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micro 125 test 4
dtcc
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| methods microbiologists use to identify bacteria to the level of genus and species fall into three main categories: | 1. Phenotypic 2. immunologic 3. genotypic |
| _____ which includes a consideration of morphology (microscopic and macroscopic) as well as bacterial physiology or biochemistry; | phenotypic |
| _____ which entails serological analysis; using antibodies, or of patients’ antibodies using prepackaged antigens | immunologic |
| ____ (or genetic) techniques; Analysis of microbe’s DNA or RNA | genotypic |
| _____ is defined as what types of enzymatic activities it can carry out, what kind of physical conditions it thrives in, what antibiotics it is susceptible to, and the chemical composition of its walls and/or membranes. | behavior |
| _____ methods of identifying microbes involve examining their appearance and their behavior. | phenotypic |
| ____ one immune response to antigens is the production of antibodies, which are designed to bind tightly to specific antigens. | immunologic |
| 1.A RN is trainin a new nurse abt Consequences of improper collection may include all of the followin, except. a delay in appropriate treatment. b.pt to an unnecessary proc. c.repeat the test. d.puttin other pts at risk e.puttin the pt at risk | D |
| 2.A clinical form used to report data on a patient’s specimens may include? a.antibiotic history. b.patient symptoms. c.marital status. d.date and time of specimen collection. e.a, b, and d. f.b, c, and d. | E |
| The Gram stain and the acid-fast stain are most often used for _______ identification. | bacterial |
| In cases in which the suspected pathogen is present in small numbers or is easily overgrown by normal biota, the specimen can be initially enriched with _______. | specialized media |
| Specimens are often inoculated into ______ media to identify definitive characteristics, such as reactions in blood (blood agar) and fermentation patterns | differential |
| Knowing which ______ an isolate has can often lead to its identity. | enzymes |
| Many of these tests are based on ______ metabolic reactions that are visualized by a color change. | enzyme-mediated |
| _____ of the enzyme is made visible by a colored dye; no coloration means it lacks the enzyme for utilizing the substrate in that particular way. | microbial expression |
| Unknown microbe + Substrate -> Enzyme present in microbe -> | products formed, color changes, + results |
| unknown microbe + Substrate -> Enzyme absent in microbe -> | no product formed, color does not change, - results |
| what is aseptic technique? | to reduce or remove the number of harmful microorganisms |
| why is aseptic technique important? | to avoid contamination |
| _____ is taken by washing the external urethra and collecting the urine midstream | clean catch |
| ___ is first voided | dirty catch |
| ____ is to avoid contamination with saliva | catheter |
| ____ and ____ are sterile collection | cerebro spinal fluid and tissue fluid |
| the best time to get a sputum sample is? | waking up |
| what samples should not be refrigerated? (3) | 1. CSF 2. genital specimens 3. anaerobes |
| for phenotypic methods + results is when | product formed, color change |
| direct examination is mainly used for | acid-fast stain and bacterial identification |
| such as ____ and ____, are cultured on _____ media to encourage the growth of only the suspected pathogen. | urine and feces, selective |
| 3. clinical significance of cultures a.# micro is significance b.1 colony may indicate presence if culture comes from sterile site c.isolation of a relativ pure culture can mean disease (not always) d.range of tests may be needed e.all above are true | E |
| ______ methods can have 2 drawbacks (1)microbe has to be cultured, takes 18 to 24 hrs often longer (2)we are learnin that many infectious cond may be caused by nonculturable organisms, leavin open that the organism that we do culture is a bystander. | phenotypic |
| ____ microscopy of pt specimens usually after staining | direct examination |
| ____ is the branch of immunology that traditionally deals with in vitro diagnostic testing of serum. | Serology |
| PCR (polymease chain reaction) amplifies | DNR/RNA |
| _____ property of test to focus on specific antibody or antigen not to react w/ unrelated ones | specificity |
| ____ detection of even a little bit of antibody/ antigen | sensitivity |
| without specificity and sensitivity together you will get a | false + or - |
| ____ antibody- mediated clumping of whole cells | agglutination |
| ___ smaller complexes of antibody- antigen | precipitation |
| titers are | antibody concentration, antigen-antibody reaction is liquid |
| ____ Determined by serially diluting patient serum in tubes of a microtiter plate all having equal amounts of bacterial cells, or antigen. | titer |
| what does a titer tell us about a pt | Autoimmune disorders and past exposure to diseases. |
| ____ uknown specimen is exposed to known fluorescent ab (fab)of known composition | direct fluorescent antibodies |
| ____ patients antibody (its fc portion) probed with fluorescent ab recognize Fc region of antibodies in patient sera | indirect fluorescent antibodies |
| ____ sandwiching technique using ag, ab, and a secondary ab to produce a color change | elisa |
| ____ is based on molecular weight | western blot |
| Western Blot looks for proteins using | labeled antibodies |
| Western Blot is extremely | sensitive and specific |
| Western Blot helps identify reaction between | antibody & antigens |
| ___ is the second verification test for antibody | + HIV screening/ testing |
| invitro | lab |
| invibo | in body |
| ____ antigen introduced into a pt to elicit a reaction as in TB skin test | in vivo test |
