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Infectious Diseases
UWORLD Infectious Diseases and Immunology Review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is a common infection seen in persons with complement inability to form the MAC? | Neisseria species |
| End-product of antibody complement fixation | Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) |
| How does the MAC work? | Creates pore in the cell membrane, which causes an electrolyte disturbance, as there is inflow of free water causing eventually cell lysis. |
| The MAC defends against _________________- bacteria | Gram Negative |
| C5b - C9 | Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) |
| Terminal complement deficiencies | C5-C9 lead to easier infection by Neisseria species |
| What is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV? | Candidemia |
| Single-celled budding yeast with PSEUDOHYPHAE | Candida albicans |
| Production of + Germ Tubes | Candida albicans |
| Normally where is Candida albicans found in the human body? | Skin and mucosal flora |
| From which type of C. albicans manifestation do T-cells defend us? | Prevention of SUPERFICIAL INFECTIONS, such as, oral/esophageal, cutaneous, or vulvovaginal candidiasis |
| Oral candidiasis is prevented by action of the ____________. | T Helper cells |
| Role of Neutrophils in C. albicans infection? | Prevent the hematogenous spread of Candida. |
| Failure of Neutrophil protection against C. albican infection lead to? | Disseminated Candidiasis, manifested with Candidemia and Endocarditis |
| What is the MC treatment for disseminated Candidiasis? | Amphotericin B |
| Vaginal Candidiasis treatment | Oral fluconazole/ or topical azole |
| Oral/esophageal Candidiasis treatment is? | Nystatin, Fluconazole, or echinocandins |
| Which marker is seen before symptoms appear in suspected HBV infection? | HBsAg |
| SECES | Order of appearance of HBV infection markers. Antigens (HBsAg, HBeAg, HBcAg) Antibodies (HBeAb and HBsAb) |
| Active viral replication of HBV is signaled with which marker? | HBeAg |
| Which marker is made with IgM and IgG? | Anti HBcAg |
| What is the organism that causes Lyme disease? | Borrelia burgdorferi |
| Borrelia burgdorferi causes _________________. | Lyme Disease |
| The ________ tick carries __________________________, which is the causative organism of _____________________. | Ixodes tick; Borrelia burgdorferi; Lyme Disease |
| What disease is associated with Erythema migrans? | Lyme Disease |
| What is Erythema migrans? | Rash seen in Lyme disease, with a Target distribution , resembling a "Bull's Eye" pattern. |
| What kind of activities are often associated with development of Lyme Disease? | Camping and Hiking |
| Stage 1 symptoms of Lyme disease | Erythema migrans and flu-like symptoms |
| What are the common Stage 2 symptoms of Lyme Disease? | Carditis, 3 degree AVB, Facial Nerve (Bell's) palsy, migratory myalgias/transient arthralgias. |
| Development of 3 AVB is seen in secondary stage of what disease? | Lyme Disease |
| Encephalopathy and Chronic arthritis are symptoms of Lyme disease, that appear in Stage ______. | Stage 3 |
| What is the first line of treatment of Lyme disease? | Doxycycline |
| How is Lyme Disease treated in pregnant women and children? | Amoxicillin and cefuroxime |
| What is the MC mechanism of resistance shown by Penicillins? | 1. Mutated PBP 2. Beta - lactamase, ESBL, 3. Mutated porin protein |
| Vancomycin mode of resistance is by: | 1. Impaired influx/ increased efflux |
| Mutated DNA gyrase | Mode of resistance seen in Quinolones |
| Three ways that aminoglycosides obtain drug resistance: | 1. Aminoglycoside-modified enzyme 2. Mutated ribosomal subunit protein 3. Mutated poin protien |
| What is the main form by which tetracyclines obtain drugs resistance? | Impaired influx and increased efflux |
| Mutated RNA polymerase | Form by which Rifamycin develops drugs resistance |
| What is gingivostomatitis? | Development of vesicles on lips and hard palate, fever and lymphadenopathy by HSV-1 reinfection. |
| How is recurrent HS-1 infection manifested? | Development of Gingivostomatitis |
| Which lobe is most affected by HSV 1 infection? | Temporal lobe |
| What is a common neurological manifestation of HSV-1 recurrent infection? | Temporal meningoencephalitis |
| Which are the main 3 families of dsDNA enveloped viruses? | 1. Hepadnaviridae 2. Herpesviridae 3. Poxviridae |
| Hepatitis B is part of the ___________________ which is an _____________ ____-_______________ virus. | Hepadnaviridae family; ENVELOPED; dsDNA |
| Herpes virus description: | double stranded - DNA, enveloped |
| Varicella, Shingles, HSV1, HSV2 | Herpes family viruses |
| HSV-3 also known as: | Varicella zoster |
| Small Pox is an __________________ ds_______ virus. | ENVELOPED dsDNA virus |
| Which dsDNA viruses are NON-ENVELOPED (NAKED)? | Adenovirus, Polova, and Polyoma virus families. |
| HPV is an example of? | Naked, dsDNA virus of the Parvoviridae family. |
| Which are the most commonly used Polyoma viruses? | JC and BK |
| Erythema migrans is associated with _______________________. | Lyme Disease |
| Erythema Marginatum is associated with ____________________. | Acute Rheumatic Fever |
| Erythema Nodosum is associated with ____________________. | Infection, autoimmune, medications, pregnancy, and neoplasm |
| Erythema Multiforme is associated with ______________________. | (Autoimmune mediated) ; Infections and medications |
| Crohn's disease and UC are often found with erythema ___________________. | Nodosum |
| Lofgren syndrome and Behcet syndrome develop erythema ________________. | Nodosum |
| Untreated Group A streptococcal pharyngitis may develop: | Acute Rheumatic Fever |
| Which components cross react in pathogenesis of RF? | The anti-group A antibodies, which are anti-M protein and anti-NABDG. |
| The cross reaction between anti-group A antibodies cause an attack on which two tissues? | Cardiac and CNS |
| What organism has M-protein as bacterial virulence factor? | Streptococcus pyogenes |
| What organisms is known as the group A streptococcus | Streptococcus pyogenes |
| M-protein enhances the infection by S. pyogenes by: | Preventing phagocytosis |
