Busy. Please wait.
or

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
or

Username is available taken
show password

why


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
We do not share your email address with others. It is only used to allow you to reset your password. For details read our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.


Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
Don't know
Know
remaining cards
Save
0:01
To flip the current card, click it or press the Spacebar key.  To move the current card to one of the three colored boxes, click on the box.  You may also press the UP ARROW key to move the card to the "Know" box, the DOWN ARROW key to move the card to the "Don't know" box, or the RIGHT ARROW key to move the card to the Remaining box.  You may also click on the card displayed in any of the three boxes to bring that card back to the center.

Pass complete!

"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards
share
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

Immunology 1.1

UWORLD Immunology Review

QuestionAnswer
How does IL-2 work on T-Helper Cell? Proliferation and Differentiation
The action of IL-2 on B-cell stimulates cell ________________. Division
CD4 and CD8 T cells are aided by ________ for growth and _______ secretion. IL-2; INF-gamma
What cytokine is used in the activation of Monocytes and NK cells? IL-2
Tetanospasmin toxin prevents the release of? Toxin blocks the INHIBITORY NT in the spinal cord and leads to tonic muscular contraction.
What type of vaccine is used in the prevention of Tetanus? INACTIVATED toxoid that triggers antitoxin antibodies.
Inactivated vaccine induces what type of immunity? Active Immunity.
What is the purpose of antibodies produced by inactivated vaccine? NEUTRALIZE bacterial products
IgA immune complex mediated vasculitis, usually after an upper respiratory infection, with palpable purpura in legs, and athralgias. Dx? Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
What is an GI complication of the small bowel in HSP? Intussusceptions
HSP is what type of Hypersensitivity reaction? Type 3 Hypersensitivity
SCID Severe Combined Immunodeficiency
T-cell and B-cell dysfunction due to ABSENT T-cells. Dx? SCID
Inheritance patterns of SCID: 1. X-linked recessive; 2. Autosomal recessive
What is the common clinical presentation of SCID? Recurrence of viral, fungus, or opportunistic infection, failure to thrive, and chronic diarrhea.
Patient with extensive Hx of recurrent viral infections, Pneumocystis, and chronic diarrhea. Suspected Dx? SCID
Treatment of SCID Stem cell transplant
Type 4 Hypersensitivity reaction Candida Antigen Skin test
Feature that is associated with Candida Skin test in SCID patients ANERGY
What is anergy? Failure to respond to Candida Antigen Skin test in SCID patients
What is the purpose of the Ubiquitin Proteasome Pathway? Identify protein substances tagged with Ubiquitin tag, by the use of Ubiquitin Ligases, for eventual destruction.
Proteins ID by Ubiquitin are paired with ____________ in the __________________, and then finally presented to CD_______ cells. MCH 1; Endoplasmic Reticulum; CD8+
What is defective in Hyper-IgM syndrome? Class Switching due to CD40L-CD40 defective interaction
Defective CD40 Ligand and CD40 interaction lead to the development of what immunologic condition? Hyper-IgM Syndrome
Hyper-Ig____ Syndrome is due to the defective interaction between the CD_____ Ligand and the _______________. M: 40; CD40
What is the MC inheritance pattern of Hyper-IgM Syndrome? X-linked Recessive
What are the most significant lab results in Hyper-IgM Syndrome? 1. Increased IgM 2. Decreased IgA, IgE, and IgG 3. Flow cytometry has absent CD40 on CD4+ T cells
Capsular Polysaccharide Conjugated protein vaccine: 1. Conjugation causes T-cell immune response 2. Leads to LONG-term immunity 3. Production of MEMORY B-lymphocytes
Common Polysaccharide conjugated protein vaccine: Hib vaccine
Eosinophils have a role in the host defense against __________________________ infections. Parasitic
Eosinophil's role in Parasitic defense, is due to: antibodies create an "antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity.
Th2 activity is relative to: Th1 activity
The activity relation Th2 activity dependant on Th1 activity may be the underlying pathogenesis of __________________. Asthma
The sensitization phase of Asthma causes the Th2 cells to secrete: IL-4 and IL-13.