| _____ is an antigen-antibody technique for identifying, classifying, and subgrouping certain bacteria into categories called serotypes. | Serotyping |
| How are biochemicaltests usually visualized? | color change |
| What do they tell us about a microbe? | if enzymes is present |
| · What is the advantage of genotypic/DNA analysis of samples? | no culture needed uses fast testing |
| ____ is a technique that makes it possible to identify a microbe by analyzing segments of its genetic material. | hybridization |
| ____ particularly useful for rapid analysis of outbreaks and drug-resistant organisms. | whole- genome sequencing |
| What indicates apositive result for agglutination and precipitation tests? | clumping |
| Microarrays is | multiple diseases on a single chip |
| Nucleic acid sequencing is ___ or ____. This test is ______. | Dna or RNA Fast and accurate |
| Nucleic acid sequencing is good for __ and new ____ of resistant bacteria | outbreaks and new strains |
| Mass Spectrometry uses ___ or ____ | pure culture or pt sample |
| Mass spectrometry determines structure and | chemical composition |
| Mass spectrometry can detect | antibiotic susceptibilities |
| ____ has rapid and highly accurate microbial identification in minutes | mass spectrometry |
| ____ Sterile specimen containers and other tools to prevent contamination from the environment or the patient. To protect patients from harmful bacteria and other pathogens during medical procedures, healthcare providers use aseptic technique. | asepsis/aseptic |
| why is aseptic technique important | prevent contamination |
| What is meant by "correct sample"? | The right procedure for the right body part. |
| In what situation is this especially difficult to ensure the correct sample? | Difficult when patient collects their own sample. |
| What methods are used to collect microbes from different areas of the body? | 1. saliva 2. sputum 3. throat/ naso 4. urine 5. mucous lining 6. skin leasion 7. sterile materials 8. eye/ear/nasal cavity 9. non sterile samples |
| _____ undesirable bc millions of bacteria and most normal biota. Expectorate in a container. | saliva |
| ____ discharged by coughing or with a catheter to avoid contamination with saliva. | sputum |
| ___ swabs should not touch the tongue/cheeks/saliva | throat/ naso |
| _____ may be swabbed or scraped with scalpel. Wounds are cleansed prior to swabbing to avoid collection normal biota. | skin lesion |
| ____ sterile needle aspiration and antisepsis of the puncture site is crucial. | sterile materials |
| Eye/ear/nasal cavity- ____ | swab |
| What is the function of a culturette? | Sterile transport swab w/carrier (moistened) |
| What procedure needs to be done before any blood collection or other needle aspiration sampling technique? | Find vein, clean area / iodine or chlorahexidine |
| _____ Most rapid method of determining presumptive and sometimes confirmatory microbial characteristics. Gram stain and acid fast stain most used for bacterial id. | direct examinations |
| What category of media is used to isolate a particular group of organisms from others in the culture? What type of culture (pure or mixed) do we attempt to obtain from samples? | Selective media. Pure culture |
| How are biochemical tests usually visualized? | Enzyme-mediated metabolic reactions that are visualized by a color change. |
| What do they tell us about a microbe? | show color change, no coloration means it lacks the enzyme for utilizing the substrate in that particular way. |
| What role does the dichotomous key play? | DK are flow charts that trace the identification. |
| What are some of the things that tell us a microbe is the cause of a disease rather than a stray part of the normal flora? | The # of microbes in a specimen. The presence of a single colony of a true pathogen is highly suggestive of it's role in disease. |
| Another way to ask this: what tells us that a microbial sample is clinically significant? | The repeated isolation of a relatively pure culture of any microorganism can mean it is an agent of disease. |
| Culturing of the microorganism is not always necessary. They are increasingly automated, producing rapid results that are often more precise than phenotypic methods is the advantage of ____ | genotypic/ DNA analysis |
| ____ Amplifies minute quantities of nucleic acids present in a sample, greatly improving the sensitivity of these tests | function of PCR |
| _____- Analyzes short segments of DNA Involves the separation of DNA that's too large for conventional gel electrophoresis. applying alternating voltage levels to the el from 3 dif directions, allowing even similarly sized DNA fragments to fully separate. | pulsed-field gel electrophoresis |
| Serological testing is based on the interaction between ____________ and ____________. | Antigens and antibodies |
| What type(s) of samples can we use to run these tests | Test sera, as urine, cerebrospinal fluid, whole tissues, and saliva. |
| What property of antibodies makes them especially useful in testing? | quantity and specificity |
| ____ focuses only on certain antibody or antigen and not to react with unrelated/distantly related ones (the degree to which a test does not falsely detect people who don't have a | specificity |
| What two properties do the most effective serologic tests share? | Specificity and sensitivity. |
| ____ refers to the detection of even minute quantities of antibodies or antigens in a specimen, and reflects the degree to with a test will detect every positive person. | sensitivity |
| What is detected by antibodies in a Western blot? | proteins |
| What is the primary tool in Immunofluorescence testing? | A fluorescent antibody. |
| What does a radioimmunoassay (RIST or RAST) use for detection? | hormone levelw |
| What does a radioimmunoassay (RIST or RAST) What are these tests usually used for? | to diagnose allergies in patients. |
