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micro 125 test 4

dtcc

QuestionAnswer
methods microbiologists use to identify bacteria to the level of genus and species fall into three main categories: 1. Phenotypic 2. immunologic 3. genotypic
_____ which includes a consideration of morphology (microscopic and macroscopic) as well as bacterial physiology or biochemistry; phenotypic
_____ which entails serological analysis; using antibodies, or of patients’ antibodies using prepackaged antigens immunologic
____ (or genetic) techniques; Analysis of microbe’s DNA or RNA genotypic
_____ is defined as what types of enzymatic activities it can carry out, what kind of physical conditions it thrives in, what antibiotics it is susceptible to, and the chemical composition of its walls and/or membranes. behavior
_____ methods of identifying microbes involve examining their appearance and their behavior. phenotypic
____ one immune response to antigens is the production of antibodies, which are designed to bind tightly to specific antigens. immunologic
1.A RN is trainin a new nurse abt Consequences of improper collection may include all of the followin, except. a delay in appropriate treatment. b.pt to an unnecessary proc. c.repeat the test. d.puttin other pts at risk e.puttin the pt at risk D
2.A clinical form used to report data on a patient’s specimens may include? a.antibiotic history. b.patient symptoms. c.marital status. d.date and time of specimen collection. e.a, b, and d. f.b, c, and d. E
The Gram stain and the acid-fast stain are most often used for _______ identification. bacterial
In cases in which the suspected pathogen is present in small numbers or is easily overgrown by normal biota, the specimen can be initially enriched with _______. specialized media
Specimens are often inoculated into ______ media to identify definitive characteristics, such as reactions in blood (blood agar) and fermentation patterns differential
Knowing which ______ an isolate has can often lead to its identity. enzymes
Many of these tests are based on ______ metabolic reactions that are visualized by a color change. enzyme-mediated
_____ of the enzyme is made visible by a colored dye; no coloration means it lacks the enzyme for utilizing the substrate in that particular way. microbial expression
Unknown microbe + Substrate -> Enzyme present in microbe -> products formed, color changes, + results
unknown microbe + Substrate -> Enzyme absent in microbe -> no product formed, color does not change, - results
what is aseptic technique? to reduce or remove the number of harmful microorganisms
why is aseptic technique important? to avoid contamination
_____ is taken by washing the external urethra and collecting the urine midstream clean catch
___ is first voided dirty catch
____ is to avoid contamination with saliva catheter
____ and ____ are sterile collection cerebro spinal fluid and tissue fluid
the best time to get a sputum sample is? waking up
what samples should not be refrigerated? (3) 1. CSF 2. genital specimens 3. anaerobes
for phenotypic methods + results is when product formed, color change
direct examination is mainly used for acid-fast stain and bacterial identification
such as ____ and ____, are cultured on _____ media to encourage the growth of only the suspected pathogen. urine and feces, selective
3. clinical significance of cultures a.# micro is significance b.1 colony may indicate presence if culture comes from sterile site c.isolation of a relativ pure culture can mean disease (not always) d.range of tests may be needed e.all above are true E
______ methods can have 2 drawbacks (1)microbe has to be cultured, takes 18 to 24 hrs often longer (2)we are learnin that many infectious cond may be caused by nonculturable organisms, leavin open that the organism that we do culture is a bystander. phenotypic
____ microscopy of pt specimens usually after staining direct examination
____ is the branch of immunology that traditionally deals with in vitro diagnostic testing of serum. Serology
PCR (polymease chain reaction) amplifies DNR/RNA
_____ property of test to focus on specific antibody or antigen not to react w/ unrelated ones specificity
____ detection of even a little bit of antibody/ antigen sensitivity
without specificity and sensitivity together you will get a false + or -
____ antibody- mediated clumping of whole cells agglutination
___ smaller complexes of antibody- antigen precipitation
titers are antibody concentration, antigen-antibody reaction is liquid
____ Determined by serially diluting patient serum in tubes of a microtiter plate all having equal amounts of bacterial cells, or antigen. titer
what does a titer tell us about a pt Autoimmune disorders and past exposure to diseases.
____ uknown specimen is exposed to known fluorescent ab (fab)of known composition direct fluorescent antibodies
____ patients antibody (its fc portion) probed with fluorescent ab recognize Fc region of antibodies in patient sera indirect fluorescent antibodies
____ sandwiching technique using ag, ab, and a secondary ab to produce a color change elisa
____ is based on molecular weight western blot
Western Blot looks for proteins using labeled antibodies
Western Blot is extremely sensitive and specific
Western Blot helps identify reaction between antibody & antigens
___ is the second verification test for antibody + HIV screening/ testing
invitro lab
invibo in body
____ antigen introduced into a pt to elicit a reaction as in TB skin test in vivo test
_____ is an antigen-antibody technique for identifying, classifying, and subgrouping certain bacteria into categories called serotypes. Serotyping
How are biochemicaltests usually visualized? color change
What do they tell us about a microbe? if enzymes is present
· What is the advantage of genotypic/DNA analysis of samples? no culture needed uses fast testing
____ is a technique that makes it possible to identify a microbe by analyzing segments of its genetic material. hybridization
____ particularly useful for rapid analysis of outbreaks and drug-resistant organisms. whole- genome sequencing
What indicates apositive result for agglutination and precipitation tests? clumping
Microarrays is multiple diseases on a single chip
Nucleic acid sequencing is ___ or ____. This test is ______. Dna or RNA Fast and accurate
Nucleic acid sequencing is good for __ and new ____ of resistant bacteria outbreaks and new strains
Mass Spectrometry uses ___ or ____ pure culture or pt sample
Mass spectrometry determines structure and chemical composition
Mass spectrometry can detect antibiotic susceptibilities
____ has rapid and highly accurate microbial identification in minutes mass spectrometry
____ Sterile specimen containers and other tools to prevent contamination from the environment or the patient. To protect patients from harmful bacteria and other pathogens during medical procedures, healthcare providers use aseptic technique. asepsis/aseptic
why is aseptic technique important prevent contamination
What is meant by "correct sample"? The right procedure for the right body part.
In what situation is this especially difficult to ensure the correct sample? Difficult when patient collects their own sample.