IL-4 and IL-13 from Th2 cells during the sensitization phase of asthma causes? Promotion of B-cell CLASS SWITCHING for IgE synthesis, which leads to MAST cell priming.
What interleukin causes the activation of Eosinophils? IL-5
Essential protein in the ACTIVATION of IL-2? Calcineurin
What two common immunosuppressants inhibit Calcineurin? Cyclosporine and Tacrolimus
Calcineurin activates ________, while ______________________ and ___________________ inhibit Calcineurin. IL-2; Cyclosporine; Tacrolimus
What is E-cadherin? Transmembrane protein, involved in Epithelial cell adhesion
Where does Isotype Switching occurs? Germinal centers of Lymph Nodes
What is the required interaction for class switching to occur? CD40 Ligand - CD40 on the B-cells
IgM is produced by? Induces? Produced by Plasma cells inducing Primary immune response
_______ is the main immunoglobulin of _______________________ immune response. IgG; Secondary
To what do SUPERANTIGENS interact and respond? Interact with MHC molecules on APCs and the VARIABLE region of T-cell receptor.
What do the interaction of Superantigens and MHC molecules provoke? Non-specific, severe widespread activation of T-cells
The widespread activation of T-cells in Superantigen-MHC molecule interaction, releases: 1. IL-2 --> from the T-cells 2. IL-1 and TNF from the macrophages.
Mast cell and Basophil degranulation Anaphylaxis
The release of Preformed inflammatory mediators, Histamine and Tryptase, is seen in: Anaphylaxis
What two substances are secreted in Mast and Basophil degranulation seen anaphylaxis? Tryptase and Histamine
What inflammatory mediator is specific for Mast cells? Tryptase
On what cells is the FcERI found? Mast cells and Basophils
FcERI normally binds to ____________________ of circulating ______ antibodies. Fc portion; IgE
The FcERI - antibodies cross link with antigens causing the release of: Tryptase and Histamine
Anaphylaxis during transfusion may be an indicator or is associated with: Selective IgA deficiency
Selective IgA deficiency is seen with: Recurrent sinopulmonary and GI infection, autoimmune disorders and anaphylaxis during transfusions
What causes the anaphylaxis seen in Selective IgA deficiency in patients having blood transfusions? The transfused blood may contain IgA contents.
What is the cause of Hereditary Angioedema? C1 inhibitor deficiency
CD14 marker is seen in: monocyte-macrophage cell linage.
What marker is found in the periphery of an caseating granuloma caused by TB infection? CD14
Sarcoidosis has Non-caseating granulomas
Tuberculosis produces ___________________- granulomas, while Sarcoidosis produces _________________________-granulomas. Caseating; Non-Caseating
What important receptor is involved in Apoptosis? Fas receptor
Fas receptor acts to activate the ________________________ pathway of _____________________________. Extrinsic; Apoptosis
A mutation to Fas-receptor or Fas-Ligand prevent _______________ of ____________ ___________, leading to increase risk of _______________ disorders such as SLE. Apoptosis; Autoimmune lymphocytes; Autoimmune disorders
Mucocutaneous candidiasis + chronic diarrhea in an infant with recurrent viral, fungal and bacterial infections. Dx? SCID
NADPH oxidase mutation Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)
CGD is an: X-linked mutation causing a defective NADPH oxidase
NADPH oxidase deficiency causes CGD, which causes: Inability of NEUTROPHILS to form the OXIDATIVE BURST necessary to destroy PHAGOLYSOSOMES.