| S. pyogenes has _________________, and S. aureus has _______________, as virulence factors. | M-protein; Protein A |
| Promote evasion of immune response | Bacterial virulence factors |
| What are some common virulence factors? | Protein A, IgA protease, and M-protein |
| Protein A is is found in __________________________. | Staphylococcus aureus |
| Bind to Fc region of IgG | Protein A |
| Protein A: | Prevents Opsonization and phagocytosis |
| M-protein only prevents ___________________________, while the Protein A prevents _____________ and ___________________. | Phagocytosis: Phagocytosis and complement |
| Cleaves IgA, allowing bacteria to colonize mucosal membrane | IgA protease |
| Virulence factor of S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae type B, and Neisseria. | IgA protease |
| SHiN | Mnemonic for Strep pneumoniae, H. influenzae type B, and Neisseria. |
| What is the JONES criteria? | Set of clinical manifestations seen in Acute Rheumatic Fever. |
| JONES criteria | J-migratory polyarthritis ❤- cardiac - MR N- skin Nodules E - Erythema marginatum S- Sydenham chorea |
| Non-rhythmic movements seen in RF? | Sydenham chorea |
| Rash in trunk and extremities that "comes and goes"; often associated with untreated group A strep pharyngitis. | Erythema marginatum |
| What is the main treatment for HSV-1 infection? | Acyclovovir |
| WHat is a common side effect of IV Acyclovir? | Nephrotoxicity after 3 days of IV Acyclovir |
| MoA of Acyclovir? | Inhibition of viral DNA polymerase |
| Inhibition of viral DNA polymerase is the mode of action seen in: | Acyclovir |
| Crystalline nephropathy is seen with prolonged IV treatment with ___________________. | Acyclovir |
| Mode of prevention for acyclovir-induced crystal nephropathy | Adequate and aggressive hydration |
| Which vaccine induces ANTICAPSULAR antibodies to facilitate complement-mediated phagocytosis of offending agent | H. influenzae B vaccine |
| What is a key response component of H. influenzae b vaccine? | The presence of ANTI-CAPSULAR antibodies |
| Hib vaccine leads to prevention of: | Hib meningitis, bacteremia, pneumonia, and EPIGLOTITIS |
| Most commonly a case of Epiglottitis is due to: | MIssed H. influenzae type b vaccination |
| What organism is the MCC of liver hydatid cysts? | Echinococcus granulosus |
| Why is the surgical removal of LIver hydatid cysts to be performed very carefully? | The accidental spill of these cysts can cause ANAPHYLACTIC SHOCK. |
| What is the most common treatment for liver hydatid cysts caused by Echinococcus granulosus? | Albendazole |
| Albendazole is the first line of treatment for ___________________ infection. | Echinococcus granulosus |
| Which region of the world, and USA are more prone to a Echinococcus granulosus infection? | East Mediterranean, MIddle East, and South America, as well Sub-Saharan Africa. The US --> Southwestern region |
| Which kind of fauna carries higher changes of infecting human with Echinococcus granulosus? | Dog and Sheep ownses in the SW of the USA |
| Besides the Liver, which are other less commonly affected organs by Echinococcus granulosus? | Lungs and then Muscle |
| Another name for Genetic SHIFT | Reassortment |
| Exchange of entire genomic segments is known as | Genetic shift |
| Which causes a more dramatic change, Genetic Shift or Genetic Drift? | Genetic Shift |
| Genetic _______________ is more dramatic athen genetic _______________. | SHIFT; drift |
| Pandemics and epidemics are caused by a genetic _______________ | SHIFT |
| Which viruses are more susceptible to suffer of genetic shift? | Segmented Viruses |
| Which are the SEGMENTED viruses? | Rotavirus, Orthomyxovirus, Reovirus, Bunyavirus, and Arenaviruses. |
| Antigenic Drift: | Occurs slowly and progressively and mostly responsible of Epidemics |
| Antigenic Shift: | Sudden occurrence and may cause epidemics and Pandemic |
| Reassortment ----->___________________ --->__________ | SHIFT --> Pandemcics |
| Mutations -------> ___________________ ----->_____________ | DRIFT ---> Epidemics |
| Which type of genetic event may produce proper annual vaccines? | Genetic drift |
| What are the two main presentations of Dengue Fever? | 1. Classic Dengue Fever 2. Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever |
| Which type of Dengue is associated with RETRO ORBITAL pain, white-islands in red sea rash, and flu-like symptoms | Classic Dengue Fever |
| Dengue fever characterized by increased vascular permeability, thrombocytopenia, and spontaneous bleeding leading to shock | Dengue Hemorrhagic Fever |
| Mosquito that transmits the Dengue-causative virus? | AEDES mosquito |
| Viral organism causing Dengue | ssRNA Flavivirus |
| Flaviviridae family viruses are: | 1. HCV 2. Yellow Fever 3. Dengue 4. St. Louis Encephalitis 5. West Nile virus - meningoencephalitis 6. Zika virus |
| ssRNA +, linear, and icosahedral, describes which viral family | Flaviviridae |
| Which genital ulcer conditions cause a PAINFUL ulcer? | 1. HSV genital ulcer and, 2. Chancroid caused by Haemophilus ducreyi |
| Painless genital ulcer are seen in: | 1. Syphilis by Treponema pallidum 2. Granuloma inguinale by Klebsiella granulomatosis 3. Lymphogranuloma venereum by Chlamydia trachomatis |
| Single, painless genital ulcer, with headed-up border and clean base. | Syphilis genital ulcer |
| Genital herpes ulcer is described as: | MULTIPLE, painful , superficial vesicles ulceration with ERYTHEMATOUS base |
| The CHANCROID is caused by _____________________________, and it is clinically described as: | Haemophilus ducreyi Deep, purulent, painful ulcers with mottled suppurative lymphadenitis (gram exudate) |
| Painless, progressive, red SERPENTINE ulcer lesions without lymphadenopathy | Granuloma inguinale |
| Lymphogranuloma venerenum | Small, shallow ulcers, painless |
| Clean base genital ulcer | Syphylis |
| Erythematous base genital ulcer | Genital Herpes |
| Genital ulcer with pus | Chancroid by Haemophilus ducreyi |
| Mottle suppurative lymphadenitis | Chancroid by Haemophilus ducreyi |
| Serpent (snake-like) genital ulcer is most likely seen caused by what organism? | Granuloma inguinale by Klebsiella granulomatis |