| ____ detects microbe specific antibodies in patient sera. | indirect elisa |
| _____ test, a known antibody is absorbed to the bottom of a well and incubated with an unknown antigen. | direct elisa |
| _____ designed for infectious disease diagnosis are "chips" that contain gene sequences fro potentially thousands of different possible infectious agents, based on the syndrome being investigated. | micoarrays |
| _____ is particularly useful for rapid analysis of outbreaks and drug-resistant organisms and has led to the creation of next-generation sequencing technologies. | nucleic acid sequencing |
| _____ used to determine structure and composition of various chemical compounds and biological molecules. Can be used to analyze a protein fingerprint from pure culture isolates or directly from patient specimens. | mass spectrometry (MALDI TOF) |
| ____ MRI, PET, CT sans have been increasingly employed to find areas of localized infection in deep tissue. If no infections found, the patient still avoided invasive procedure. It's considered the old was of diagnosing infection. | imaging |
| What are the natural defenses of the skin? (5) | keratinized surface, sloughing, low pH, high salt, lyzozyme |
| ____ Positively charged chemicals that act by disrupting the negatively charged membranes of bacteria. | antimicrobial peptides |
| ____ Chiefly responsible for keeping the microbial count on the skin relatively low | antimicrobial peptides |
| _____ Low pH makes the skin inhospitable to microorganisms - Oily due to its high concentration of lipids - Lipids serve as nutrients to microbiota | sebum |
| ____ Toxic byproducts of fatty acid metabolism inhibit the growth of microorganisms not adapted to the skin environment. | sebum |
| ____ Inhibitory to microorganisms due to low pH and high salt concentration | sweat |
| ____ Enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva - Specifically breaks down peptidoglycan found in the cell walls of bacteria | LYSOZYME |
| one mechanism that protects the eyes? | lacrimal apparatus |
| ____ a group of structures that manufactures and drains tears | lacrimal apparatus |
| _____ Group A, beta hemolytic (GABHS) | strept pyogenes |
| ____ usually occurs in clusters | staph aureus |
| These are all a form of pyoderma puerperal sepsis cellulitis post-surgical wound infection pneumonia (rare) necrotizing fasciitis | Strept pyogenes |
| - coagulase positive - MRSA -VISA, VRSA | staph aureus |
| These are all bacteremia endocarditis pneumonia osteomyelitis septic arthritis food poisioning | staph aureus |
| respiratory, skin, bloodstream diseases | strept pyogenes |
| skin and deep-seated infections and diseases | staph aureus |
| 1. A nurse in burn care is educating a ns about skin variations. the thickest skin is found on the _________ and the thinnest is on the __________. a.chest; cheeks b.buttocks; nose c.plantar of the foot; eyelids d.abdomen; dorsum of the hands | c |
| 2. peds pt with ruddy checks and a fever of 101°F. The mom states that child has been acting normal, but now she notices a slight rash, mainly on the torso. Which disease do you suspect? a.measles b.fifth disease c.rubella d.roseola e.scarlet fever | b |
| what is the causative agent of measles | measles virus |
| How are Measles transmitted? | droplet contact |
| • Appear within 14 days of infection • High fever, cough, runny nose, and red, watery eyes • Characteristic rash usually appears within 3 to 5 days • Koplik's spot This is signs and symptoms of ____ | measles |
| What is the vaccine for Measles | MMR |
| measles has no | treatment |
| _____ • In 6% of the cases, the virus can cause pneumonia. • 1 in one million cases develop Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis: progressive neurological degeneration of the cerebral cortex. | measles |
| measles is also known as | rubeola |
| _____ that erupts on the head and then progresses to the trunk and extremities until most of the body is covered (figure 16.5). The rash gradually coalesces into red patches that fade to brown. | red maculopapular exanthem |
| The most serious complication of ______ is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE), | measles |
| skin, hair nails, sweat glands, and oil glands forms the ______ ______ | integumentary system |
| measles, rubella, & fifth disease are transmitted principally by _________ _______ | respiratory droplets |
| the measles rash progresses by | head to body |
| the causative agent for rubella is | rubella virus |
| ____ pathogenesis infects Upper respiratory tract and then spreads to lymph nodes -this is followed by virema which spreads through the body | rubella |
| _____ - pink or light spots -ITCHY -lasts up to three days | rubella rash |
| _____ mild fever, flat rash, congenital rubella syndrome | rubella |
| who are particularly dangerous for rubella | pregnant women, and infants |
| ____ A rash of pink macules and papules first appears on the face and progresses down the trunk and toward the extremities, advancing and resolving in about 3 days. The rash is milder looking than the measles rash | postnatal rubella |
| ___ a fetus in utero can result in a serious complication called congenital rubella, can cause miscarriage or defects most common being deafness | congenital rubella |
| ____ adults are joint inflammation, pain | rubella |
| fifth disease is also known as | erythema infectiosum |
| what is the causative agent of fifth disease | parvovirus b19, virus |
| ____ signs and symptoms of mild disease that results in a slapped cheek appearance, begins on face rash may occur for several weeks and may be brought on by any activity that increases body heat | fifth disease |
| What is the vaccine for rubella | MMR |
| what is the vaccine for fifth disease | none |
| what is the treatment for fifth disease | none |
| roseola is also known as | sixth disease |