Patients with Chronic Granulomatous disease have increase susceptibility to what kind of organisms? Catalase positive organisms
What are the Catalase Positive organisms? Listeria, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, BURKHOLDERIA cepacia, Nocardia, Enterobacter family (Enterobacter, Yersinia, Shigella, E. coli, Salmonella, Serratia), Pseudomonas, M. Tuberculosis
Nocardia, Pseudomonas, Listeria, Aspergillus, Nocardia, E. coli, Staphylococcus, Serratia, Burkholderia cepacia, H. pylori Catalase + organisms
What are the Urease + organisms? Proteus, Cryptococcus, H. pylori, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Klebsiella, S. epidermidis, and S. saprophyticus
Please SHINE SKiS Encapsulated organisms mnemonic
Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Streptococcus pneumoniae, H. influenzae type B, Neisseria meningitis, E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella pneumonae, and group B Strep Encapsulated organisms
What are the most common Encapsulated Vaccines: 1. Pneumococcal vaccines 2. H. Influenza type b vaccine 3. Meningococcal vaccine
Negative BLUE on NTZ test --> Chronic Granulomatous Disease
Negative GREEN on Dihydro Formaldehyde test indicates Chronic Granulomatous Disease
What signaling pathway is affected in Disseminated Mycobacterial Disease in childhood? Interferon-gamma (INF-g) Signaling Pathway
What interferons are produced by human cell upon detection of viral infections? INF-a and INF-B
Increased production of INF-a and INF-B leads to: a halt in protein synthesis and promotion of Apoptosis of infected cells.
What is the final step in Leukocyte Adhesion? Transmigration
What happens during Transmigration in the process of Leukocyte adhesion? WBC goes OUT of vasculature by SQUEEZING between cells via INTEGRIN attachments and adherence to PECAM-1
Important protein involved in Transmigration of the Leukocyte adhesion process? PECAM -1
Sirolimus inhibitory effect is to prevent the formation of: mTOR
Where in the cell does Sirolimus work? Cytoplasm
The inhibition of __________ signaling, blocks ________ signal transduction and prevents cell cycle progression and lymphocyte proliferation. mTOR; IL-2
Which cytokine is blocked or inhibited with Sirolimus? IL-2
What is the most common cause of Epiglottitis? H. Influenza type B infection in those not immunized.
What is the common presentation of Epiglottitis? Rapidly progressive fever, severe sore throat, droolin and progressive airway obstruction , and usually associated with stridor.
What is a key X-ray sign in Epiglottitis? Thumb sign
What is bronchiolitis Obliterans? The progressive scarring of the small airways of the lungs, usually after a Lung transplant
Disorder of the Neutrophil phagosome lysosome defective fusion? Chediak-Higashi Disease
What is the MC clinical manifestation of Chediak-Higashi disease? Neurological abnormalities, partial ALBINISM, and immunodeficiency caused by defective neutrophil function.
Opsonization: the process of coating a protein in order to signal it and thus, enhancing phagocytosis
What are the 2 most common opsonins? IgG and complement C3b
What is the main function of C5a? enhance phagocytosis by macrophages
What is a secondary function of C5a? Neutrophil chemotactic
Triad of Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome: 1. Eczema 2. Thrombocytopenia 3. Combined B- and T-cell deficiency
To which kind of infections those with WAS are more susceptible? Encapsulated Organism
At what age, is it most commonly to present with WAS? 6-12 months of age
The antibodies detected in Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) are directed to: Joins
What is the Rheumatoid Factor? IgM antibody specific for Fc Complement of IgG
The infiltration CD____ in RA secrete cytokines that promote inflammatory _________________________. CD4+; Synovitis
B cells in RA produce: 1. Rheumatoid Factor 2. anti-citrullinated protein antibody.