| What types of C. trachomatis cause Lymphogranuloma venereum? | L1 - L3 |
| Which type of HSV causes most commonly genital ulcers? | HSV-2 >>>> HSV-1 |
| Painless, red beefy ulcer that bleeds easily with contact? | Granuloma inguinale |
| Which type of genital ulcer is seen with bipolar staining? Why? | Granuloma inguinale due to Donovan bodies |
| Donovan bodies (ulcerative relation) | Granuloma inguinale |
| Increased amylase and NO PANCREATITIS is a strong indicative of: | Adult Parotitis |
| Common Parotiditis risk factors: | Elements that decreased salivary flow: 1. Medications such as anticholinergics 2. Obstruction as seen in calculi and neoplasms 3. Dehydration, post-surgical intubation |
| Patient complain of ear pain and swelling, mouth way to dry even after drinking plenty of fluids. Patient possibly has? | Adult Parotitis |
| What are common bacterial organisms that cause Adult Parotitis? | S. aureus > anaerobes |
| Firm, erythematous, pre/post-auricular ear pain and swelling, with trismus and dysphagia, are common finding seen in: | Adult Parotitis |
| What are the imaging findings of Adult Parotitis> | Ductal inflammation and obstruction, trunk abscess. (mostly likely US or CT) |
| X-ray Thumbprint sign is indicative of: | Epiglottitis |
| What is the most common side effect of Amphotericin B? | Nephrotoxicity |
| Amphotericin B side effects include: | 1. Nephrotoxicity 2. Hypokalemia --> arrhythmias 3. Hypomagnesemia |
| Why does Amphotericin B lead to Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia? | Increases the tubular permeability leading to increase leakage of K+ and Mg2+. |
| What kind of anemia is caused by Amphotericin B toxicity? | Normocytic, normochromic anemia, with decreased levels of EPO. |
| Binding to ERGOSTEROL in fungal membrane to form holes, thus, increasing permeability. | Amphotericin B mode of action |
| What medical therapy may lead to development of rhabdomyolysis with elevated Cr phosphokinase? | Dapsone |
| Dapsone is used in the treatment of? | Leprosy of Tuberculoid form |
| Dapsone is is used as prophylaxis of _______________. | PCP |
| What is phenotypic mixing? | The co-infection of a HOST cell by 2 VIRAL STRAINS resulting in progeny virions with the nucleocapsid proteins of one strain and the UNCHANGED parental genome of the other strain. |
| Reverting to original, unmixed genoes after 1st generation progeny virions is seen in : | Phenotypic mixing |
| Antifungal that affects the process of mitosis? | Griseofulvin |
| Griseofulvin acts in 2 different ways: | 1. Disrupts mitosis 2. Interferes with microtubule function |
| What is the clinical use of Griseofulvin? | Superficial fungal infections such as ringworm and tinea. |
| What are some important side effects of Griseofulvin? | 1. Disulfiram-like reaction 2. CYP450 inducer 3. Teratogenic |
| Caspofungin is an antifungal that destroys the _______________. | Cell wall |
| What is a common Echinocandin? | Caspofungin and micafungin |
| Inhibition of B-glucan in cell wall of fungal cell | Mode of action caspofungin (Echinocandins) |
| What are the common uses for Echinocandins? | Invasive aspergillosis, Candida |
| Which antifungal cause flushing due to Histamine release? | Caspofungin |
| Which antifungals work by destroying or inhibiting growth of fungal cell membrane? | Amphotericin B, Nystatin, and the azoles |
| What is the mechanism of action of Azoles? | Inhibit the synthesis of Ergosterol by inhibiting a CYP450 enzyme that converts lanosterol into Ergosterol |
| Nystatin shares its MoA with __________________________. | Amphotericin B |
| Common azoles | Fluconazole, itraconazole, ketoconazole, clotrimazole |
| Nephrotoxic, arrhythmias, hypokalemia, lifelong supplementation of K and Mg, IV phlebitis | Amphotericin B adverse effects |
| Most commonly used antifungal, despite its many adverse effects, for serious systemic mycoses. | Amphotericin B |
| What is an embarrassing adverse effect on males with the use of ketoconazole? | Gynecomastia (due to Testosterone synthesis inhibition) |
| Flucytosine works by altering or disruption which process of the fungal cell? | DNA/RNA synthesis |
| What enzyme is used by Flucytosine? | Cytosine deaminase |
| Flucytosine main use? | Cryptococcal meningitis |
| Bone marrow suppression is seen in ________________________, (fungal therapy). | Flucytosine |
| Agent used in treatment of dermatophytosis | Terbinafine |
| Inhibition of fungal Squalene Epoxidase | Terbinafine |
| "Swish and Swallow" | Nystatin treatment for oral candidiasis |
| ETEC | Traveler's diarrhea |
| Enterotoxigenic E. coli | ETEC |
| Bacteria that produces a heat labile (LT) toxin and a Heat-stable (ST) enterotoxins | ETEC |
| LT: | activates adenylyl cyclase --> increase in cAMP |
| ST: | activates guanylyl cyclase ----> increase in cGMP |
| Watery diarrhea by a person with a recent trip | Traveler's diarrhea by ETEC |
| cAMP is elevated in _______ enterotoxin of ETEC | LT |
| cGMP is elevated in ________ enterotoxin of ETEC | ST |
| LT uses the ____ pathway | Gs |
| Increase chloride secretion in gut and water efflux | LT |
| Decrease reabsorption of sodium chloride (NaCl) and water in gut | ST |
| LT and Cholera toxin, both share what characteristic? | Increase adenylyl cyclase leading to an increase in cAMP |
| Only ____ -toxin seen in ETEC is seen with an elevation in c______. | ST-toxin; cGMP |
| Which two bacteria inhibit elongation factor -2 (EF-2)? | Corynebacterium diphtheriae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| EHEC and Shigella | Inactivate 60S ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA |
| Inhibit EF-2 | C. diphtheriae and Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| Inactivate 60S ribosome | Shigella and EHEC |
| What pathway is disabled in a Bordetella pertussis infection? | Gi pathway, leading to overexpression of adenylyl cyclase leading to increased cAMP ---> impaired phagocytosis and allow microbe to survive |
| What are inhibitory neurotransmitters affected in C. tetani? | GABA and Glycine |
| Which are the stimulatory neurotransmitters involved in Botulism? | ACh signals |
| MCC of atypical pneumonia? | Mycoplasma infection |