What methods are used to collect microbes from different areas of the body? 1. saliva 2. sputum 3. throat/ naso 4. urine 5. mucous lining 6. skin leasion 7. sterile materials 8. eye/ear/nasal cavity 9. non sterile samples
_____ undesirable bc millions of bacteria and most normal biota. Expectorate in a container. saliva
____ discharged by coughing or with a catheter to avoid contamination with saliva. sputum
___ swabs should not touch the tongue/cheeks/saliva throat/ naso
_____ may be swabbed or scraped with scalpel. Wounds are cleansed prior to swabbing to avoid collection normal biota. skin lesion
____ sterile needle aspiration and antisepsis of the puncture site is crucial. sterile materials
Eye/ear/nasal cavity- ____ swab
What is the function of a culturette? Sterile transport swab w/carrier (moistened)
What procedure needs to be done before any blood collection or other needle aspiration sampling technique? Find vein, clean area / iodine or chlorahexidine
_____ Most rapid method of determining presumptive and sometimes confirmatory microbial characteristics. Gram stain and acid fast stain most used for bacterial id. direct examinations
What category of media is used to isolate a particular group of organisms from others in the culture? What type of culture (pure or mixed) do we attempt to obtain from samples? Selective media. Pure culture
How are biochemical tests usually visualized? Enzyme-mediated metabolic reactions that are visualized by a color change.
What do they tell us about a microbe? show color change, no coloration means it lacks the enzyme for utilizing the substrate in that particular way.
What role does the dichotomous key play? DK are flow charts that trace the identification.
What are some of the things that tell us a microbe is the cause of a disease rather than a stray part of the normal flora? The # of microbes in a specimen. The presence of a single colony of a true pathogen is highly suggestive of it's role in disease.
Another way to ask this: what tells us that a microbial sample is clinically significant? The repeated isolation of a relatively pure culture of any microorganism can mean it is an agent of disease.
Culturing of the microorganism is not always necessary. They are increasingly automated, producing rapid results that are often more precise than phenotypic methods is the advantage of ____ genotypic/ DNA analysis
____ Amplifies minute quantities of nucleic acids present in a sample, greatly improving the sensitivity of these tests function of PCR
_____- Analyzes short segments of DNA Involves the separation of DNA that's too large for conventional gel electrophoresis. applying alternating voltage levels to the el from 3 dif directions, allowing even similarly sized DNA fragments to fully separate. pulsed-field gel electrophoresis
Serological testing is based on the interaction between ____________ and ____________. Antigens and antibodies
What type(s) of samples can we use to run these tests Test sera, as urine, cerebrospinal fluid, whole tissues, and saliva.
What property of antibodies makes them especially useful in testing? quantity and specificity
____ focuses only on certain antibody or antigen and not to react with unrelated/distantly related ones (the degree to which a test does not falsely detect people who don't have a specificity
What two properties do the most effective serologic tests share? Specificity and sensitivity.
____ refers to the detection of even minute quantities of antibodies or antigens in a specimen, and reflects the degree to with a test will detect every positive person. sensitivity
What is detected by antibodies in a Western blot? proteins
What is the primary tool in Immunofluorescence testing? A fluorescent antibody.
What does a radioimmunoassay (RIST or RAST) use for detection? hormone levelw
What does a radioimmunoassay (RIST or RAST) What are these tests usually used for? to diagnose allergies in patients.
____ detects microbe specific antibodies in patient sera. indirect elisa
_____ test, a known antibody is absorbed to the bottom of a well and incubated with an unknown antigen. direct elisa
_____ designed for infectious disease diagnosis are "chips" that contain gene sequences fro potentially thousands of different possible infectious agents, based on the syndrome being investigated. micoarrays
_____ is particularly useful for rapid analysis of outbreaks and drug-resistant organisms and has led to the creation of next-generation sequencing technologies. nucleic acid sequencing
_____ used to determine structure and composition of various chemical compounds and biological molecules. Can be used to analyze a protein fingerprint from pure culture isolates or directly from patient specimens. mass spectrometry (MALDI TOF)
____ MRI, PET, CT sans have been increasingly employed to find areas of localized infection in deep tissue. If no infections found, the patient still avoided invasive procedure. It's considered the old was of diagnosing infection. imaging
What are the natural defenses of the skin? (5) keratinized surface, sloughing, low pH, high salt, lyzozyme
____ Positively charged chemicals that act by disrupting the negatively charged membranes of bacteria. antimicrobial peptides
____ Chiefly responsible for keeping the microbial count on the skin relatively low antimicrobial peptides
_____ Low pH makes the skin inhospitable to microorganisms - Oily due to its high concentration of lipids - Lipids serve as nutrients to microbiota sebum
____ Toxic byproducts of fatty acid metabolism inhibit the growth of microorganisms not adapted to the skin environment. sebum
____ Inhibitory to microorganisms due to low pH and high salt concentration sweat
____ Enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva - Specifically breaks down peptidoglycan found in the cell walls of bacteria LYSOZYME
one mechanism that protects the eyes? lacrimal apparatus
____ a group of structures that manufactures and drains tears lacrimal apparatus
_____ Group A, beta hemolytic (GABHS) strept pyogenes
____ usually occurs in clusters staph aureus
These are all a form of pyoderma puerperal sepsis cellulitis post-surgical wound infection pneumonia (rare) necrotizing fasciitis Strept pyogenes
- coagulase positive - MRSA -VISA, VRSA staph aureus
These are all bacteremia endocarditis pneumonia osteomyelitis septic arthritis food poisioning staph aureus
respiratory, skin, bloodstream diseases strept pyogenes
skin and deep-seated infections and diseases staph aureus
1. A nurse in burn care is educating a ns about skin variations. the thickest skin is found on the _________ and the thinnest is on the __________. a.chest; cheeks b.buttocks; nose c.plantar of the foot; eyelids d.abdomen; dorsum of the hands c
2. peds pt with ruddy checks and a fever of 101°F. The mom states that child has been acting normal, but now she notices a slight rash, mainly on the torso. Which disease do you suspect? a.measles b.fifth disease c.rubella d.roseola e.scarlet fever b
what is the causative agent of measles measles virus
How are Measles transmitted? droplet contact
• Appear within 14 days of infection • High fever, cough, runny nose, and red, watery eyes • Characteristic rash usually appears within 3 to 5 days • Koplik's spot This is signs and symptoms of ____ measles
What is the vaccine for Measles MMR
measles has no treatment