What CDs is/are expressed in Immature T-cells? CD4+ and CD8+
Where are Immature T-cell found? Thymic cortex
Where do Positive Selection occurs? Thymic Cortex
Where do Negative Selection occurs? Thymic Medulla
In the Thymic ___________________ Positive selection occurs, and at the Thymic ______________________ is where ____________________ selection occurs. Cortex; Medulla: Negative
Which Immunoglobulin is involved in Type 1 Hypersensitive reactions? IgE
What cells are involved in Type 1 Hypersensitive reaction? Mast cells and Basophils
What examples of Hypersensitive reactions of type 1? Anaphylaxis and Allergies
Cytotoxic Hypersentive reaction referst to: Type 2 HS reaction
What Igs are involved in Hypersensitivity Reactions type 2? IgG and IgM
Besides IgG and IgM, what else present/activated in Hypersensitive reaction 2? Complement Activation
What cells are involved in Type 2 Hypersensitive Reactions? 1. Natural Killer cells 2. Eosinophils 3. Neutrophils 4. Macrophages
Goodpasture Syndrome and Autoimmune Hemolytic anemia, are examples of? Type 2 Hypersensitive Reactions
Antibody-Antigen complex is referred as autoimmune complex in what type of Hypersensitive reactions? Type 3
Deposition of Ab-Ag complex refers to the pathologic mechanism of action of: Type 3 Hypersensitive reactions
What cell is involved in Type 3 Hypersensitive reactions? Neutrophils
What are some examples of Hypersensitive reactions 3? Serum Sickness, PSGN, and Lupus nephritis
T-cells and macrophages are involved in what type of Hypersensitivity? Type 4 (Delayed)
What are 2 common examples of Delayed hypersensitivity? Contact Dermatitis and Tuberculin Test
Serum Sickness is what type of Hypersensitivity? Type 3
What is Serum Sickness? Hypersensitive reaction to NON-Human proteins
Clinical presentation of Serum Sickness? Vasculitis resulting from deposition of circulating immune complexes. Seen with Pruritic Skin Rash, Arthralgias, adn Low serum C3 and C4 complement levels.
Low level of C3 and C4 are seen in: Serum Sickness
Serum sickness is usually seen after the administration of Chimeric monoclonal antibodies such as _____________________ and _________________. Rituximab; Infliximab
What are non-human immunoglobulins: Venom antitoxins
The B-cells are found in which part of the lymph node? In the follicles, which are part of the Cortex
The primary follicles Contain dormant and dense B-cells
The secondary follicles Have the pale germinal centers and are active.
Which type of follicle is the one active? Secondary Follicles
The T-cells are to be found in which part of the Lymph node? Paracortex
In relation to the medulla and cortex, where is the Paracortex? Is the area in between the Medulla and Cortex of the Lymph node.
An extreme viral infection tends to severely enlarge the ___________________ region of the lymph node. Paracortex
High content of endothelial venules and area that allows T-cells and B-cells to enter blood: Paracortex
Which area of the lymph node is undeveloped in Di George Syndrome? Paracortex
What condition or disease is developed by an underdevelopment of the Paracortex? Di George Syndrome
Where are dendritic cells found in the lymph node? Paracortex
Macrophages and Plasma cells are found in the _________________ of the lymph node, arranged in _________________. Medulla; Cords
Cervical lymph node cluster involvement is associated with which pathologies? 1. Upper Respiratory Infections 2. Infectious Mononucleosis 3. Kawasaki Disease
Primary lung cancer and Granulomatous disease most commonly involve which lymphatic node cluster? Mediastinal
The hilar lymph node cluster drains the ___________________ and most often associated with ____________________________. Lungs; Granulomatous disease
Mastitis and Breast cancer metastasis MC involve which lymphatic cluster? Axillary
Metastasis of breast cancer is seen in the __________________ lymph node cluster. Axillary
The abdominal and GI organs are drained by which 3 lymphatic node clusters? Celiac, Superior Mesenteric and Inferior Mesenteric.
The celiac lymph nodes drain what organs? Liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas and upper duodenum
The lower duodenum, jejunum, ileum and colon to splenic flexure are drained by _____________________________ lymph node cluster. Superior Mesenteric
The inferior mesenteric lymph node cluster drains the ___________ from the ___________________ to the ___________________. Colon; Splenic Flexure; UPPER rectum.