| ___ rash looks like “Slapped-face” rash first, spreads to limbs and trunk, tends to be confluent rather than distinct bumps | fifth disease |
| causative agent of roseola | human herpes virus 6, virus |
| signs and symptoms of _____ can result in a maculopapular rash, but 70% cases do not have rash | roseola |
| rubella is also known as | german measles |
| High fever with a maculopapular rash that FOLLOWS FEVER resolution signs and syptoms of | roseola |
| transmission of roseola | direct contact |
| prevention of roseola | none |
| potential complications from roseola | seizures |
| 3.A pt has been diag. with impetigo but has been noncompliant with medical treatment. What complication is associated with untreated impetigo? a.future antibiotic allergies b.measles c.increased likelihood of roseola d.glomerulonephritis e.septicemia | d |
| ______ can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes, and some cases are probably caused by a mixture of the two | impetigo |
| ____ looks variously like peeling skin, crusty and flaky scabs, or honey colored crusts. often around mouth, face, extremities, but can be anywhere on the body | impetigo |
| transmission of impetigo is | direct or indirect contact |
| Impetigo can be prevented by | proper hygiene |
| topical mupirocin or retapamulin, oral dicloxacillin, is treatment for | impetigo |
| impetigo staph aureus is more prevalent in | older children, adults |
| impetigo stepto pyogenes is more prevalent in | newborns |
| _____ An enzyme that digests hyaluronic acid and thereby permits the penetration of pathogens through connective tissue. | hyaluronidase |
| _____ -Test used to distinguish different types of staphylococcus -conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin which causes clotting of blood or plasma | coagulase |
| _____ which digests blood clots; a nuclease that digests DNA (DNase); and lipases that help the bacteria colonize oily skin surfaces. | staphylokinase |
| ____ is flat to slightly raised colored bump | exanthem |
| Roseola is also known as | HHV-6 |
| Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, Other bacteria or fungi are causative agents for _____ | cellulitis |
| Fever and swelling of the lymph nodes. Lymphangitis: are signs and symptoms of | cellulitis |
| parenteral implantation is the mode of transmission for | cellulitis |
| what is the prevention and/or vaccination for cellulitis? | none |
| the treatment for cellulitis is | oral or IV antibiotic |
| the causative agent for scalded skin syndrome is | staphy Aureus |
| scalded skin syndrome can be transmitted by | direct contact, droplet contact |
| scalded skin syndrome can be treated with immediate | antibiotics (cloxacillin) |
| a distinguishing feature of scalded skin syndrome is | split in skin within epidermis |
| scalded skin syndrome can be prevented by eliminating carriers in contact with | neonates |
| ______ affects mostly newborns and babies | scalded skin syndrome |
| Blisters, Fever, Large areas of skin peel or fall away (exfoliation or desquamation), painful skin, redness of the skin. are signs and symptoms of | scalded skin syndrome |
| Chicken pox is caused by? | Human Herpesvirus 3 (HH3) or varicella |
| small pox is caused by? | variola virus |
| Chickenpox can by transmitted by | droplet, inhalation, and lesion fluid |
| Smallpox can be transmitted by | droplet and indirect contact |
| What is the prevention for Chicken pox and Small Pox? | live virus vaccine |
| what is the treatment for chicken pox? | none |
| What is the treatment for Small pox? | Tecovirimat, cidofovir |
| _____ Incubation period of 10-20 days, lasts 4-7 days, | chicken pox |
| Fever and rash on the scalp, face, trunk, extremities, Skin lesions progress from merciless and papules to itchy vesicles filled with a clear fluid then encrust and drop off, 0.1% of cases are followed by encephalopathy are signs and symptoms for ___ | chicken pox |
| Characteristic asymmetrical distribution of rush on the skin of the trunk or head, Inflammation of the angle and nerve pathways cause pain and tenderness for several months, eye inflammation and ocular and facial paralysis signs and symptoms of | shingles |
| the shingles vaccine is? | zostafax |
| After recuperation from chickenpox, the virus enters into the sensory nerve endings of cutaneous spinal nerve branches, especially those that serve the skin of the chest and head. From there, it becomes latent in the ganglia and may reemerge as ____ | singles virus |
| shingles is sometimes referred to as the | herpes zoster |
| ____ ____ enters the respiratory tract, attaches to respiratory mucosa, and then invades and enters the bloodstream. | chicken pox |
| 4.pt has shingles. Followin educ 4 pt al of the statements r true bout shingles but: a.varicella virus may stay latent in the ganglia of nerve b.eye inflam & facial paralysis c.stress can reactivate d.bein exposed to fluid in shingles lesions | d |
| Who is most likely to get shingles? | older than 60 |
| antiviral drugs, drugs for pain; wet compresses, calamine lotion, oatmeal baths; strong anti-inflammatory corticosteroids to reduce swelling are all treatments for | shingles |
| chicken pox is also called? | varicella zoster |
| ____ rash can appear anywhere on the body but will only be on one side of the body, the left or right. It will be in a band, a strip, or a small area | shingles |
| Prodrome period of high fever and malaise, rash emerges in the mouth, severe abdominal and back pain, rash spreads throughout the body within 24 hours signs and symptoms of | small pox |
| small pox was eradicated in | 1977 |
| we still vaccine for small pox because of | terrorist attacks |
| _____ the rash is macular, evolving in turn to papular, vesicular, and pustular before eventually crusting over, | small pox |
| _____ is a highly virulent form that causes toxemia, shock, and intravascular coagulation. | variola major |