| Kind of bacterial organism that does not gram stain well due to lack of cell wall? | Mycoplasma |
| What antibiotics are useless in treatment of Mycoplasma infection? | B-lactam antibiotics (penicillins, cephalosporins) |
| What is the best treatment options for Mycoplasma infections? | Macrolides and Tetracyclines |
| MoA macrolides and tetracyclines | Protein synthesis inhibition |
| Patient presents with low-grade fever, sore throat, and persistent cough. X-ray shows bilateral, patchy infiltrate. Treatment with typical penicillin does not show any improvement. Dx? | Atypical Pneumonia by Mycoplasma |
| Staph aureus is commonly found to exist in the _______________ __________. | Anterior nares |
| MRSA and MSSA are both commonly found to be colonized in the _____________________ | Anterior nares |
| What HIV drugs is used to prevent fetal transmission of HIV? | Zidovudine (ZDT) |
| ZDT is a _______________________. It is a _________________ analogue, that has an ABNORMAL _________ group o the ________________. | Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase inhibitor; Thiamine; 3-(OH) group; Thiamine. |
| Reverse transcription in HBV replication process allows the: | Conversion of +RNA template into dsDNA progeny |
| dsDNA ---> +RNA template --> dsDNA progeny | Replication process of HBV |
| Hepatitis B virus is an: | dsDNA, enveloped virus |
| Which kind of patients are more susceptible to infection of Aspergillus and developing infective aspergillosis? | Neutropenic |
| LM view demonstrates septate with narrow hyphae that branch at 45 degrees. | Aspergillosis |
| Reason of using Clavulanic acid | Provides some antibiotics (Penicillins) the ability to overcome those bacteria with B-lactamase resistance |
| Protect antibiotic (penicillin) destruction by B-lactamase | Clavulanic acid |
| Antibiotic protection against B-lactamase is done by: | Clavulanic acid |
| What are some common B-lactamase inhibitors? | Clavulanic acid, Tazobactam, Sulbactam, and Avibactam |
| Another name for Beta-lactamase | Penicillinase |
| NRTI are ________________ inhibitors | Competitive |
| NNRTI are __________________ inhibitors | Allosteric |
| Inhibition of HIV DNA synthesis from a + RNA template by termination chain elongation | NRTI and NNRTI MoA |
| What are the 3 main NNRTIs? | Delavirdine, Efavirenz, and Nevirapine |
| Delavirdine, Efavirenz, Nevaripine | NNRTI |
| ________________ require phosphorylation, while the ____________ do not. | NRTI; NNRTI |
| Which NNRTI may cause vivid dreams? | Efavirenz |
| What are common adverse effects of all NNRTIs? | Rash and Hepatotoxicity |
| Which is the only Nucleotide NRTI? | Tenofovir |
| Which HIV medication is used in pregnancy? | Zidovudine (ZDV) |
| NRTI adverse effect of Pancreatitis is often seen with use of: | Didanosine |
| Anemia is a common adverse effect seen with which HIV drug? | Zidovudine (ZDV) |
| Most common side effect of NRTIs> | Bone marrow suppression |
| What is the substance used to revert bone marrow suppression by NRTIs? | Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor |
| What adverse effects are seen in common by Protease inhibitors? | Hyperglycemia, GI intolerance, and Lipodystrophy |
| Indinavir is a _______________ inhibitor. It is associated with _____________________________ adverse effects. | Protease inhibitor; Nephropathy, hematuria, and thrombocytopenia |
| Elevated creatine kinase is seen with which kind of HIV antivirals? | Integrase inhibitors |
| Enfuvirtide binds to ______, and prevents viral _________. | gp41; Viral entry |
| Binds to CCR5 on T-cell surface inhibiting the reaction with gp120. | Mechanism of action of MARAVIROC |
| Fusion inhibitor | Enfuvirtide |
| Treatment of HBV positive pregnant mothers | HBIG and recombinant HBV vaccine |
| Azole mechanism of action | Inhibition of the DEMETHYLATION of Lanosterol into Ergosterol. |
| Azoles are CYP450 _________________ | Inhibitors |
| CYP450 inhibitors increase the: | Risk of drug-drug interactions |
| What is the MCC of opportunistic mycosis? | C. albicans infection |
| Failure of neutrophil function or protection in Candidiasis is manifested with the development of: | Disseminated candidemia |
| What 3 common manifestations of T-cell failure to respond to Candida albicans infection? | 1. Oral thrush 2. Vulvovaginal candidiasis 3. Cutaneous candidiasis |
| White plaque on oral mucosa and presence of Positive Germ tubes | Oral thrush by C. albicans |
| Oral thrush in candidiasis is ___________________ removed, and cause bleeding. | Easily |
| C. albicans is at 20 degrees C is a _______________, and at 37 degrees it forms ____________. | Yeast; Germ tubes |
| gp41 blockage prevents the _________________- | FUSION |
| gp120 blockage prevents the ________________ | ENTRY |
| What is a severe condition caused by Parvo B19 in a fetus? | Hydrops fetalis |
| Parvo B19 infection on healthy children causes? | The "Fifth Disease" |
| What is the key characteristic of the Fifth Disease? | "Slapped Cheek" rash |
| What type of patients are in risk of developing Aplastic crisis by a Parvo B19 infection? | Sickle Cell paitents |
| Which is the SMALLEST DNA virus? | Parvovirus |
| Another name for "Fifth Disease"? | Erythema infectiosum |
| What is the largest DNA virus? | Pox virus |
| Where do all DNA viruses replicate? Which is the exception? | All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus, except for Poxviridae |
| Parvo virus is unique to DNA viruses in: | 1. Smallest DNA virus 2. Single stranded (ss) |
| Which 3 DNA virus families have circular genomes? | Papilloma, Polyoma (complete), and Hepad (incomplete) |
| Poxviruses replicate in the _____________________, as they have a ____________________________. | Cytoplasm; DNA-dependent RNA polymerase |
| All segmented viruses are __________ genome. | RNA genome |
| BOAR | Mnemonic for Segmented viruses |
| Which are the segmented viruses? | Bunyavirus, Orthomyxovirus (influenzae), Arenavirus, Reovirus |
| What enzyme is used to transcribe from (-) stranded to (+) stranded RNA virus? | RNA-dependent RNA polymerase |
| Which are the negative stranded viruses? | Arenavirus, Bunyavirus, Paramyxovirus, Orthomyxovirus, Filovirus, and Reovirus |