_____ • In 6% of the cases, the virus can cause pneumonia. • 1 in one million cases develop Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis: progressive neurological degeneration of the cerebral cortex. measles
measles is also known as rubeola
_____ that erupts on the head and then progresses to the trunk and extremities until most of the body is covered (figure 16.5). The rash gradually coalesces into red patches that fade to brown. red maculopapular exanthem
The most serious complication of ______ is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), measles
skin, hair nails, sweat glands, and oil glands forms the ______ ______ integumentary system
measles, rubella, & fifth disease are transmitted principally by _________ _______ respiratory droplets
the measles rash progresses by head to body
the causative agent for rubella is rubella virus
____ pathogenesis infects Upper respiratory tract and then spreads to lymph nodes -this is followed by virema which spreads through the body rubella
_____ - pink or light spots -ITCHY -lasts up to three days rubella rash
_____ mild fever, flat rash, congenital rubella syndrome rubella
who are particularly dangerous for rubella pregnant women, and infants
____ A rash of pink macules and papules first appears on the face and progresses down the trunk and toward the extremities, advancing and resolving in about 3 days. The rash is milder looking than the measles rash postnatal rubella
___ a fetus in utero can result in a serious complication called congenital rubella, can cause miscarriage or defects most common being deafness congenital rubella
____ adults are joint inflammation, pain rubella
fifth disease is also known as erythema infectiosum
what is the causative agent of fifth disease parvovirus b19, virus
____ signs and symptoms of mild disease that results in a slapped cheek appearance, begins on face rash may occur for several weeks and may be brought on by any activity that increases body heat fifth disease
What is the vaccine for rubella MMR
what is the vaccine for fifth disease none
what is the treatment for fifth disease none
roseola is also known as sixth disease
___ rash looks like “Slapped-face” rash first, spreads to limbs and trunk, tends to be confluent rather than distinct bumps fifth disease
causative agent of roseola human herpes virus 6, virus
signs and symptoms of _____ can result in a maculopapular rash, but 70% cases do not have rash roseola
rubella is also known as german measles
High fever with a maculopapular rash that FOLLOWS FEVER resolution signs and syptoms of roseola
transmission of roseola direct contact
prevention of roseola none
potential complications from roseola seizures
3.A pt has been diag. with impetigo but has been noncompliant with medical treatment. What complication is associated with untreated impetigo? a.future antibiotic allergies b.measles c.increased likelihood of roseola d.glomerulonephritis e.septicemia d
______ can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes, and some cases are probably caused by a mixture of the two impetigo
____ looks variously like peeling skin, crusty and flaky scabs, or honey colored crusts. often around mouth, face, extremities, but can be anywhere on the body impetigo
transmission of impetigo is direct or indirect contact
Impetigo can be prevented by proper hygiene
topical mupirocin or retapamulin, oral dicloxacillin, is treatment for impetigo
impetigo staph aureus is more prevalent in older children, adults
impetigo stepto pyogenes is more prevalent in newborns
_____ An enzyme that digests hyaluronic acid and thereby permits the penetration of pathogens through connective tissue. hyaluronidase
_____ -Test used to distinguish different types of staphylococcus -conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin which causes clotting of blood or plasma coagulase
_____ which digests blood clots; a nuclease that digests DNA (DNase); and lipases that help the bacteria colonize oily skin surfaces. staphylokinase
____ is flat to slightly raised colored bump exanthem
Roseola is also known as HHV-6
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, Other bacteria or fungi are causative agents for _____ cellulitis
Fever and swelling of the lymph nodes. Lymphangitis: are signs and symptoms of cellulitis
parenteral implantation is the mode of transmission for cellulitis
what is the prevention and/or vaccination for cellulitis? none
the treatment for cellulitis is oral or IV antibiotic
the causative agent for scalded skin syndrome is staphy Aureus
scalded skin syndrome can be transmitted by direct contact, droplet contact
scalded skin syndrome can be treated with immediate antibiotics (cloxacillin)
a distinguishing feature of scalded skin syndrome is split in skin within epidermis
scalded skin syndrome can be prevented by eliminating carriers in contact with neonates
______ affects mostly newborns and babies scalded skin syndrome
Blisters, Fever, Large areas of skin peel or fall away (exfoliation or desquamation), painful skin, redness of the skin. are signs and symptoms of scalded skin syndrome
Chicken pox is caused by? Human Herpesvirus 3 (HH3) or varicella
small pox is caused by? variola virus
Chickenpox can by transmitted by droplet, inhalation, and lesion fluid
Smallpox can be transmitted by droplet and indirect contact
What is the prevention for Chicken pox and Small Pox? live virus vaccine
what is the treatment for chicken pox? none
What is the treatment for Small pox? Tecovirimat, cidofovir
_____ Incubation period of 10-20 days, lasts 4-7 days, chicken pox
Fever and rash on the scalp, face, trunk, extremities, Skin lesions progress from merciless and papules to itchy vesicles filled with a clear fluid then encrust and drop off, 0.1% of cases are followed by encephalopathy are signs and symptoms for ___ chicken pox
Characteristic asymmetrical distribution of rush on the skin of the trunk or head, Inflammation of the angle and nerve pathways cause pain and tenderness for several months, eye inflammation and ocular and facial paralysis signs and symptoms of shingles
the shingles vaccine is? zostafax
After recuperation from chickenpox, the virus enters into the sensory nerve endings of cutaneous spinal nerve branches, especially those that serve the skin of the chest and head. From there, it becomes latent in the ganglia and may reemerge as ____ singles virus
shingles is sometimes referred to as the herpes zoster
____ ____ enters the respiratory tract, attaches to respiratory mucosa, and then invades and enters the bloodstream. chicken pox
4.pt has shingles. Followin educ 4 pt al of the statements r true bout shingles but: a.varicella virus may stay latent in the ganglia of nerve b.eye inflam & facial paralysis c.stress can reactivate d.bein exposed to fluid in shingles lesions d
Who is most likely to get shingles? older than 60
antiviral drugs, drugs for pain; wet compresses, calamine lotion, oatmeal baths; strong anti-inflammatory corticosteroids to reduce swelling are all treatments for shingles
chicken pox is also called? varicella zoster
____ rash can appear anywhere on the body but will only be on one side of the body, the left or right. It will be in a band, a strip, or a small area shingles
Prodrome period of high fever and malaise, rash emerges in the mouth, severe abdominal and back pain, rash spreads throughout the body within 24 hours signs and symptoms of small pox