| for _____ rash bumps become larger and fill with a thick opaque fluid. | small pox |
| the causative agent for leishmaniasis is | Leishmania spp |
| the causative agent for cutaneous anthrax is | bacillus anthracis |
| cause of transmission of Leishmaniasis is | biological vector (sand fly)(zoonosis) |
| the cause of transmission of cutaneous anthrax is | direct contact with endospores |
| Leishmaniasis: Prevention | avoid sand flies |
| ____ Multiplication within macrophages | Leishmaniasis |
| prevention of cutaneous anthrax | avoid contact, yes vaccine |
| Sodium stibogluconate, pentamidine is treatment for | Leishmaniasis |
| Ciprofloxacin, plus two additional antibiotics is treatment for | cutaneous anthrax |
| Mucocutaneous and systemic forms in ____ | Leishmaniasis |
| Cutaneous anthrax can be | fatal |
| Leishmaniasis is and endemic to ____ | equatorial regions |
| ____ a skin ulcer develops called an oriental sore. The ulcer heals after a year leaving a depigmented scar | Leishmaniasis |
| How is cutaneous Leishmaniasis diagnosed? | Stained skin-scraping from the ulcer base |
| Leishmaniasis is left untreated is | deadly |
| is Leishmaniasis goes beyond the skin it will | multiply within the cells of the RES |
| ____ lesion is Initially, a small, papular, pruritic lesion that resembles an insect bite (becomes increasingly necrotic then ruptures to form a black eschar) | cutaneous anthrax |
| ring worm is also know as | dermatophytes |
| ringworm has the ability to digest | keratin |
| ringworm can be transmitted by | direct contact |
| ______ therapy is a topical, antifungal agents. | ring worm |
| Darkening skin, peeling, red rashes, scaly patches, itchy scalp, and hair loss. signs and symptoms of | ring worm |
| ring worm can be transmitted by | direct contact |
| how to prevent ringworm | do not share anything that touches your skin |
| tinea capitis | ring worm of scalp |
| tinea barbae | ringworm of beard |
| tinea corporis | ringworm of the body |
| tinea cruis is | ring worm of groin |
| tinea pedis | ring worm of foot |
| tinea unguium | ringworm of nail |
| cutaneous anthrax Is also known as | woolsorters disease |
| the causative agents for superficial infections (tinea versicolor) is | malassezia species (yeast) |
| pink eye" Milky discharge- bacterial infections Clear, watery exudate- viral infections sings and symptoms | superficial mycoses (Tinea versicolor) |
| superficial infections (Tinea versicolor) is transmitted by | endogenous (normal biota) |
| prevention for superficial infections (Tinea Versicolor) is | none |
| the treatment for superficial infections (Tinea Versicolor) is | topical antifungals |
| ____ is a very thin membranelike tissue that covers the eye (except for the cornea) and lines the eyelids. | conjunctiva |
| ____ is the dome-shaped central portion of the eye lying over the iris | cornea |
| 5.pt has milky discharge from right eye in the mornin he felt as if his eyes were tightly shut.priority action taken is to a. ask pt if he used any diff products on face b.flush eye with sterile water c.perform an exam d. note allergies to food or med | c |
| neonatal conjunctivitis causative agent is | chlamydia, trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
| Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus epidermidis, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella, and also Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis is a causative agent of | bacterial conjunctivitis |
| viral conjunctivitis causative agents are | adenoviruses and others |
| neonatal conjunctivitis transmission is | vertical |
| bacterial conjunctivitis transmission is | direct or indirect contact |
| viral conjunctivitis transmission is | direct or indirect contact |
| Screen mothers, apply antibiotic ophthalmic solution to newborn eyes is prevention for | neonatal conjunctivitis |
| bacterial conjunctivitis prevention is | hygiene |
| viral conjunctivitis prevention is | hygiene |
| treatment for neonatal conjunctivitis is | topical and oral antibiotics |
| Trimethoprim/polymyxin B for routine cases; azithromycin or levofloxacin for more serious cases is treatment for | bacterial conjunctivitis |
| viral conjunctivitis treatment is | none |
| redness, puffiness, itching, feeling of foreign object in the eye, sensitivity to light, burning or scratching sensation, discharge signs and symptoms of | conjunctivitis |
| ____ produce a milky discharge | conjunctivitis bacterial |
| _____ infections tend to produce a clear watery exudate. | conjunctivitis viral |
| the causative agent of keratitis is | herpes simplex virus |
| Reactivation of latent virus, although primary infections can occur in the eye is how ____ transmits | keratitis |
| what is the prevention of keratitis | none |
| the treatment for keratitis is | topical trifluridine +/- oral acyclovir |
| Keratitis damage can lead to complete | corneal destruction |
| blindeness due to ___ is the leading infectious cause of blindness in the usa | herpes |
| _____ has been causing serious keratitis cases, especially in people who wear contact lenses. | amoeba/ acanthamoeba |
| 1. Red eye 2. Sensation of something, like sand, in the eye 3. Pain 4. Sensitivity to light 5. Watery eye 6. Blurred vision 7. Difficulty keeping the eyelids open are signs and symptoms of | keratitis |
| 1. Which of the following infectious agents has evolved to maintain a persistent state in its host? a. variola virus b. herpes virus c. vaccinia virus d. Staphylococcus aureus | d |
| 4. What is an antimicrobial enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva that can break down bacterial cell walls? a. lysozyme b. beta-lactamase c. catalase d. hyaluronidase | a |
| 7. Which of the following organisms produces an enzyme that breaks down hydrogen peroxide? a. Streptococcus pyogenes b. Staphylococcus aureus c. MRSA d. two of these | c |