| Arenavirus, Bunyavirus, Paramyxovirus, Orthomyxovirus, Filovirus, and Reovirus | Negative stranded RNA viruses |
| Bunyavirus, Orthomyxovirus (influenzae), Arenavirus, Reovirus | Segmented Viruses |
| All RNA viruses are single stranded except for: | Reovirus |
| 10-12 segments virus | Reovirus |
| 8 segments RNA virus | Orthomyxovirus |
| Arenavirus has _____ segments | 2 |
| How many segments are in Bunyaviruses? | 3 |
| Coltivirus and Rotavirus are: | Reoviruses |
| Colorado Tick Fever is caused by: | Coltivirus |
| Fatal diarrhea in children | Rotavirus |
| PERCH | Mnemonic of all Picornaviruses |
| What viruses are represented in PERCH, and these pertain to which viral family? | Poliovirus, Echovirus, Rhinovirus, Coxsackievirus, HAV; all are PICORNAVIRUS family. |
| Aseptic meningitis is often caused by: | Echovirus (Picornavirus) |
| Common cold is caused most often by which Picornavirus? | Rhinovirus |
| What is caused by the virus represented by the letter "C" in the PERCH mnemonic? | Coxsackievirus: - Aseptic meningitis, herpangina (mouth blisters, fever); hand, foot, and mouth disease; myocarditis; pericarditis |
| Norovirus is a _________________________, associated to develop ____________________________. | Calicivirus; viral gastroenteritis |
| Which are the medically relevant Togavirus? | Rubella, Chikungunya, and Eastern and Western equine encephalitis. |
| Parainfluenza, RSV, Measles and Mumps | Paramyxoviruses |
| What are the 3 most significant toxicity of Amphotericin B? | 1. Nephrotoxicity --> elevated Cr levels 2. Hypokalemia --> development of cardiac arrhythmias 3. Hypomagnesemia |
| Amphotericin B may bind to __________________ causing human tissue toxicity. | Cholesterol |
| Anemia in patients taking ZDV and thrombophlebitis at injection site | Minor adverse effects of Amphotericin B toxicity |
| Gummas are associated with: | Tertiary syphilis |
| Valvular lesion described as necrotizing granuloma | Gumma |
| Where can gummas present? | Skin mucosa and subcutaneous tissue, bones, and other organs. |
| At what stage is can Neurosyphilis present? | Not stage specific |
| Cardiovascular Syphilis presents with: | Asymptomatic murmur, loud S2, and ascending aortic arch calcification |
| Key feature of second stage of syphilis | Condylomata mata |
| What is seen in 1st stage of syphilis | Chancre |
| What lesion is associated with HPV infection? | Condyloma acuminata |
| What strains of HPV cause development of Condyloma acuminata? | Strains 6 and 8 |
| Anogenital warts | Condyloma acuminata |
| What is meant with "immortalization" of B cells? | Infection with EBV causes B-cell continuous proliferation, leading to the cells transformation and immortalization |
| EBV is a: | oncogenic virus, that promotes polygonal B cell proliferation, and HETEROPHILE antibody production. |
| Absence of the normal immune response to particular antigen or allergen | Anergy |
| Common antibiotic that disrupt the peptidoglycan cell wall of gram positive and gram negative organisms. | Cefuroxime |
| Cefuroxime mechanism action is shared with ________________ and ____________________. | Penicillins and Vancomycin |
| What is the purpose of the Peptidoglycan cell wall? | Provides the organism to survive osmotic stress. |
| What is the most common treatment for genital herpes? | Acyclovir |
| Nucleoside analogue used in treatment of genital herpes? | Acyclovir |
| Treatment of uncomplicated malaria? | Chloroquine |
| Primaquine is added to chloroquine, to eradicate? | P. vivax/ ovale |
| What malaria medication is used in the treatment of P. vivax and P. ovale? | Primaquine |
| Which malarial spps are responsible for RELAPSES? | P. vivax/ovale |
| P. vivax and P. ovale are ________________________, responsible for ______________________. | HYPNOZOITES; Relapses |
| Most common organism that would cause septic arthritis in young, sexually active person? | N. gonorrhea |
| The triad of: Polyarthritis, Vesiculopapular skin rash, and Tenosynovitis, and a STD Hx. Dx? | Septic Arthritis by N. gonorrhoeae |
| Gram negative diplococci | N. gonorrhea |
| How is neonatal tetanus prevented, besides vaccination? | Hygienic delivery and proper umbilical cord care |
| At what age can neonates receive active immunization against Tetanus? | 2 months |
| What is the outer enveloped made of in enveloped viruses? | Lipid bilayer |
| Lipid bilayer may be dissolved with? | Ether and organic solvents |
| What is the result virus' lipid bilayer dissolution? | Loss of infectivity |
| In the HIV replication cycle, which precursor gene is the only one that can be glycosylated? | Env gene |
| The env gene polyprotein is cleaved into: | gp120 and gp41 |
| At which organelle does the cleavage of env gene occurs? | Golgi apparatus |
| gp120 receptors allow the _________________ of virus. | ENTRY |
| gp41 receptors allow the ______________________ of the HIV. | FUSION |
| Common systemic inflammation cytokine? | TNF-a |
| Elevated levels of TNF-a may present with? | Septic shock and cachexia |
| What cell type activates TNF-a? | Macrophages |
| 3 common systemic inflammatory cytokines: | IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-a |
| HBV infected adult diagnosed with acute hepatitis has____________ % chance of complete recovery. | 95% |
| RIPE | Mnemonic sued to list drugs used in TB treatment |
| Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyramizamine, and Ethambutol | RIPE; Medications for TB infection. |
| What drug exhibits inhibition of bacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase? | Rifampin |
| Rifampin side effects? | GI symptoms, rash, RED-ORANGE body fluids, and cytopenias |
| Neurotoxicity prevented with Pyridoxine | Isoniazid |
| Which TB medication inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acids? | Isoniazid |
| Isoniazid MoA? | Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis |
| Hepatotoxicity and Hyperuricemia is often seen in TB patients treated with ____________________. | Pyrazinamide |
| Which TB drug acts by inhibiting arabinosyl transferase? | Ethambutol |
| What is the main adverse effect associated with Ethambutol? | Optic Neuropathy (Red-green vision) |