small pox was eradicated in 1977
we still vaccine for small pox because of terrorist attacks
_____ the rash is macular, evolving in turn to papular, vesicular, and pustular before eventually crusting over, small pox
_____ is a highly virulent form that causes toxemia, shock, and intravascular coagulation. variola major
for _____ rash bumps become larger and fill with a thick opaque fluid. small pox
the causative agent for leishmaniasis is Leishmania spp
the causative agent for cutaneous anthrax is bacillus anthracis
cause of transmission of Leishmaniasis is biological vector (sand fly)(zoonosis)
the cause of transmission of cutaneous anthrax is direct contact with endospores
Leishmaniasis: Prevention avoid sand flies
____ Multiplication within macrophages Leishmaniasis
prevention of cutaneous anthrax avoid contact, yes vaccine
Sodium stibogluconate, pentamidine is treatment for Leishmaniasis
Ciprofloxacin, plus two additional antibiotics is treatment for cutaneous anthrax
Mucocutaneous and systemic forms in ____ Leishmaniasis
Cutaneous anthrax can be fatal
Leishmaniasis is and endemic to ____ equatorial regions
____ a skin ulcer develops called an oriental sore. The ulcer heals after a year leaving a depigmented scar Leishmaniasis
How is cutaneous Leishmaniasis diagnosed? Stained skin-scraping from the ulcer base
Leishmaniasis is left untreated is deadly
is Leishmaniasis goes beyond the skin it will multiply within the cells of the RES
____ lesion is Initially, a small, papular, pruritic lesion that resembles an insect bite (becomes increasingly necrotic then ruptures to form a black eschar) cutaneous anthrax
ring worm is also know as dermatophytes
ringworm has the ability to digest keratin
ringworm can be transmitted by direct contact
______ therapy is a topical, antifungal agents. ring worm
Darkening skin, peeling, red rashes, scaly patches, itchy scalp, and hair loss. signs and symptoms of ring worm
ring worm can be transmitted by direct contact
how to prevent ringworm do not share anything that touches your skin
tinea capitis ring worm of scalp
tinea barbae ringworm of beard
tinea corporis ringworm of the body
tinea cruis is ring worm of groin
tinea pedis ring worm of foot
tinea unguium ringworm of nail
cutaneous anthrax Is also known as woolsorters disease
the causative agents for superficial infections (tinea versicolor) is malassezia species (yeast)
pink eye" Milky discharge- bacterial infections Clear, watery exudate- viral infections sings and symptoms superficial mycoses (Tinea versicolor)
superficial infections (Tinea versicolor) is transmitted by endogenous (normal biota)
prevention for superficial infections (Tinea Versicolor) is none
the treatment for superficial infections (Tinea Versicolor) is topical antifungals
____ is a very thin membranelike tissue that covers the eye (except for the cornea) and lines the eyelids. conjunctiva
____ is the dome-shaped central portion of the eye lying over the iris cornea
5.pt has milky discharge from right eye in the mornin he felt as if his eyes were tightly shut.priority action taken is to a. ask pt if he used any diff products on face b.flush eye with sterile water c.perform an exam d. note allergies to food or med c
neonatal conjunctivitis causative agent is chlamydia, trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus epidermidis, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella, and also Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis is a causative agent of bacterial conjunctivitis
viral conjunctivitis causative agents are adenoviruses and others
neonatal conjunctivitis transmission is vertical
bacterial conjunctivitis transmission is direct or indirect contact
viral conjunctivitis transmission is direct or indirect contact
Screen mothers, apply antibiotic ophthalmic solution to newborn eyes is prevention for neonatal conjunctivitis
bacterial conjunctivitis prevention is hygiene
viral conjunctivitis prevention is hygiene
treatment for neonatal conjunctivitis is topical and oral antibiotics
Trimethoprim/polymyxin B for routine cases; azithromycin or levofloxacin for more serious cases is treatment for bacterial conjunctivitis
viral conjunctivitis treatment is none
redness, puffiness, itching, feeling of foreign object in the eye, sensitivity to light, burning or scratching sensation, discharge signs and symptoms of conjunctivitis
____ produce a milky discharge conjunctivitis bacterial
_____ infections tend to produce a clear watery exudate. conjunctivitis viral
the causative agent of keratitis is herpes simplex virus
Reactivation of latent virus, although primary infections can occur in the eye is how ____ transmits keratitis
what is the prevention of keratitis none
the treatment for keratitis is topical trifluridine +/- oral acyclovir
Keratitis damage can lead to complete corneal destruction
blindeness due to ___ is the leading infectious cause of blindness in the usa herpes
_____ has been causing serious keratitis cases, especially in people who wear contact lenses. amoeba/ acanthamoeba
1. Red eye 2. Sensation of something, like sand, in the eye 3. Pain 4. Sensitivity to light 5. Watery eye 6. Blurred vision 7. Difficulty keeping the eyelids open are signs and symptoms of keratitis
1. Which of the following infectious agents has evolved to maintain a persistent state in its host? a. variola virus b. herpes virus c. vaccinia virus d. Staphylococcus aureus d
4. What is an antimicrobial enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva that can break down bacterial cell walls? a. lysozyme b. beta-lactamase c. catalase d. hyaluronidase a
7. Which of the following organisms produces an enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide? a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Staphylococcus aureus c. MRSA d. two of these c
10. Which of these techniques has detected the larger number of normal microbiota on skin surfaces? a. culturing b. 16s rRNA sequencing c. antibody probing d. gel electrophoresis a
13. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be a polymicrobial infection? a. measles b. rubella c. leishmaniasis d. impetigo b
16. Staphylococcus aureus is part of the differential diagnosis of which of the following diseases? a. impetigo b. maculopapular rash c. both of these d. neither of these a
19. Which steps of the diag process are in order? a. Diff diag, anatomic diag, etiologic diag b. Anatomic diagnosis, etiologic diagnosis, differential diagnosis c. Anatomic diagnosis, differential diagnosis, etiologic diagnosis d. none of these D
1. When using pulsed-field gel electrophoresis, mutations in a microbe’s genome will show up as a. a different pattern of bands. b. nonfluorescent bands. c. missing bands. d. all of these. a
4. Mass spectrometry identifies microbes via a. fluorescent antibodies. b. cell surface carbohydrates. c. protein fingerprints. d. DNA profiling. c
7. Which category of diagnosis is represented by studying a microbe’s utilization of nutrients? a. phenotypic b. genotypic c. immunologic d. none of these a
10. Which of the following diagnostic techniques is most likely to be affected by changes in growth conditions of the specimen? a. phenotypic b. immunologic c. genotypic a
13. Which of the following techniques is most likely to reveal that an infection is in biofilm form? a. ELISA b. whole-genome sequencing c. PFGE d. imaging d