| 10. Which of these techniques has detected the larger number of normal microbiota on skin surfaces? a. culturing b. 16s rRNA sequencing c. antibody probing d. gel electrophoresis | a |
| 13. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be a polymicrobial infection? a. measles b. rubella c. leishmaniasis d. impetigo | b |
| 16. Staphylococcus aureus is part of the differential diagnosis of which of the following diseases? a. impetigo b. maculopapular rash c. both of these d. neither of these | a |
| 19. Which steps of the diag process are in order? a. Diff diag, anatomic diag, etiologic diag b. Anatomic diagnosis, etiologic diagnosis, differential diagnosis c. Anatomic diagnosis, differential diagnosis, etiologic diagnosis d. none of these | D |
| 1. When using pulsed-field gel electrophoresis, mutations in a microbe’s genome will show up as a. a different pattern of bands. b. nonfluorescent bands. c. missing bands. d. all of these. | a |
| 4. Mass spectrometry identifies microbes via a. fluorescent antibodies. b. cell surface carbohydrates. c. protein fingerprints. d. DNA profiling. | c |
| 7. Which category of diagnosis is represented by studying a microbe’s utilization of nutrients? a. phenotypic b. genotypic c. immunologic d. none of these | a |
| 10. Which of the following diagnostic techniques is most likely to be affected by changes in growth conditions of the specimen? a. phenotypic b. immunologic c. genotypic | a |
| 13. Which of the following techniques is most likely to reveal that an infection is in biofilm form? a. ELISA b. whole-genome sequencing c. PFGE d. imaging | d |
| 16. T or F: Bacterial infection causes the expression of different human genes than does viral infection. a. T b. F | a |
| 19. A test that results in a very large number of false positives probably has an unacceptable level of a. sensitivity. b. specificity. | a |
| Bony structures, blood-brain barrier, microglial cells, and macrophages are the defenses of the | nervous system |
| the normal biota of the nervous system is | none |
| 1.immunologically privileged means a.CNS can mount a partial response wen faced w/immunologic challenge b.CNS is impervious organisms c.CNS is protected against organisms by blood-brain barrier d.immuneresponse of CNS is superior to other body sites | A |
| 2.significance of blood-brain barrier w/med admin? a.absorption in CNS b.penetrate barrier to reach the CNS c.nonpermeable membrane and as such prevents absorption d.Selective permeability barrier allowin meds with low lipid solubility to reach CNS | B |
| ____ an inflammation of the meninges, | meningitis |
| What can be found in the CSF during meningitis? | microorganisms |
| severe headache, painful or stiff neck, fever, and nausea and vomiting are sign and symptoms of | meningitis |
| ____ An inflammation of the meninges of the brain and spinal cord | meningitis |
| Neisseria Meningitides (meningococcus) and Streptococcus pneumoniae (pnemococcus) are common | bacterial meningitis |
| ____ This can occur after penetrating head wounds, bacteremia (from endocarditis, or neurosurgical procedures. | Staphylococcal meningitis |
| Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae transmission is | droplet contact |
| Conjugated vaccine; ciprofloxacin, rifampin, or ceftriaxone used to protect contacts prevention for | Neisseria meningitidis |
| Two vaccines: Prevnar or Pneumovax prevention for | Streptococcus pneumoniae |
| Penicillin, ceftriaxone, chloramphenicol treatment for | Neisseria meningitidis |
| Vancomycin + ceftriaxone; treatment for | Streptococcus pneumoniae |
| Neisseria meningitides risk group is | young children |
| Cloudy, yellow/beige High pressure Elevated proteins Decreased glucose Abundant WBC’s is ___ | CSF in bacterial meningitis |
| listeria monocytogenes, crytococcus neoformans, and coccidioides immitis causative agent is | vehicle (food, air, dust, soil) |
| prevention for listeria monocytogenes is | HIb |
| crytococcus neoformans prevention is | cooking food according |
| Ceftriaxone (IV antibiotics) is treatment for | listeria monocytogenes, |
| Ampicillin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is treatment for | crytococcus neoformans |
| Amphotericin B and fluconazole is treatment for | coccidioides immitis (Coccidioidomycosis) |
| coccidioides immitis is most common in people who have | aids |
| crytococcus neoformans is most common in people who are | neonates, elderly |
| meningoencephalitis is a major side effect of | listerial meningitis |
| listeriosis meningitis is ___ | zoonoses |
| listeriosis meningitis symptom is | gastroenteritis |
| listeriosis meningitis is mainly caused by | contaminated food |
| what is the morpholody of listeria meningitis | non-spore forming gram positive |
| Most common CA meningitis | Streptococcus pneumoniae |
| Bird droppings Opportunistic infection Usually chronic and gradual is part of | Cryptococcal Meningitis |
| Highly virulent systemic fungal infection Begins as respiratory Endemic to region of California/SW US | Coccidioidomycosis |
| What type of cells may be present in the CSF in meningitis? | WBC due to infection |
| What are some long term complications of meningitis? | Deafness, fits, mental impairment |
| What can cause aseptic meningitis? | Leptospirosis and lyme disease |
| 1. repeat cryptococcal infections 2. seizures 3. hearing loss 4. brain damage 5. excessive fluid in the brain Complications of | cryptococcal meningitis |
| what is the transmission for coccidioidomycosis | inhaled |
| prevention for coccidioides immitis is | avoiding airborne endospores |
| feeling of tiredness, fever, cough, headaches, rash, muscle pain, and joint pain. Fatigue can persist for many months after initial infection are signs and symptoms of | coccidioides immitis (coccidioidomnycoses) |