| Patient with night sweats and persistent cough, is treated with new medication. Few weeks later patient complains of Red-green vision deficit. Most commonly treated with? | Ethambutol |
| Burning sensation of feet in patients in TB treatment | Toxicity by Isoniazid |
| What ribosomal subunit is inhibited in protein synthesis by aminoglycosides? | 30S |
| Which organisms commonly require contact precautions? | MRSA, VRE, and C. difficile |
| What is included in Contact Precautions? | Hand hygiene, Non-sterile gloves, gown, and private room. |
| Exchange of DNA material by a Plasmid | Plasmid Conjugation |
| What type of antibiotics often develop resistance by plasmid conjugation? | Extended-Spectrum B-lactamases (ESBL) |
| F+ cell means? | Cell with F plasmid inside |
| During conjugation, the plasmid travels from _______ to ______ cell. | F+ to F- |
| Transpeptidases | Penicillin-binding proteins (PBP) |
| PBP and cephalosporins bind _________________________. | Irreversibly |
| Gene mutations, resulting in PBP structural changes, leads to__________________________. | Drug resistance |
| Infection by Parvo B19 in healthy children, results in? | Fifth Disease |
| Parvovirus is highly trophic for ____________ precursor. | Erythoid |
| Where is Parvovirus usually replicated? | Bone marrow |
| Essential protein for IL-2 activation? | Calcineurin |
| What are 2 immunosuppressants that inhibit calcineurin? | Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus |
| Example of underdeveloped ss-RNA virus | Hepatitis E virus |
| What population is in fatal risk of Hepatitis E infection? | Pregnant women |
| Novobiocin sensitive | S. epidermidis |
| Staph epidermidis | Catalase +, Coagulase (-), and Novobiocin sensitive |
| Novobiocin resistant | S. saprophyticus |
| S. saprophyticus | Catalase +, Coagulase (-), and Novobiocin resistant |
| What antibiotic difference is used to distinguish between S. saprophyticus and S. epidermidis? | S. epidermidis is Novobiocin sensitive, and S. saprophyticus is Novobiocin resistant. |
| What kind of hemolysis is found in Staph aureus? | Beta-hemolysis |
| UTI i sexually active young women | S. saprophyticus |
| Common organism causing diseases in patients with prosthetics? | S. epidermidis |
| Production of adherent BIOFILMS | S. epidermidis |
| Difference in fermentation between S. aureus and S. epidermidis? | S. epidermidis does NOT ferment MANNITOL |
| S. Epidermidis is: | Catalase +, Coagulase (-), Novobiocin sensitive, and urease (+). |
| Patient developing bacterial endocarditis after a hip implant or Heart valve replacement, suspect organism? | S. epidermidis |
| What is the MCC of uncomplicated UTI? the second? | 1. E. coli (MC) 2. S. saprophyticus |
| Where is S. saprophyticus found in normal human flora? | Female genital tract and perineum |
| B-hemolytic bacteria (3): | 1. S. aureus 2. Strep pyogenes 3. Strep agalactiae |
| Complete lysis of RBCs | Beta-Hemolysis |
| Vancomycin directly binds to: | D-ala-D-ala |
| Red man syndrome | Adverse effect of Vancomycin |
| Gram (+) organism only | Vancomycin |
| Oral dose of _____________________ is used to treat pseudomembranous colitis. | Vancomycin |
| What is the mode of resistance of Vancomycin? | amino acid transformation of D-ala-D-ala, into D-ala-D-lac. |
| D-ala-D-lac | Transformation in amino acid leading to Vancomycin resistance |
| Dress syndrome is seen with what interaction? | Vancomycin and Eosinophilia, leading to systemic symptoms |
| How is Red Man syndrome prevented? | 1. Pretreatment with Antihistamines 2. Slow infusion rate |
| Adverse effects of Vancomycin? | 1. Nephrotoxicity 2. Ototoxicity 3. Thrombophlebitis 4. Diffuse flushing -----> Red Man syndrome |
| Common bacteria that predisposes Vancomycin acquired resistance? | Enterococcus |
| Where does HBV replication occurs? | On the newly synthesized capsid |
| What is the purpose and composition of HBV capsid? | Site of HBV replication. It contains: 1. Reverse transcriptase (RT) which is a RNA and DNA-dependent DNA polymerase |
| RNA & DNA-dependent DNA-polymerase | Reverse transcriptase found on HBV |
| Common organism of Perianal disease in children? | Enterobius vermicularis |
| What is the treatment for Perianal disease caused by E. vermicularis? | Albendazole with Pyrantel Pamoate |
| Albendazole with Pyrantel Pamoate is used for infection by? | Enterobius vermicularis |
| Diagnosis is done via test tape? | Perianal disease by E. vermicularis |
| Pinworm | Enterobius vermicularis |
| Pinworm infection MC causes? | Perianal pruritus |
| Organism responsible for Roseola infantum | HSV-6 |
| 3-5 days of fever, followed by a BLANCHING maculopapular rash in the truck first, which then spreads to the face and extremities. | Roseola Infantum by HSV-6 infection |
| Mode of Transmission of HSV-6 | Saliva |
| Another, less common name for Roseola infantum? | Exanthem subitum |
| HSV-6 causes a diffuse maculopapular rash, and may cause _______________ in severe cases after days of severe FEVER. | Seizures |
| Roseola infantum is more commonly cause by __________ than with ________. | HSV-6 >>>>>>HSV-7 |
| HSV-8 | Cause of Kaposi Sarcoma in HIV patients. Transmitted via sexual contact. |
| HSV-8 may infect or damage which tissues/organs? | Kaposi Sarcoma can affect the Skin> GI tract and Lungs |
| Negative monospot Test | CMV infection (HSV-5) |
| Positive monopost Test | EBV infection (HSV-4) |
| Fever, hepatosplenomegaly, pharyngitis and lymphadenopathy of the Posterior cervical nodes | Mononucleosis |
| What two organisms are causative of Mononucleosis? | EBV and CMV |
| Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy | Lymph nodes commonly affected by Mononucleosis |
| EBV is associated with: | 1. Burkitt Lymphoma 2. Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma (mostly in Asian adults) 3. Lymphoproliferative disease in transplant patients |
| EBV infects ____ cells thought CD____. | B-cells; CD21 |
| Why patients with EBV infection are discourage to practice contact sports? | Risk of splenic rupture |
| Positive Monospot Test is seen with? | Seen with EBV infection. |
| Heterophile antibodies detected by agglutination of sheep or horse RBCs | Positive (+) Monospot Test |