16. T or F: Bacterial infection causes the expression of different human genes than does viral infection. a. T b. F a
19. A test that results in a very large number of false positives probably has an unacceptable level of a. sensitivity. b. specificity. a
Bony structures, blood-brain barrier, microglial cells, and macrophages are the defenses of the nervous system
the normal biota of the nervous system is none
1.immunologically privileged means a.CNS can mount a partial response wen faced w/immunologic challenge b.CNS is impervious organisms c.CNS is protected against organisms by blood-brain barrier d.immuneresponse of CNS is superior to other body sites A
2.significance of blood-brain barrier w/med admin? a.absorption in CNS b.penetrate barrier to reach the CNS c.nonpermeable membrane and as such prevents absorption d.Selective permeability barrier allowin meds with low lipid solubility to reach CNS B
____ an inflammation of the meninges, meningitis
What can be found in the CSF during meningitis? microorganisms
severe headache, painful or stiff neck, fever, and nausea and vomiting are sign and symptoms of meningitis
____ An inflammation of the meninges of the brain and spinal cord meningitis
Neisseria Meningitides (meningococcus) and Streptococcus pneumoniae (pnemococcus) are common bacterial meningitis
____ This can occur after penetrating head wounds, bacteremia (from endocarditis, or neurosurgical procedures. Staphylococcal meningitis
Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae transmission is droplet contact
Conjugated vaccine; ciprofloxacin, rifampin, or ceftriaxone used to protect contacts prevention for Neisseria meningitidis
Two vaccines: Prevnar or Pneumovax prevention for Streptococcus pneumoniae
Penicillin, ceftriaxone, chloramphenicol treatment for Neisseria meningitidis
Vancomycin + ceftriaxone; treatment for Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningitides risk group is young children
Cloudy, yellow/beige High pressure Elevated proteins Decreased glucose Abundant WBC’s is ___ CSF in bacterial meningitis
listeria monocytogenes, crytococcus neoformans, and coccidioides immitis causative agent is vehicle (food, air, dust, soil)
prevention for listeria monocytogenes is HIb
crytococcus neoformans prevention is cooking food according
Ceftriaxone (IV antibiotics) is treatment for listeria monocytogenes,
Ampicillin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is treatment for crytococcus neoformans
Amphotericin B and fluconazole is treatment for coccidioides immitis (Coccidioidomycosis)
coccidioides immitis is most common in people who have aids
crytococcus neoformans is most common in people who are neonates, elderly
meningoencephalitis is a major side effect of listerial meningitis
listeriosis meningitis is ___ zoonoses
listeriosis meningitis symptom is gastroenteritis
listeriosis meningitis is mainly caused by contaminated food
what is the morpholody of listeria meningitis non-spore forming gram positive
Most common CA meningitis Streptococcus pneumoniae
Bird droppings Opportunistic infection Usually chronic and gradual is part of Cryptococcal Meningitis
Highly virulent systemic fungal infection Begins as respiratory Endemic to region of California/SW US Coccidioidomycosis
What type of cells may be present in the CSF in meningitis? WBC due to infection
What are some long term complications of meningitis? Deafness, fits, mental impairment
What can cause aseptic meningitis? Leptospirosis and lyme disease
1. repeat cryptococcal infections 2. seizures 3. hearing loss 4. brain damage 5. excessive fluid in the brain Complications of cryptococcal meningitis
what is the transmission for coccidioidomycosis inhaled
prevention for coccidioides immitis is avoiding airborne endospores
feeling of tiredness, fever, cough, headaches, rash, muscle pain, and joint pain. Fatigue can persist for many months after initial infection are signs and symptoms of coccidioides immitis (coccidioidomnycoses)
neonatal and infant meningitis Streptococcus agalactiae, Escherichia coli, strain K1, is transmitted by vertical (during birth)
Cronobacter sakazakii is transmitted by vehicle (baby formula)
Streptococcus agalactiae can be prevented by Culture and treatment of mother
Cronobacter sakazakii can be prevented by safe preparation or avoidance of powdered formula
Penicillin G plus aminoglycosides is treatment for Streptococcus agalactiae
Ceftazidime or cefepime +/− gentamicin is treatment for Escherichia coli, strain K1
Begin with broad-spectrum drugs until susceptibilities determined is treatment for Cronobacter sakazakii
____ in newborns is almost always a result of infection transmitted by the mother, either in utero or during passage through the birth canal. meningitis
•Feeding poorly or refusing to feed •Irritability •Trouble breathing •Bulging fonatelle, the soft spot at the top of the head •Diarrhea •Feeling too warm or too cold signs and symptoms for neonatal meningitis
where do viral meningitis originate in mucosal surfaces in the upper respiratory tract
what commonly causes bacterial meningitis enteroviruses
Most common cause of the CNS inflammation, acute febrile illness with signs and symptoms of meningeal irritation. Viral (Aseptic) Meningitis:
Can be fatal within days without antibiotic tx. Delayed tx increases risk of permanent brain damage, hearing loss, and learning disabilities can result from the infection. bacterial meningitis
Usually mild and often clears up on its own. viral meningitis
CSF will be ____ with bacterial meningitis cloudy
CSF will be ___ with viral meningitis. clear
Capillaries with restricted permeability feed CNS Very few substances cross this barrier Minimal phagocytosis and little to no inflammation are all apart of blood brain barrier
Cns has normal flora
Severe headache VERY stiff neck High fever Nausea/vomiting Confusion Seizures Petechiae from endotoxin signs and symptoms of bacterial meningitis
Haemophilus influenzae image G− transmission droplet
Haemophilus influenzae image G− prevention HIB vaccine
Haemophilus influenzae image G− treatment Ceftriaxone
cryptococcal meningitis is often fatal for AIDS pts
Cryptococcal meningitis can be treated with amphotericin B and Fluconazole
Zika virus causative agent is Zika virus
Zika virus transmission Vertical, Vector-borne, sexual, blood transfusions
the prevention of the zika virus is avoiding mosquitoes
treatment for zika virus is ZPIV for Zika Purified Inactivated Virus (trial)
zika virus causes babies to be born with abnormally small heads (microcephaly)
skin rash, conjunctivitis, and muscle and joint pain. trigger Guillain-Barre syndrome signs and symptoms of zika virus
poliomyeliitis causative agent poliovirus
poliomyelitis is transmitted by fecal-oral, vehicle (contaminated water)
prevention for poliomyelitis is live vaccine (OPV) inactive IPV
poliomyelitis treatment is none
long term complication of poliomyelitis is post-polio syndrome
meningoencephalitis disease is in meninges and brain
Naegleria fowleri and acanthamoeba is causative factors of meningoencephalitis
Naegleria fowleri transmission is vehicle (exposure while swimming in warm freshwater)
Acanthamoeba transmission is direct contact
Prevention for Naegleria fowleri is not let water into nasal passages
Prevention for Acanthamoeba is none
treatment for Naegleria fowleri is amphotericin B
