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Neoplasia 1.1

FA Review

QuestionAnswer
What are the hallmarks of cancer? 1. Evasion of apoptosis 2. Growth signal self-sufficiency 3. anti-growth signal insensitivity 4. Warburg effect 5. Sustained angiogenesis 6. limitless replicative potential 7. Tissue invasion 8. Metastasis
Shift of glucose metabolism aways from mitochondria toward glycolysis Warburg effect
Loss of uniformity of cell size and shape; loss of tissue orientation, nuclear changes DYSPLASIA
Irreversible severe dysplasia that involves the entire thickness of epithelium but does not penetrate the intact basement membrane. Carcinoma in situ
Cell have invaded the basement membrane using COLLAGENASES and HYDROLASES (metalloproteinases). Invasive carcinoma
Invasive carcinoma causes: Cell-cell lost by inactivation of E-cadherin
Spread to distant organ via the lymphatics or blood Metastasis
Carcinoma implies ________________ origin. Epithelial
Sarcoma implies or denotes _________________________ origin. Mesenchymal
Benign cancer of the Epithelium? Adenoma and papilloma
Malignant form of cancer of the epithelium? Adenocarcinoma, papillary carcinoma
Which tissues demarc Mesenchymal origin? Blood cells, blood vessels, smooth muscle, striated muscle, connective tissue, bone, fat, melanocyte.
Leukemia, lymphoma Malignant cancer of the blood cells
Leiomyoma is _______________ form of cancer in _______-muscle, and Leiomyosarcoma is the __________________ form. Bening; Smooth muscle; Malignant
Nevus/mole is an example of? Mesenchymal benign melanocytic cancer
Degree of cellular differentiation and mitotic activity on histology, is the definition of_____________________. Tumor Grade
Tumor Stage Degree of localization/spread based on seite and size of Primary lesion, spread to regional lymph nodes, presence of metastases.
TNM staging system: T= tumor size/invasiveness N= node involvement M= Metastases
Tumor Grade uses scale form _______ grade (___________________) to _______ grade (_____________________). Low grade (well differentiated); High grade (poorly differentiated)
Well differentiated tumors: Often less aggressive; closely resemble their origin tissue
More aggressive tumors, with little to no resemble to their tissue of origin. Poorly-differentiated tumors
Tumor grade vs stage. Which has greater PROGNOSTIC value? STAGE
What are the most common Musculoskeletal and Cutaneous Paraneoplastic syndromes? 1. Dermatomyositis 2. Acanthosis nigricans 3. Sign of Leser-Trelat 4. Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy
Abnormal proliferation of skin and bone at DISTAL extremities, --> clubbin, arthralgia, joint effusions, and periostitis of tubular bones. Dx? Associated tumor? Hypertrophic osteodystrophy; Adenocarcinoma of the lung
Gottron papules and Heliotrope rash area classical signs seen in ______________________, which has high associated ithe _______________________, especially ___________________. Dermatomyositis; Adenocarcinomas; Ovarian
Sudden onset of multiple seborrheic keratoses Sign of Leser-Trelat
What tumors are associated with sign of Leser-Trelat? GI adenocarcinomas and other visceral malignancies
Hypercalcemia, Cushing Syndrome, and Hyponatremia are common manifestations of? ENDOCRINE Paraneoplastic Syndromes
PTHrP Manifest with Hypercalcemia; Associated wit Squamous cell carcinomas of the lung, head, and neck; bladder, renal, breast, and ovarian carcinomas
Increased ACTH is seen in Cushing Syndrome
Small cell lung cancer is associated with SIADH, and it is manifested with _______________________. Hyponatremia
Polycythemia, Pure red cell aplasia, Good syndrome, Trousseau syndrome, Nonbacterial thrombotic (marantic) endocarditis HEMATOLOGIC Paraneoplastic Syndrome manifestations
What malignancies/tumors are associated with the development of Polycythemia? Pheochromocytoma, renal cell carcinoma, HCC, hemangioblastoma, leiomyoma
What is Good syndrome? Paraneoplastic Hematologic manifestation, causes of Hypogammaglobulinemia. Associated with Thymoma.
Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis Trousseau Syndrome
Thymoma is manifested with: 1. Pure red cell aplasia, causes anemia with low reticulocytes, 2. Good syndrome, causing Hypogammaglobulinemia
Ovarian Teratoma is associated with: Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis, which causes psychiatric disturbances, memory deficits, seizurses, dyskinesias, autonomic instability, language dysfunction.
Formal name/nomenclature for "Dancing eyes, dancing feet" seen in Neuroblastoma (children) and small cell lung cancer (adults) Opsoclonus-Myoclonus ataxia syndrome
Lambert -Eaton Myasthenic syndrome. Clinical manifestations?Malignancy association? Associated with Small cell lung cancer, and it is the presence of antibodies against PREsynaptic (P/Q-type) Ca2+-channels at NMJ
What is the difference of antibody attack between MG and LEMS? MG antibodies are against POSTsynaptic ACh receptors at NMJ, nad LEMS antibodies are against PREsynaptic Ca2+-channels at NMJ.
What tumor is associated with the development of Myasthenia Gravis? Thymoma
The gain of function mutation converts proto-oncogene (normal gene)j to __________________ leading to increased cancer risk. Oncogene
Need damage to only one allele of a proto-oncogene Oncogene
ALK: Oncogene; Receptor tyrosine kinase; Associated with Lung adenocarcinoma
Which oncogenes have Tyrosine Kinase as gene product? BCR-ABL and JAK-2
Oncogenes with Receptor tyrosine kinase? ALK, HER2/neu (c-erbB2), and RET
c-MYC, MYCL1, and N-myc (MYCN), all have which gene product? Transcription factor
KRAS. Gene product? Associated neoplasm? GTPase gene product, associated with Colon cancer, lung cancer, and pancreatic cancer.
Follicular and diffuse large B cell lymphomas: BCL-2 gene, which is an Antiapoptotic molecule
Gene product seen in Follicular Large B cell lymphoma Anti-apoptotic
Which oncogene is shared by Melanoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma, and papillary thyroid carcinoma? BRAF gene, which produces a Serine/Threonine kinase
Serine/threonine kinase gene product is seen in: BRAF gene, and associated with Melanoma, non-Hodgkin lymphoma,and papillary thyroid carcinoma.
Papillary Thyroid carcinoma by definition is an ____________ origin tumor. Epithelial
What gene is associated with chronic myeloproliferative disorders? JAK-2
Breast and gastric lymphomas have: HER2/neu gene, (receptor tyrosine kinase)
c-KIT? Oncogene, labeled as CYTOKINE receptor; Associated with Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
GIST c-KIT oncogene (cytokine receptor)
MYCL1 is associated with? A transcription factor associated with Lung cancer
GTPase gene product KRAS gene; associated with Colon, lung and pancreatic cancer.
TGF-alpha: Oncogene associated with Astrocytoma and HCC
Uncontrolled cellular growth and division due to cell been "turn-on" permanently, is the mode of action seen in? Oncogenes
If a mutation causes the "turning off" of a process, which results in uncontrolled cell division, such process is seen in? Tumor suppressor genes
In analogy, the oncogenes are compared to the car's ______________ pedal, and the tumor suppressor genes are the car's ____________ pedal. Oncogene --- accelerator pedal Tumor suppressor genes -----brake pedal
Gene, under normal conditions, that slow down the progression of the cell cycle, allowing for proper proliferation-apoptosis homeostasis. Tumor suppressor genes
Loss of function --> Increased cancer risk Tumor suppressor genes
Negative regulator of B-catenin/ WNT pathway APC gene; Associated with Colorectal cancer (FAP associated)
APC is a ______________________ gene, that is associated with __________________ cancer, which is then associated with _______. Tumor suppressor; Colorectal cancer; FAP
DNA repair protein BRCA1/BRCA2
Which DNA repair protein is associated with Breast, ovatian, and Pancreatic cancer? BRCA1/BRCA2
Colon cancer is developed by mutation to _________ gene DCC
DCC --->______________________________ DPC----->_____________________________ Deleted in Colon Cancer Deleted n Pancreatic Cancer
PTEN tumor suppressor gene? Negatively regulates PI3k/AKT pathway, and its mutation results in development to Breast, prostate, and endometrial cancer.