| neonatal and infant meningitis Streptococcus agalactiae, Escherichia coli, strain K1, is transmitted by | vertical (during birth) |
| Cronobacter sakazakii is transmitted by | vehicle (baby formula) |
| Streptococcus agalactiae can be prevented by | Culture and treatment of mother |
| Cronobacter sakazakii can be prevented by | safe preparation or avoidance of powdered formula |
| Penicillin G plus aminoglycosides is treatment for | Streptococcus agalactiae |
| Ceftazidime or cefepime +/− gentamicin is treatment for | Escherichia coli, strain K1 |
| Begin with broad-spectrum drugs until susceptibilities determined is treatment for | Cronobacter sakazakii |
| ____ in newborns is almost always a result of infection transmitted by the mother, either in utero or during passage through the birth canal. | meningitis |
| •Feeding poorly or refusing to feed •Irritability •Trouble breathing •Bulging fonatelle, the soft spot at the top of the head •Diarrhea •Feeling too warm or too cold signs and symptoms for | neonatal meningitis |
| where do viral meningitis originate in | mucosal surfaces in the upper respiratory tract |
| what commonly causes bacterial meningitis | enteroviruses |
| Most common cause of the CNS inflammation, acute febrile illness with signs and symptoms of meningeal irritation. | Viral (Aseptic) Meningitis: |
| Can be fatal within days without antibiotic tx. Delayed tx increases risk of permanent brain damage, hearing loss, and learning disabilities can result from the infection. | bacterial meningitis |
| Usually mild and often clears up on its own. | viral meningitis |
| CSF will be ____ with bacterial meningitis | cloudy |
| CSF will be ___ with viral meningitis. | clear |
| Capillaries with restricted permeability feed CNS Very few substances cross this barrier Minimal phagocytosis and little to no inflammation are all apart of | blood brain barrier |
| Cns has normal | flora |
| Severe headache VERY stiff neck High fever Nausea/vomiting Confusion Seizures Petechiae from endotoxin signs and symptoms of | bacterial meningitis |
| Haemophilus influenzae image G− transmission | droplet |
| Haemophilus influenzae image G− prevention | HIB vaccine |
| Haemophilus influenzae image G− treatment | Ceftriaxone |
| cryptococcal meningitis is often fatal for | AIDS pts |
| Cryptococcal meningitis can be treated with | amphotericin B and Fluconazole |
| Zika virus causative agent is | Zika virus |
| Zika virus transmission | Vertical, Vector-borne, sexual, blood transfusions |
| the prevention of the zika virus is | avoiding mosquitoes |
| treatment for zika virus is | ZPIV for Zika Purified Inactivated Virus (trial) |
| zika virus causes babies to be born with abnormally | small heads (microcephaly) |
| skin rash, conjunctivitis, and muscle and joint pain. trigger Guillain-Barre syndrome signs and symptoms of | zika virus |
| poliomyeliitis causative agent | poliovirus |
| poliomyelitis is transmitted by | fecal-oral, vehicle (contaminated water) |
| prevention for poliomyelitis is | live vaccine (OPV) inactive IPV |
| poliomyelitis treatment is | none |
| long term complication of poliomyelitis is | post-polio syndrome |
| meningoencephalitis disease is in | meninges and brain |
| Naegleria fowleri and acanthamoeba is causative factors of | meningoencephalitis |
| Naegleria fowleri transmission is | vehicle (exposure while swimming in warm freshwater) |
| Acanthamoeba transmission is | direct contact |
| Prevention for Naegleria fowleri is | not let water into nasal passages |
| Prevention for Acanthamoeba is | none |
| treatment for Naegleria fowleri is | amphotericin B |
| treatment for Acanthamoeba is | surgical excision of granulomas, Ketoconazole may help |
| poliomyelitis attacks the | nervous system |
| poliomyelitis can leave someone in partial or complete | paralysis |
| _____ a rapid, massive destruction of brain and spinal tissue that causes hemorrhage and coma and invariably ends in death within a week or so | primary amoebic meingoencephalitis |
| acute encephalitis is | inflammation of the brain |
| acute encephalitis is also caused by | viral infection |
| signs and symptoms of _____ include behavioral changes, confusion, decreased consciousness and seizures. | acute encephalitis |
| empiric therapy with/or acyclovir is treatment for | acute encephalitis |
| Arboviruses, HSV, JC Virus are causes for | acute encephalitis |
| (West Nile virus, La Crosse virus, Jamestown Canyon virus, St. Louis encephalitis virus, Powassan virus, eastern equine encephalitis virus) are all part of the | arboviruses |
| arboviruses transmission is | vector (arthropod bites) |
| herpes simplex 1 and 2 transmission is | vertical or reactivation |
| JC virus transmission is | ubiquitous |
| arboviruses prevention is | insect control |
| herpes simplex 1 and 2 prevention is | screening for HSV |
| JC Virus prevention is | none |
| arboviruses treatment is | none |
| Herpes simplex 1 and 2 treatment is | acyclovir |
| JC virus treatment is | Zidovudine |
| Coma, convulsions, paralysis, death are symptoms for | Arboviruses |
| arboviruses mainly affect | young children and elderly |
| herpes simplex virus 1 or 2 encephalitis mainly effects | newborns via vertical transmission (HSV + mothers) |
| Jc virus can be a problem with | AIDS pts |
| JC virus can cause | multifocal leukoencephalopathy |
| Virus attacks brain Cerebral demyelination Uncommon, but usually fatal are side effects of | multifocal leukoencephalopathy |
| varicella-zoster virus that remains dormmate is part of | herpes simplex virus (HSV) |
| 3. An infectious disease team is analyzing the epidemiology of vector-borne diseases, including those transmitted by arthropods. All of the following are arboviral diseases expt: a.polio b.West Nile encephalitis c.yellow fever d.St. Louis encephalitis | A |
| the most common cause of subacute encephalitis is protozoan | toxoplasma |