What drains the Upper Rectum lymph? Inferior mesenteric
What lymph cluster drains the lower rectum? Internal iliac
What conditions are associated with involvement of either of Celiac, Superior Mesenteric, and Inferior Mesenteric lymph node clusters? 1. Mesenteric Lymphadenitis 2. Typhoid Fever 3. Ulcerative Colitis 4. Celiac Disease
The _________________________ lymph node cluster drains the _____________________________, and is mostly associated with metastasis. Para-Aortic : Testes, ovaries, kidney, and Uterus
Testicular cancer will show metastasis through which lymph node initially? Para-aortic lymph node cluster
Which lymph drainage structure is shared by the Testes and Ovaries and Uterus? Para-aortic lymph node cluster
The kidney lymph drainage is done by the? Para-aortic lymph node cluster
Sexually transmitter diseases involve which lymph node cluster? The INTERNAL ILIAC and the SUPERFICIAL INGUINAL
What structures are drained by the INTERNAL ILIAC lymph node? 1. Lower rectum to anal canal (above pectinate line) 2. Bladder 3. Middle third of vagina 4. Cervix 5. Prostate
75 yo male treated with Finasteride will show metastases of common malignancy in which lymph node drainage? Internal Iliac
Internal Hemorrhoids involve which lymph node drainage cluster? Internal Iliac
External Hemorrhoids involved the ____________________________ lymph node drainage point. Superficial Inguinal
Superficial Inguinal Lymph cluster = ____________________ hemorrhoids. Internal Hemorrhoids involve the = _____________________ lymph node cluster. Superficial Inguinal ; Internal Iliact
The anal canal below the pectinate line lymph fluid is drained by: Superficial Inguinal
The skin below the umbilicus, except for the _________________ area, vulva, and scrotum are lymph drained by the ________________ lymph node cluster Superficial Inguinal
Popliteal lymph node involvement often indicates which conditions? Foot or leg cellulitis
What areas of the lower extremity are drained by the Popliteal lymph node? Dorsolateral foot and the Posterior calf.
Drains right side of body above diaphragm into junction of right Subclavian vein and internal jugular vein? Right Lymphatic Duct
Most common cause of chylothorax? Rupture of the Thoracic Duct
Lymph drainage of everything into junction of left subclavian and internal jugular veins. Thoracic Duct
Damage to the Thoracic duct causes: Chylothorax
Oral (Sabin) Poliovirus Vaccine Live-attenuated Vaccine
In comparison to Salk Vaccine, the Sabin Vaccine produces a: 1. Stronger mucosal secretory IgA immune response, and thus provides better protection for epithelial invasion by the Polyovirus
In M. TB, the CD____ T-cells release _______________, which in turn activate ______________________ and improve the differentiation into epitheloid ______________________. CD4+; INF-g; macrophages; histiocytes
The combination of which two cell types is found in a caseating granuloma? Histiocytes and Horse-shoe multinucleated Langerhan Giant cells.
Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn is seen MC in: Maternal sensitization to Rh Antigens during prior pregnancy with an Rh(D)+ fetus.
In Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn, the first baby was: Rh(D) +
In Hemolytic Disease of the New born, during the first pregnancy the mother produces Ig_____ anti-Rh(D) antibodies, which _________________ cross the placenta. IgM; Cannot
A mother that has developed anti-Rh(D) antibodies during the first pregnancy, now has developed Ig____ form of the antibody, which ________ cross the placenta and cause ____________________. IgG ; Can ; Hydrops Fetalis
X-linked recessive disorder, characterized by low/absent CD19+ and CD20+ cells? Agammaglobulinemia
What cells stain + for CD19 and C20? B-cells.
Panhypogammaglobulinemia is seen in: Agammaglobulinemia
Patients with Agammaglobulinemia are more susceptible to: Pyogenic bacteria, enterogenic viruses giardia lamblia
The increase risk of infection by Giardia lamblia in Agammaglobulinemia patients is due to: Absence of Opsonizing and Neutralizing antibodies.