Retinoblastoma and Osteosarcoma are due to mutation of? Rb tumor suppressor gene
Role or product of Rb gene? Inhibit E2F; Blocks G1--> S phase
TSC1 and TSC2 encode for product _________________ protein and _________________ protein, respectively. Associated with Autosomal dominant disorder, __________________ _____________. Hamartin protein; Tuberin protein; Tuberous sclerosis
The gene that is responsible for development of Wilms tumor is a _______________ gene, which is considered a ______________________. WT1 gene; Transcription factor that regulates urogenital development
APC, DCC, BRCA1/2, NF1/2, PTEN, Rb, TP53, VHL are all ___________________________. TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENES
EBV (microbe) is associated with which cancer? 1. Burkitt Lymphoma 2. Hodgkin Lymphoma 3. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 4. Primary CNS lymphoma in AIDS patients
Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with which microbes? HBV and HCV
H. pylori is associated with: Gastric adenocarcinomas and MALT lymphoma
Common name for Clonorchis sinensis? Associated cancer? Liver fluke is associated with Cholangiocarcinoma
S. haematobium Bladder cancer (squamous cell)
Adult T-cell Leukemia/lymphoma is associated with what virus? HTLV-1
Cervical and penile/anal carcinoma is highly associated with: HPV infection
Which types of HPV are associated with Cervical carcinoma development? 16 & 18
P-glycoprotein is related or associated to what concept? Decreased responsiveness overtime to chemotherapy, as it pumps out toxins, including chemotherapeutic agents.
PSA Prostate cancer
CEA Major associations: Colorectal and Pancreatic cancers Minor associations: gastric, breast, and medullary thyroid carcinomas
Marker for Pancreatic adenocarcinoma? CA 19-9
CA 125 is? Marker for OVARIAN cancer
AFP is seen elevated in which tumors? HCC, Endodermal sinus (yolk sac) tumor, Mixed germ cell tumor, Ataxia-telangiectasia, Neural tube defects
What is a common marker for Hydatidiform moles and Choriocarcinomas, testicular cancer, and mixed germ cell tumor? B-hCG
Metastases to bone or liver, Paget disease of bone, and seminoma (placental _________). Conditions seen with elevated? Alkaline phosphatase (ALP)
Marker LDH indicates what cancers? Testicular germ cell tumors, ovarian dysgerminoma
What marker can be used as indicator of tumor burden? LDH
Positive for S-100? Melanoma, Schwannoma, Langerhans cell histiocytosis.
What is the target of S-100 staining? Neural crest cells
Which CNS tumors are + for GFAP? Astrocytoma and Glioblastoma, as it stains for Neuroglia
What are common cells defined under Neuroglia? Astrocytes, Schwann cells, and Oligodendrocytes
What is the MC type of cancer INCIDENCE in men? women? Children? MEN -- Prostate WOMEN --> breast CHILDREN --> Leukemia
Cancer mortality MC in men, women, and children? Men and Women ----- Lung Children --- Leukemia
Colon/rectum cancer presents as ____________ in place in women and men cancer ___________________ and _____________________. THIRD (3RD); Incidence and Mortality
Skin cancer occurence: BASAL >> Squamous >> melanoma
What happens in mutations to Proto-oncogenes? Increase in growth factors leading to autocrine loop
An increase in PDGF in a brain tumor is an example of which cancer hallmark? Growth signal self-sufficiency, mutation in an protooncogene
What is the result of mutations in growth factor receptos? Constitutive signaling
What is an example of a cancer with a mutated growth factor receptor? HER2/neu in breast cancer
What are the two mechanisms of Anti-growth signal insensitivity? 1. Mutations in tumor suppressor genes 2. Loss of E-cadherin function leading to loss of contact inhibition
What is an important example of an mutation leading to loss of E-cadherin function? NF2 mutations
What is the mechanism of action of limitless replicative potential in cancer cells? Reactivation of telomerase, which leads to maintenance and lengthening of telomeres, preventing chromosome shortening and cell aging
What is an important pro-angiogenic factor? VEGF
Created by: rakomi
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