treatment for Acanthamoeba is surgical excision of granulomas, Ketoconazole may help
poliomyelitis attacks the nervous system
poliomyelitis can leave someone in partial or complete paralysis
_____ a rapid, massive destruction of brain and spinal tissue that causes hemorrhage and coma and invariably ends in death within a week or so primary amoebic meingoencephalitis
acute encephalitis is inflammation of the brain
acute encephalitis is also caused by viral infection
signs and symptoms of _____ include behavioral changes, confusion, decreased consciousness and seizures. acute encephalitis
empiric therapy with/or acyclovir is treatment for acute encephalitis
Arboviruses, HSV, JC Virus are causes for acute encephalitis
(West Nile virus, La Crosse virus, Jamestown Canyon virus, St. Louis encephalitis virus, Powassan virus, eastern equine encephalitis virus) are all part of the arboviruses
arboviruses transmission is vector (arthropod bites)
herpes simplex 1 and 2 transmission is vertical or reactivation
JC virus transmission is ubiquitous
arboviruses prevention is insect control
herpes simplex 1 and 2 prevention is screening for HSV
JC Virus prevention is none
arboviruses treatment is none
Herpes simplex 1 and 2 treatment is acyclovir
JC virus treatment is Zidovudine
Coma, convulsions, paralysis, death are symptoms for Arboviruses
arboviruses mainly affect young children and elderly
herpes simplex virus 1 or 2 encephalitis mainly effects newborns via vertical transmission (HSV + mothers)
Jc virus can be a problem with AIDS pts
JC virus can cause multifocal leukoencephalopathy
Virus attacks brain Cerebral demyelination Uncommon, but usually fatal are side effects of multifocal leukoencephalopathy
varicella-zoster virus that remains dormmate is part of herpes simplex virus (HSV)
3. An infectious disease team is analyzing the epidemiology of vector-borne diseases, including those transmitted by arthropods. All of the following are arboviral diseases expt: a.polio b.West Nile encephalitis c.yellow fever d.St. Louis encephalitis A
the most common cause of subacute encephalitis is protozoan toxoplasma
Another form of subacute encephalitis can be caused by ________ virus as many as 7 to 15 years after the initial infection. measles
4. For which disease processes are immunizations available as a method of prevention? Select all that apply. a. Cryptococcus neoformans b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Streptococcus pneumoniae e. Neisseria meningitidis c,d,e
_______ is caused by toxoplasma gondii, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, and prions subacute encephalitis
toxoplasma gondii transmission is vehicle (meat) or fecal-oral
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis transmission is persistence of measles virus
prions transmission is CJD (direct/parental contact)
toxoplasma gondii prevention is personal and food hygiene
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis prevention is none
prions prevention is avoiding infected meat
Pyrimethamine and/or leucovorin and/or sulfadiazine is treatment for toxoplasma gondii
subacute sclerosing panencephalitis and prions treatment is none
sore throat, lymph node enlargement, and low-grade fever. is signs and symptoms are for toxoplasma gondii
reservoirs for toxoplasma gondii is mother-fetus, soil or water contaminated with feces, cats
groups most at risk with toxoplasma is pregnant women
transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs), Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Gerstmann-Strussler-Scheinker disease, and fatal familial insomnia. are diseases caused by prions
Dysesthesia, altered behavior, dementia, impaired senses, delirium, uncontrollable muscle contractions is signs and symptoms of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease can withstand heat, chemical, and radiation
PrPC has a largely alpha-helical structure (normally) There is a 'structured' region at the C-terminus and an 'UNSTRUCTURED' region at the amino-terminus is the structure of prions
____ is a slow, progressive zoonotic disease characterized by a fatal encephalitis. rabies
_____ begins with fever, nausea, vomiting, headache, fatigue, and Anxiety, agitation, muscle spasm, convulsions, hydrophobia. rabies
the primary reservoir for rabies is bats
wild mammals such as canines, skunks, raccoons, badgers, cats, and bats are reservoirs for rabies
causative transmission for rabies is rabies virus
the prevention for rabies is inactivated vaccine
Postexposure passive and active immunization; induced coma and ventilator support if symptoms have begun is treatment for rabies
clostridum tetani is the causative agent for teanus
tetanus transmission is paternal, direct contact
prevention for tetanus is tetanus immunization
Combination of passive antitoxin and tetanus toxoid active immunization, metronidazole; sedation is treatment for tetanus
another name for tetanus is lockjaw
____ makes the body have contraction, the muscles contract uncontrollably, resulting in spastic paralysis. tetanospasmin
____ is an intoxication (i.e., caused by an exotoxin) associated with eating poorly preserved foods botulism
botulinum toxin caused a side effect of flaccid paralysis
infant botulism is the most common kind of botulism in the usa
Food-borne, infant botulism, wound botulism, Improperly canned food, honey is the cause of infant botulism
______ outbreaks occur in home-processed foods, including canned vegetables, smoked meats, and cheese spreads food botulism
_____ are being reported in intravenous drug users as a result of needle puncture. wound botukism
Clostridium botulinum is the caustative for botulism
the transmission of botulism is vehicle, direct, parenteral
Food hygiene; toxoid immunization available for laboratory professionals is prevention for botulism
Antitoxin, Penicillin G for wound botulism, supportive care is treatment for botulism
1. Which pathogen has evolved to make its rodent host less avoidant of cats? a. Cryptococcus neoformans b. Neisseria meningitidis c. rabies virus d. Toxoplasma gondii D
4. What cellular structure do several of the organisms that cause meningitis share? a. capsule b. pilus c. fimbria d. endospore A
7. Which of the following organisms is anaerobic? a. poliovirus b. Cryptococcus c. Clostridium d. Coccidioides C
10. Which disease is caused by an infectious agent that carries no nucleic acid? a. CJD b. rabies c. polio d. meningitis A
13. The normal gut microbiota in adults, but not infants, inhibit the growth of which pathogen? a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium tetani d. Naegleria fowleri B
16. Subacute encephalitis can be caused by a. Toxoplasma gondii. b. Streptococcus agalactiae. c. Naegleria fowleri. d. Haemophilus influenza. A
19. Mosquito eradication could change the epidemiology of a. polio. b. Zika. c. West Nile. d. two of these D
1. A patient has been diagnosed with inflammation of the inner lining of the heart, secondary to a bacterial infection. What is the term for this condition? a. bacterial carditis b. endocarditis c. epicarditis d. myocarditis e. pericarditis B
Blood-borne components of nonspecific and specific immunity–including phagocytosis, specific immunity are defense components for cardiovascular system
blood stream infections are called systemic infections
WBC is a defense for Lymohatic system
viremia viruses in blood stream
fungemia fungi in blood