| Which drug may cause a rash as it is used for the treatment of EBV Mononucleosis? | Amoxicillin |
| "Kissing Disease" | EBV (HSV4) Monucleosis |
| What is a characteristic description of infected CMV cells? | "Owl eye" intranuclear inclusions |
| CMV infection in AIDS patients often results in: | CMV retinitis |
| CMV retinitis of AIDS patient has what fundoscopic findings? | Hemorrhage, cotton-wool exudates, and vision loss. |
| Cotton-wool exudates in AIDS patients often indicate? | CMV infection causing retinitis |
| Organism causing Mononucleosis with a (-) Monospot Test? | CMV |
| Gingivostomatitis, keratoconjunctivitis, herpes labialis, herpetic whitlow on finger, temporal lobe encephalitis, esophagitis and erythema multiforme, are all caused by? | HSV-1 |
| Latent in trigeminal ganglia | HSV-1 |
| Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis | HSV-1 |
| Latent in sacral ganglia | HSV-2 |
| HSV-1 is latent in ________________ ganglia, and HSV-2 is latent in _________________ ganglia. | HSV-1 ----- Trigeminal HSV-2 ------ Sacral |
| Which is a more common cause of Viral meningitis, HSV-1 or HSV-2? | HSV-2 |
| Herpes genitalis seen with HSV______ infection | HSV-2 |
| HHV-3 (Herpes 3) is known as? | Varicella-Zoster virus |
| Where is VZV latent ganglia? | Dorsal root and Trigeminal ganglia. |
| What are common clinical presentations of VZV? | Varicella-zoster (chickenpox, shingles), encephalitis, and pneumonia |
| Chickenpox is caused by infection with? | Varicella-Zoster virus |
| WHat is the MC complication of Shingles? | Post-herpetic neuralgia |
| Infection with VZV to which cranial nerve can cause herpes zoster ophthalmicus? | CN V1 |
| Which of the nephron is affected the most by adverse effects of Amphotericin B? | Distal tubule epithelium |
| The nephrotoxicity seen with use of Amphotericin B causes? | 1. Anemia due to decrease in EPO synthesis 2. Electrolyte imbalances (Hypokalemia and Hypomagnesemia) |
| What is the MC presentation of Hepatitis A infection in children? | Asymptomatic or Aneric |
| In adults HAV infection is self-limited, but while symptomatic it presents with a clinical profile described as? | Jaundice, malaise, fatigue, ANOREXIA, nauras, vomit ,and RU! pain, with aversion to smoking. |
| AVERSION to smoking is seen or associated with? | HAV infection |
| Hepatitis A Virus: | 1. NO carrier state 2. Self-limited infection 3. NO risk chronic disease, cirrhosis or HCC |
| Common opportunist infections in HIV patients | PCP, Toxoplasma gondii, and Mycobacterium Avium complex (MAC) |
| What is the Prophylaxis of both, PCP and Toxoplasma gondii infections, in HIV patients? | TMP-SMX |
| What antibiotics is used as prophylaxis for MAC infection in HIV? | Azithromycin |
| PCP often is developed in HIV patient as the CD4+ count reaches? | CD4+ < 200 |
| What infection is seen in HIV patient with a CD4+ < 100? CD4+<50) | Toxoplasma gondii; MAC |
| MAC infection presentation is very similar to which other type of infection profile? | TB disease profile |
| Granulomas with foamy epithelioid cells and Langerhans Multinucleated cells are seen in ? | MAC infections |
| Facultative, intracellular gram (+) rod, which produces very narrow B-hemolysis? | Listeria monocytogenes |
| Tumbling motility in Listeria is seen at ________________ temperature, and it shows growth in ________________ temperature. | Room temperature; Refrigerated temperature |
| Commonly mentioned bacteria that grows in refrigerated temperatures. | Listeria monocytogenes |
| Spontaneous abortion in woman is often caused by? | Listeria monocytogenes |
| What is the MC treatment for Listeria monocytogenes? | Ampicillin |
| "cold enrichment" often used to describe growth of __________________________. | Listeria monocytogenes |
| Intracellular fungi | 1. Cryptococcus neoformans 2. Histoplasma capsulatum |
| Intracellular protozoa | 1. Cryptosporidium 2. Leishmania 3. Plasmodium 4. Toxoplasma 5. Trypanosoma |
| Common intracellular bacteria? | Chlamydia, Francisella Tularensis, Legionella, Listeria monocytogenes, Mycobacterium, Neisseria, Nocardia, Rickettsia, Salmonella, and Yersinia pestis |
| Chlamydia, Francisella Tularensis, Legionella, Listeria monocytogenes, Mycobacterium, Neisseria, Nocardia, Rickettsia, Salmonella, and Yersinia pestis | Intracellular bacteria |
| Chlamydia, Neisseria, Rickettsia all are ______________________ bacteria. | Intracellular |
| Salmonella is considered an ______________________ bacteria, and Shigella is not. | Intracellular |
| CXR - bilateral, ground glass opacities, with pneumatoceles | PCP |
| Disc-shaped yeast seen on methenamine silver stain of lung tissue | PCP |
| Dapsone in PCP is used as _________________________________. | Prophylaxis only |
| Common diffuse interstitial pneumonia seen in HIV patients | PCP |
| Most common (organism) cause of pneumonia in HIV patient | PCP by Pneumocystis jirovecii |
| BIOFILM synthesis | S. epidermidis |
| Role of Biofilm in infection? | Barrier antibiotic penetration and interferes with host defenses, including opsonization , neutrophil migration, and even T-cell activation. |
| Herpes simplex 1, 2, and 3 are ________________________ by a _______________________, which differs in ____________ to HSV-4 and HSV-5. | Phosphorylated; Tyrosine Kinase; Rate (of phosphorylation) |
| Which TK is slower to phophorylize, HSV1-3, or HVS 4-5? | HSV-4 and HSV-5 Tyrosine kinases has a slower phosphorylation rate. |
| E. coli virulence factors: | Liposaccharide, K1 capsular Polysaccharide, Verotoxin, LT-stable and ST-stable enterotoxins, P-fimbriae |
| LPS found on E. coli causes which conditions? | Bacteremia and Septic Shock |
| Mechanism of Action seen in LPS of E. coli | Macrophage activation cause widespread release of IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-a |
| Prevents phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis, is the mechanism of action of? | K1 capsular polysaccharide virulence factor of E. coli |
| E. coli's virulence factor that inactivates 60S ribosomal component, halting protein synthesis and causing cell death? | Verotoxin |