What organ is located at LUQ of the abdomen, anterior to the left kidney, and protected by the 9th to 11th ribs? Spleen
What two important immune cells are found in the White Pulp? T cells and B cells
The _____________ are found in the periarteriolar lymphatic sheath (PALS) within the _________ pulp. T cells; White
_______ cells are found in the White pulp within in _________________. B cells; Follicles
What is the marginal zone? The area between the White pulp and the Red pulp of the spleen,
What is found inthe marginal zone of the spleen? 1. Macrophages and specialized B-cells 2. APCs that capture blood-borne antigens
What is the role of splenic macrophages? Remove ENCAPSULATED bacteria
What is the pathogenesis responsible for the increased susceptibility to encapsulated organism in asplenic patients (fuctional and structural asplenica)? Spleen dysfunction --> decreased IgM --> decreased complement activation --> a decreased C3b opsonization --> greater Encapsulated bactria suceptibility.
Where are RBCs found in the Spleen? Red pulp
Hypoplastic Thymus is seen in which disorders: 1. Di George Syndrome 2. SCID
Where is the Thymus located? Anterior Superior Mediastinum
Site of maturation and differentiation of T cells? Thymus
What branchial pouch gives rise to the _________________. Thymus
The Thymic Cortex contains DENSE __________________________ Immature T cells
In the Thymic medulla the __________ ____ cells and _________________ ___________ are found. Mature T cells; Hassall corpuscles
Myasthenia Gravis (MG) and Superior Vena Cava Syndrome (SVCS) are associated with which malignancy? Thymoma
TLRs and PAMPs are associated with what immunity? Innate immunity
Variation through V(D)J recombination during lymphocyte development, defines? Mechanism of action of Adaptive immunity
What is the 1st step of Classical Complement Cascade? Binding of C1 to either 2 molecules of IgG and IgM.
Why is IgM better activator of classical complement? IgM circulates in pentameric form making better activator
The _______________ binds to the _________________ of the _____________ immunoglobulin chain in the region near the ___________ point. C1 molecule; Fc region; HEAVY; Hinge
Fab attaches the___________________________- Antigen
The Fc receptor allows attachment for: Phagocytic cells (macrophages and neutrophils)
The Fc _____________ of Heavy chain is the site of attachment for the ______________________. REGION; Complement
Anergy is associated in patients with ___________. SCID
Acute cellular rejection often occurs after a _____________ of transplantation. Week
What are the Humoral responses seen in Acute Cellular Rejection? C4d deposition, neutrophilic infiltrate, and NECROTIZING VASCULITIS
Lymphocytic Interstitial infiltrate and Endotheliitis, are clinical signs of: Cellular deficits in Acute Cellular Rejection
What type of inhibitors are used in prevention of Acute cellular rejection? Calcineurin Inhibitors
What is a common organ that develops GVHD? Liver
Why is the liver a common organ affected by GVHD? It is rich with lymphocytes.
Donor T-cells attack recipient's MHC antigens leading to Host's tissues. Graft-vs-Host Disease (GVHD)
What are the early signs of GVHD? Diffuse maculopapular rash, which preference to the palms and soles of feet +/- desquamation.
Small vessel vasculitis + IgA deposition. Dx? Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP)
Opsonization by _______ and _______ enhance _____________________. IgG and C3b; phagocytosis
Low complement levels decrease the ability the_______________. Membrane Attack Complex (MAC)
Inability to form the MAC leads to increased risk of infection by_________________________. Neisseria species.
What is the treatment of Neisseria species due to lack of MAC? Ceftriaxone
The _____________ is composed by ______________________ factors. MAC; C5b-C9
What cytokines in TB granulomas are maintained by? INF-gamma, IL-12, and TNF-alpha
The Thymic cortex allows for the _________________ selection. Positive
The Thymic medulla allows for the ____________________ selection. Negative
MHC I: 1. CD8+ 2. Heavy chain and B-2 microglobulin 3. Seen in ALL NUCLEATED cells 4 Greater response a to VIRAL infections
MHC II: 1. alpha and beta polypeptides 2. CD4+ recognized 3. Found in APCs 4. Stimulates Humoral and Cellular immune responses.