bacteremia bacteria in blood
when bacterial flourish and grow in the blood stream it is called septicemia
septicemia is also known as sepsos
Blood infec resultin in low blood pressure accompanied by a reduced amount of blood circulating to vital organs. Endotoxins of all gram-negative bacteria can cause shock, but most clinical cases are due to gram-negative enteric rods is septic shock
Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, P. knowlesi are causative agents for malaria
malaria transmission is biological vector (mosquito), vertical
prevention for malaria is mosquito control
Artemisinin, combination therapy, or chloroquine; consult WHO is treatment for malaria
malaria incubation period is 10-16 days
malaise, fatigue, vague aches, nausea, diarrhea, chills, fever, sweating are signs and symptoms for malaria
Complications of _______ are hemolytic anemia from lysed blood cells and organ enlargement and rupture due to cellular debris that accumulates in the spleen, liver, and kidneys malaria
a serious complication of malaria is cerebral malaria
malaria is what species protozoa
malaria is a major issue around the equator
P. falciparum persistent fever, cough, weakness
2. After returnin from international travel, a 4-year-old female is diagnosed with falciparum malaria. All of the following complications may be associated with this disease, except a.plenic rupture b.acute kidney injury c.AMS d.peptic ulcer e.anemia D
malaria has cycles of fever, chills, and sweating
Human immunodeficiency virus 1 or 2 is causative for HIV and AIDS
Direct contact (sexual), parenteral (blood-borne), vertical (perinatal and via breast milk) is transmission for HIV and AIDS
Avoidance of contact with infected sex partner, contaminated blood, breast milk; pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for high-risk individuals prevention for HIV and AIDS
Multiple simultaneous antiretroviral drugs is treatment is for HIV and AIDS
_____ symptoms may be fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, and neurological changes HIV and AIDS
ADIs stands for AIDS-defining illnessess
what cells does AIDS and HIV affect? T cells in blood
Enters mucous membrane and travels to dendritic cells HIV and AIDS stage 1
Grow and shed from dendritic cells HIV and AIDS stage 2
Amplification by macrophages HIV and AIDS stage 3
Infects and destroys CD4 cells, macrophages, monocytes, and B lymphocytes HIV and AIDS stage 4
diagnosis of endocarditis echocardiogram
____ Symptoms include fever, fatigue, joint pain, edema, weakness, anemia, abnormal heartbeat, and sometimes MI endocarditis
_____ may cause petechiae (small red-to-purple discolorations) endocarditis
Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, S. pneumoniae, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, others is causative for acute endocardititis
Alpha-hemolytic streptococci, others is causative for subacute endocardititis
acute endocarditis transmission is parental
subacute endocarditis is endogenous transfer of normal biota to bloodstream
aseptic surgery, and injections prevention is for acute endocarditis
Prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures is prevention for subactue endocarditis
Nafcillin or oxacillin +/− gentamicin or tobramycin OR vancomycin + gentamicin; surgery may be necessary. is treatment for acute endocarditis
treatment for subacute endocarditis is surgery
Acute onset, high fatality rate for acute endocarditis
acute endocarditis has a slower onset
causative agent for septicemia is bacteria, fungi, MRSA
septicemia transmission is parenteral, endogenous transfer
prevention for septicemia is none
Broad-spectrum antibiotic is treatment for septicemia
virulence factors for septicemia is cell wall or membrane components
Fever is a prominent feature of septicemia
fever, AMS, chills, GI symptoms, increased breathing rate, respiratory alkalossi, low blood pressure are signs and symptoms of septicemia
People who have suffered rheumatic fever and the accompanying damage to heart valves are particularly susceptible to this condition are predisposed to subacute endocarditis
Yersinia pestis causative for plague
transmission for plague is vector, biological, droplet, direct
prevention for the plague is flea/ animal control vaccine available
streptomycin or gentamicin is treatment for plague
plague incubation period last 2-8 days
fever, chills, headache, nausea, weakness, tenderness of bubo is signs and symptoms of plague
Infection causes inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node, resulting in a swollen lesion called a bubo
fleas are bubonic
Francisella tularensis causative for tularemia
tularemia can be transmitted by biological vecot (tick), direct, airborne
Avoiding contact; postexposure prophylaxis is prevention for tularemia
Gentamicin or streptomycin (antibiotic therapy) is treatment for tularemia
incubation period for tularemia is days-3 weeks
Aches, chills, weakness, fever, swollen lymph nodes, portal of entry issues, , skin lesions, conjuctival inflmmation, sore throat, intestinal disruption, pulmonary involvement is signs and symptoms for tularemia
3.at a clinic for pts infected with Hiv Rn provides edu bout ADIs Which are characterized as ADIs? all that apply. a.Kaposi’s sarcoma b.Tuberculosis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis c.Brucellosis d.Acute lymphocytic leukemia e.HIV encephalopathy A, B, E
Nerves are Bundles of enzymes
Naglia is Bundles of cell body
Protection of neurons is -Nutrition -liquid cushion
Protective layer of brain -crainal bones (skull) -meninges -csf
Protection of spinal cord -verterbal column -menings -csf
Borrelia burgdorferi and closely related species causative agent for Lyme disease
Transmission of lyme disease is Biological vector (tick)
Prevention of lyme disease is Avoid ticks
Doxycycline and/or amoxicillin (2 weeks), also cephalosporins and penicillin treatment for Lyme disease
Rash (erythema migrans), raised reddish ring, fever, headache, stiff neck, dizziness are signs and symptoms of Lyme disease
Bacterial meningitis has Bacterial capsules
Long term complications of lyme disease Facial palsy. Arthritis, chronic cardiovascular and neurological problems
Bacterial meningitis has red/purple spots on skin from Broken blood vessels
Causative for infectious mononucleosis is Epstein barred virus (ebv)
Infectious mononucleosis transmission is Direct, indirect, parental
Virulence factors for infectious mononucleosis is Incorporate in host dna
Prevention for infectious mononucleosis is None
Treatment for infectious mononucleosis is None
Most commonly infectious mononucleosis affects Teens
Sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, leukocytosis hepato/ splenomegaly, FATIGUE, enlarged spleen and liver are signs and symptoms for Infectious mononucleosis
Incubation period for infectious mononucleosis is 30-50 days
Infectious mononucleosis increases and affects WBC, b&t cells
Infectious mononucleosis is also called Mono
A person (90% of world) when infected the virus Infectious mononucleosis stays with them Forever
Causative of yellow fever is Yellow fever
Causative of dengue is Dengue fever
Causative of chikungunya is Chikungunya disease
Causative of Ebola is Ebola virus
Causative of lassa fever is Lassa fever
Yellow fever transmission Biological vector (mosquitoes)
Dengue transmission Biological vector (mosquitoes)