| Verotoxin causes ___________________________ in E. coli infection | Bloody gastroenteritis |
| E. coli neonatal meningitis is facilitated by ___________________ virulence factor. | K1 capsular polysaccharide |
| Watery gastroenteritis is associated with which E. coli virulence factors? | Heat-stable/Heat-labile enterotoxins |
| Promotion of fluid and electrolyte secretion form interstitial epithelium, causing watery diarrhea in E. coli infection | Heat-stable/Heat-labile enterotoxins |
| Which virulence factor is associated by developing of E.coli UTI? | P-fimbriae |
| P-fimbriae mechanism of action | Allow adhesion to uroepithelium |
| Vesicular or ulcerative disease following a primary infection with HSV-1. | Herpetic Gingivostomatitis |
| What structures are affected by HSV-1 gingivostomatitis? | Gingiva, tongue, and palate |
| Reactivation of _______________________ is seen in herpetic stomatitis by HSV_____. | Trigeminal ganglia; HSV-1. |
| Perioral vesicles | HSV-1 Herpetic Gingivostomatitis |
| Thin, septate hyphae with acute V-shaped angle branching | Aspergillus fumigatus |
| MCC of Invasive aspergillosis and Aspergilloma? | Aspergillus fumigatus |
| Histological view of a organism with a 45-degree angle branching and septate hyphae | Aspergillus fumigatus |
| Gram (-) rods that can ferment Lactose include: | Klebsiella, E. coli, Enterobacter, Citrobacter, and Serratia |
| Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram ______ rod, lactose ______________, and with a _____________ oxidase test. | Gram (-) rod; Lactose Nonfermenter; Positive Oxidase test |
| Gram negative bacteria, with oxidase negative and positive TSI agar test? | Stain black color; Salmonella, Proteus, and Yersinia |
| Shigella is a: | Gram (-) rod, negative oxidase and negative on TSI agar (Non-sulfur producer) |
| Which cells are affected by a Shigella infection? | Mucosal invasion of the M-cells that overlie the Peyer's Patches |
| M-cells are located in the _______________________. | Peyer's patches |
| How does shigella evades the immune system? | Escapes phagosome and spreads laterally to other epithelial cells via actin polymerization |
| Actin polymerization helps Shigella in: | Spreading laterally to other epithelial cells |
| M-cells: | specialized epithelial cells of the mucosa-associated lymph nodes, that transport antigens from lumen to immune cell, thereby initiating response. |
| Candida albicans pose a greater risk of infection to ____________ patients. | Neutropenic |
| Oropharyngeal lesions, that can easily be scrapped off and cause severe bleeding, are usually caused by ______________________. | Candida albicans |
| Oropharyngeal lesions that cannot be scrapped off easily are seen in _______________. | Leukoplakia |
| How does the diphtheria toxin acquires it virulence? | Bacteriophage-mediated infection with the Tox gene. |
| What is Lysogenization? | Virulence aquirence via bacteriophage. |
| What type of Transduction uses a lysogenic phage? | Specialized transduction |
| A virus infects a bacteria | Specialized transduction |
| An "excision" event | Specialized transduction |
| Which bacterial toxins are encoded by a Lysogenic phage? | Group A strep erythrogenic toxin, Botulinum toxin, Cholera toxin, Diphtheria toxin, and Shiga toxin |
| Mnemonic to remember the 5 Lysogenic encoded bacteria | ABCD'S |
| ABCD'S | Group A strep erythrogenic toxin, Botulinum toxin, Cholera toxin, Diphtheria toxin, and Shiga toxin |
| Packaging "error"describes | Generalized Transduction; use of Lytic phage |
| Lytic phage infects bacteria leading to cleavage of bacterial DNA | Lytic phage Transduction |
| Parts of bacterial DNA becomes packaged into capsid, which then goes and infect another bacterium | Lytic phage Transduction |
| The incorporation of viral DNA into bacterial chromosome is the mechanism of action seen in? | Lysogenic phage Transduction or Specialized Transduction |
| Tenofovir causes damage to the _________________ tubule of the kidney, leadon to nephrotoxicity. | Proximal |
| Which NRTI is recognized to cause nephrotoxicity due to damage to the Proximal Tubule of the kidney? | Tenofovir |
| Neurocysticercosis is caused by ______________________________. | T. solium |
| Common name for Taenia solium | Pork tapeworm |
| What is the incubation period for T. solium? | Months to years |
| Neurocysticercosis is seen clinically with: | Seizures, focal neurologic symptoms, and intracranial HTN |
| What is the primary treatment for T. solium infection? | Albendazole |
| How is Dx of T. solium infection (pork tapeworm) done? | CT/MRI shows cyst and scolex |
| Anterior end of a tapeworm | Scolex |
| Multiple ring enhancing lesions on CT/MRI of head are associated with an infection with? | Toxoplasma gondii |
| Defective CD40L-CD40 interaction | Hyper - IgM Syndrome |
| What is the MCC of Hyper IgM syndrome? | Absence of CD40 Ligand |
| Elevated IgM and decreased IgA and IgE levels are seen in | Hyper - IgM Syndrome |
| What antibiotic is used in as prophylaxis for Neisseria meningitidis? | Rifampin |
| The M-protein is found in _____________________, and it has a structural homology to _____________________ and _________________. | Strep pyogenes; Tropomyosin and Myosin |
| Inhibition of mycolic acids is seen in: | Isoniazid |
| What are the 2 main organisms that cause Non Bullous impetigo? | Staph aureus and Strep pyogenes |
| Painful, non-itchy pustules and honey-crusted lesions, describe? | Impetigo |
| What is a common complication of poorly treated impetigo? | PSGN seen with facial edema, and dark colored urine, HTN, and Hematuria |
| What organism causes Q-fever? | Coxiella burnetii |
| Coxiella burnetii infection causes? | Q-fever |
| Fatigue, myalgias, and fever over (>) ten days, and retro orbital headache. Dx? | Q-fever |
| How is the leukocyte count seen in Q-fever? | Normal |
| Farmers with prolonged fever and heachache behind the eye. Dx? | Q-fever |
| Q-fever is commonly seen in? | Farmers working with waste product of cattle and sheep. |
| Borrelia burgdorferi | Lyme Disease |
| Relapsing fever is caused by: | Borrelia recurrentis |
| What organism causes Undulant fever? | Brucella spps |
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