Hemochromatosis HLA A3
HLA B8 1. Addison Disease 2. Myasthenia Gravis 3. Graves Disease
HLA B27: Psoriatic arthritis, Ankylosing Spondylitis, IBD-associated arthritis, and Reactive arthritis
HLA D3: DM 1. SLE, Graves Disease, Hashimoto's thyroiditis, Addison disease
MS, hay Fever, SLE, Goodpasture Syndrome HLA DR2
NK cells are part of Innate Immune system
Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is due to: Gene mutation preventing the formation of DECAY-ACCELERATING Factor and Membrane Inhibitor of Reactive Lysis (MIRL)
Deficiency of C1 - C4 increase risk for development: 1. Pyogenic sinus and Respiratory Tract infections 2. SLE
Deficiency of C5 - C9 increase risk of infection by _______________ Neisseria
IL-1: 1. Acute inflammation cytokine 2. Activates endothilum expression of adhesion molecules 3. Induces chemokine secretion for recruitment of WBC
What is another term used for IL-1: Osteoclast-activating factor
The IL-____ causes fever and synthesis of acute phase proteins IL-6
What are the 2 functions of IL-12? 1. Differentiation of T-cells into Th1 2. Activates NK cells
Which cytokines causes cachexia in malignancy? TNF-alpha
What 3 cytokines mediate fever and sepsis? IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha
What cytokines are secreted by Macrophages exclusively? IL-1, IL-6, IL-8, IL-12 and TNF-alpha
Which interleukin stimulates bone marrow? IL-3
The IgE production is stimulated by IL-____. IL-4
IL-4 stimulates the production of which immunoglobulin? IgE
Ig___ is stimulated by IL-5. IgA
IgE is stimulated by IL-_____, and IgA is stimulated by IL-_____ IL-4 ---- IgE IL- 5 ----- IgA
Which two cytokines are released by ALL T-cells? IL-2 and IL-3
IL-2 stimulates the growth of: Helper, cytotoxic, and regulatory T cells, and also to NK cells.
IL-3 is similar in function to: GM-CSF
Which is the one interferon secreted by Th1 cells? INF-gamma
What is the role of INF-gamma? 1. stimulates macrophages to kill phagocytosed pathogens. 2. INHIBITS differentiation of Th2 cells
Which cytokine increases the expression of MHC and antigen presentation in all cells? INF-gamma
IL-4, IL-5, and IL-10 are: Cytokines exclusively secreted by Th2 cells
Which cytokine is responsible for differentiation form T-cell to Th2 Cell? IL-4
IL-4 stimulates ____________________________ and enhances the production of Ig___ and Ig____. Class Switching; IgE and IgG
Which cytokine helps in the differentiation of Eosinophils? IL-5
Which Th2 excelusive cytokine decreases or attenuates inflammation? IL-10
What are the 3 actions of IL-10? 1. Decrease inflammation 2. Decrease expression of MHC II and Th1 cytokines 3. Inhibits activated macrophages and dendritic cells
By which other T cell, other that Th2, is IL-1- secreted ? regulatory T-cells
Cytokines that attenuate immune response? IL-10 and TGF-B
TCR, CD3+ and CD28? T cell surface proteins
CD28 binds to ____ on __________. B7 on APC
Anergy State in which a cell cannot be activated by exposure to its antigen.
What signal or step is missing in anery? Signal 2; also know as costimulatory signal
Anergy is another type of: Self-tolerance mechanism
Which are the 2 TOXOID vaccines? 1. Corynebacterium diphtheriae 2. Clostridium tetani
What is a disadvantage of Toxoid vaccines? Required eventually a booster
Another form of referring to Killed Vaccines? Inactivated Vaccines
_________________ vaccines only stimulate _________________ immunity. Killed; Humoral
What kind of vaccines stimulate both, Humoral and Cellular, immunities? Live-attenuated vaccines
What are the 4 inactivated (killed) vaccines? Rabies, Influenza (injection), Polio (Salk), Hepatitis A
What live vaccines may be given to HIV patient with a CD4 count > 200? MMR and Varicella
Which are the Live Vaccines? 1. Adenovirus (not-attenuated, given to military recruits) 2. Polio (Sabin) 3. Smallpox 4. BCG 5. Yellow Fever 6. Influenza (intranasal) 7. MMR 8. Rotavirus
Created by: rakomi