the 2 main regulators of Calcium and Phosphate? | 1. PTH: -- regulates minute to minute concentrations 2. Vitamin D: -- regulate levels over a longer time |
| A sudden imbalance or change in Phosphate or calcium will be counteracted by? | PTH |
| Long-term Calcium and Phosphate regulation is done by: | Vitamin D |
| PTH is produced by _________________- in the ________________ in response to _____________________. | Chief cell in the PTH glands; Hypocalcemia |
| What are the primary effects of PTH? | 1. Increased osteoclastic bone resorption --> Increase Ca2+ and phosphate into circulation 2. Increased Renal calcium reabsorption and reduces phosphate reabsorption 3. Increase the formation of 1,25-(OH) Vitamin D, which increases intestinal calcium reabsorption. |
| Stroke Volume (SV) = | EDV - ESV |
| Ejection Fraction (EF) = | SV = -------- EDV |
| Air Trapping and hyperinflation are commonly used terms when describing _____________. | COPD |
| COPD patients have? | Higher base lung volumes (Increase FRC) and increased Residual volume (RV) |
| Absolute volume of air in the lung that is not respired | Residual volume |
| Residual volume is increased in ________ patients | COPD |
| What lung volumes are increased in COPD? | FRC, TLC, & RV |
| Inulin clearance closely estimates _____. | GFR |
| Total Filtration Rate of Substance A = | (Inulin Clearance) x (Plasma concentration of Substance A) |
| Net excretion is the difference of Total filtration rate of substance A from: | Tubular Reabsorption of Substance A |
| Net Excretion Rate of Substance A = | ([Inulin clearance] x[Plasma concentration]) -- (Tubular Reabsorption of substance A) |
| Conductive Hearing loss has: | - Greater bone conduction (BC) than Air conduction (abnormal Rinne test) - Weber test --> lateralized to the affected ear |
| Greater bone conduction than Air conduction, means: | Abnormal Rinne Test |
| If during the Weber test, the sound lateralizes to the affected ear, it most likely means what kind of hearing loss? | Conductive hearing loss |
| Sensorineural Hearing Loss has: | - Air conduction > Bone conduction (normal Rinne Test) - Weber test --> Lateralized to UNAFFECTED ear |
| What is the parameters of an normal Rinne Test? | Air conduction greater than bone conduction |
| Abnormal Weber test: | Sound/vibration will lateralized to the unaffected (normal) ear |
| Abnormal Rinne + Normal Webber --> | Conductive hearing loss |
| Normal Rinee + abnormal Webber --> | Sensorineural hearing loss |
| TPO (thyroid peroxidase) causes: | 1. Oxidation of iodine to iodine 2. Iodination of thyroglobulin tyrosine residues, 3. Iodotyrosine coupling reaction that forms T3 and T4. |
| PAH is not_________________________________ | At any part of the nephron. |
| Where is PAH tubular concentration the lowest? | Bowman's space |
| what can cause isolated Systolic Hypertension? | Age related stiffness and decrease in compliance of the aorta and major peripheral arteries. |
Created by:
rakomi
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