Chikungunya transmission is Biological vector (mosquitoes)
Ebola/marburg transmission is Direct contact body fluids
Lassa fever transmission Droplet contact (rodent exertion) direct contact with infected fluids
Virulence factors for yellow fever Disrupt clotting factor
Virulence factors for dengue Disrupts clotting factors
Virulence factors for chikungunya is Disrupt clotting factors
Virulence factors of ebola Disrupts clotting factors
Virulence factors of lassa fever is Disrupt clotting factors
Prevention for yellow fever Live vaccine
Prevention for dengue None
Prevention for chimungunya None
Prevention for ebola Vaccine
Prevention for lassa fever is Avoid rats, safe food storage
Treatment for yellow fever None
Treatment for dengue None
Treatment for chikungunya is None
Treatment for ebola is None
Treatment for lassa fever is Ribavirin
tularemia is also called rabbit fever
diagnosis for ________ Clinical, ELISA, PCR lyme disease
yellow fever is an endemic in africa, south america
Fever, chills, improvement and reoccurrence, Vomiting of hemorrhaged, clotted blood signs and symptoms for yellow fever
yellow fever attacks the ___ cells and is accompanied by ____ liver, jaundice
dengue fever is also called breakbone fever
Fever, headache, severe muscle and joint pain, measles-like rash. signs and symptoms of dengue fever
Fever, joint pains (long-lasting), maculopapular rash signs and symptoms of chikungunya
chikungunya is an endemic in africa
Massive hemorrhaging – Extreme capillary fragility – Patients bleed from their orifices and mucous membranes Death due to DIC, hypotension, necrosis leading to multiple organ shutdown are signs and symptoms for ebola fever
brucellosis is also known as malta fever, undulant fever, bangs disease
focal lesion in liver, spleen, bone marrow, kidney, fever, joint and muscle pain, weight loss, belly pain is signs and symptoms for brucellosis
B. melitensis, B.abortus, B. sois, Brucella is also called brucellosis
transmission for brucellosis is direct, indirect, inhalation (lab)
reservoirs for brucellosis is live stock, wild animals, dogs
incubation period for brucellosis is 5-60 days
prevention for brucellosis is avoid raw meat or unpasteruized milk
treatment for brucellosis is antibiotics
Damaged skin or mucus membranes Undulant fever, lesions on organs, muscle aches signs and symptoms for brucellosis
brucellosis is an occupational illness for farmers and butchers
4.pt with a tick bite surrounded by rash has fever, lethargy & headache. Whichof followin shows understandin? a.take my antiviral meds b.My family is at risk of contractin from me c. If progresses I may develop a facial droop d.preventable with a vac C
Coxiella Burnetti is causative for Q fever
fever, chills, head and muscle ache, and, occasionally, a rash signs and symptoms for q fever
Airborne, foodborne, direct contact with animal parts, fluids, wastes etc is tranmissions for Q fever
people at high risk for Q fever is farm workers, butchers, vets, lab, raw milk
Q fever can be treated with doxycycline
Bartonella henselae image G causative for cat scratch disease
transmission for cat sratch disease is parenteral (cat scratch or bite)
Virulence factors for cat scratch is endotoxin
prevention for cat scratch is clean wound sites, control fleas
treatment for cat scratch is azithromycin
who is most at risk with cat scratch children
incubation period for cat scratch is 1-2 weeks
cat scratch has what at infection site small papules
Ehrlichia species image G causative for ehrlichiosis
_____ is a small intracellular parasitic bacterium in ticks Ehrlichia
Fever with headache, muscle pain, chills S&S for ehrlichiosis
Anaplasma species causative for anaplasmosis
Babesia species causative for babesiosis
Rickettsia rickettsii image G causative for rocky mountain spotted fever
____ a small intracellular bacterium anaplasma
babesiosis transmission is biological vector (tick)
rocky mountain spotted fever transmission is biological vector (tick)
Induces apoptosis in cells lining blood vessels is a virulence factor for rocky mountain spotted fever
babesiosis prevention is avoid ticks
rocky mountain spotted fever prevention is avoid ticks
treatment for babesiosis is therapy antibacterial and antiprotozoal
treatment for rocky mountain spotted fever is doxycycline
_____ A protozoan with infects RBCs is babesiosis
Fever, chills, muscle pain, headache, rash Untreated lesions become enlarged, necrotic – Gangrene of toes or fingertips signs and symptoms of rocky mountain spotted fever
Serious manifestations of ______ - Cardiovascular disruptions and neurologic effects rocky mountain spotted fever
Trypanosoma cruzi causative agent for chagas disease
transmission of chagas disease is biological vetor triatomine bug, vertical because it crosses placenta, blood transfusion with infected blood
virulence factors of chagas disease is co-opting host antigens induces autoimmunity
Acute Phase – fever, nausea, fatigue Chronic Phase – organ inflammation/dysfunction such as in heart, brain and intestinal tract signs and symptoms of chagas
chagas has no treatment or prevention
Bacillus anthracis is a causative agent for anthrax
Vehicle (air, soil), indirect contact (animal hides), vehicle (food) is transmission for anthrax
virulence factors for anthrax is triple exotoxin
prevention for anthrax is vaccine
_____ has Endospore forming bacterium and 3 exotoxins, hemolysins, capsule anthrax
Site specific + headache, fever, malaise Bleeding from intestine, mucous membranes, orifices signs and symptoms for anthrax
Culturing bacteria on blood agar, gram stain, Ab testing is testing for anthrax
1. Which of the following microbes have evolved an intracellular life style? a. Bacillus anthracis b. Coxiella burnetii c. MRSA d. two of these B
4. Which of the following is a G+ bacterium? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Borrelia burgdorferi c. Coxiella burnetii d. Trypanosoma cruzi A
7. Which of the following diseases is characterized by the formation of a biofilm? a. plague b. HIV c. endocarditis d. Chagas disease C
10. Which of the following diseases is caused by a retrovirus? a. Lassa fever b. Ebola c. anthrax d. HIV D
13. The bite of a tick can cause a. ehrlichiosis. b. Lyme disease. c. anaplasmosis. d. all of these. D
16. Normal biota found in the oral cavity are most likely to cause a. acute endocarditis. b. subacute endocarditis. c. malaria. d. tularemia. B
19. Lyme disease is most likely to occur in a. North Dakota. b. Connecticut. c. Oklahoma. d. Arkansas. B
5. Early lesions in Rocky Mountain spotted fever may resemble the rash of a. measles. b. chickenpox. c. rubella. d. Lyme disease. A
conjunctivitis is also called pink eye
neisseria meningitides has IgA protease
streptococcus pneumoniae is also called pneumococcal meningitis
streptococcus pneumoniae produces Hemolysin H2O2
hemolysin H2O2 damages the nervous system
The causative factor for brucellosis is B.mitensis, b.abortus, b.suis
Brucellosis is also known as Malta fever, undulant fever or bang's disease
Brucellosis reservoirs are Livestock, dogs, wild animals
The incubation period for brucellosis is 5-60 days
Focal lesion in liver, spleen, bone marrow, kidney,fever, joint and muscle pain, weight loss, fatigue, belly pain are signs and symptoms of Brucellosis
Brucellosis transmission is Direct, in direct, inhalation( lab setting)
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