| Another form of subacute encephalitis can be caused by ________ virus as many as 7 to 15 years after the initial infection. | measles |
| 4. For which disease processes are immunizations available as a method of prevention? Select all that apply. a. Cryptococcus neoformans b. Listeria monocytogenes c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Streptococcus pneumoniae e. Neisseria meningitidis | c,d,e |
| _______ is caused by toxoplasma gondii, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, and prions | subacute encephalitis |
| toxoplasma gondii transmission is | vehicle (meat) or fecal-oral |
| subacute sclerosing panencephalitis transmission is | persistence of measles virus |
| prions transmission is | CJD (direct/parental contact) |
| toxoplasma gondii prevention is | personal and food hygiene |
| subacute sclerosing panencephalitis prevention is | none |
| prions prevention is | avoiding infected meat |
| Pyrimethamine and/or leucovorin and/or sulfadiazine is treatment for | toxoplasma gondii |
| subacute sclerosing panencephalitis and prions treatment is | none |
| sore throat, lymph node enlargement, and low-grade fever. is signs and symptoms are for | toxoplasma gondii |
| reservoirs for toxoplasma gondii is | mother-fetus, soil or water contaminated with feces, cats |
| groups most at risk with toxoplasma is | pregnant women |
| transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs), Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), Gerstmann-Strussler-Scheinker disease, and fatal familial insomnia. are diseases caused by | prions |
| Dysesthesia, altered behavior, dementia, impaired senses, delirium, uncontrollable muscle contractions is signs and symptoms of | Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease |
| Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease can withstand | heat, chemical, and radiation |
| PrPC has a largely alpha-helical structure (normally) There is a 'structured' region at the C-terminus and an 'UNSTRUCTURED' region at the amino-terminus is the structure of | prions |
| ____ is a slow, progressive zoonotic disease characterized by a fatal encephalitis. | rabies |
| _____ begins with fever, nausea, vomiting, headache, fatigue, and Anxiety, agitation, muscle spasm, convulsions, hydrophobia. | rabies |
| the primary reservoir for rabies is | bats |
| wild mammals such as canines, skunks, raccoons, badgers, cats, and bats are reservoirs for | rabies |
| causative transmission for rabies is | rabies virus |
| the prevention for rabies is | inactivated vaccine |
| Postexposure passive and active immunization; induced coma and ventilator support if symptoms have begun is treatment for | rabies |
| clostridum tetani is the causative agent for | teanus |
| tetanus transmission is | paternal, direct contact |
| prevention for tetanus is | tetanus immunization |
| Combination of passive antitoxin and tetanus toxoid active immunization, metronidazole; sedation is treatment for | tetanus |
| another name for tetanus is | lockjaw |
| ____ makes the body have contraction, the muscles contract uncontrollably, resulting in spastic paralysis. | tetanospasmin |
| ____ is an intoxication (i.e., caused by an exotoxin) associated with eating poorly preserved foods | botulism |
| botulinum toxin caused a side effect of | flaccid paralysis |
| infant botulism is the most common kind of botulism in the | usa |
| Food-borne, infant botulism, wound botulism, Improperly canned food, honey is the cause of | infant botulism |
| ______ outbreaks occur in home-processed foods, including canned vegetables, smoked meats, and cheese spreads | food botulism |
| _____ are being reported in intravenous drug users as a result of needle puncture. | wound botukism |
| Clostridium botulinum is the caustative for | botulism |
| the transmission of botulism is | vehicle, direct, parenteral |
| Food hygiene; toxoid immunization available for laboratory professionals is prevention for | botulism |
| Antitoxin, Penicillin G for wound botulism, supportive care is treatment for | botulism |
| 1. Which pathogen has evolved to make its rodent host less avoidant of cats? a. Cryptococcus neoformans b. Neisseria meningitidis c. rabies virus d. Toxoplasma gondii | D |
| 4. What cellular structure do several of the organisms that cause meningitis share? a. capsule b. pilus c. fimbria d. endospore | A |
| 7. Which of the following organisms is anaerobic? a. poliovirus b. Cryptococcus c. Clostridium d. Coccidioides | C |
| 10. Which disease is caused by an infectious agent that carries no nucleic acid? a. CJD b. rabies c. polio d. meningitis | A |
| 13. The normal gut microbiota in adults, but not infants, inhibit the growth of which pathogen? a. Neisseria meningitidis b. Clostridium botulinum c. Clostridium tetani d. Naegleria fowleri | B |
| 16. Subacute encephalitis can be caused by a. Toxoplasma gondii. b. Streptococcus agalactiae. c. Naegleria fowleri. d. Haemophilus influenza. | A |
| 19. Mosquito eradication could change the epidemiology of a. polio. b. Zika. c. West Nile. d. two of these | D |
| 1. A patient has been diagnosed with inflammation of the inner lining of the heart, secondary to a bacterial infection. What is the term for this condition? a. bacterial carditis b. endocarditis c. epicarditis d. myocarditis e. pericarditis | B |
| Blood-borne components of nonspecific and specific immunity–including phagocytosis, specific immunity are defense components for | cardiovascular system |
| blood stream infections are called | systemic infections |
| WBC is a defense for | Lymohatic system |
| viremia | viruses in blood stream |
| fungemia | fungi in blood |
| bacteremia | bacteria in blood |
| when bacterial flourish and grow in the blood stream it is called | septicemia |
| septicemia is also known as | sepsos |
| Blood infec resultin in low blood pressure accompanied by a reduced amount of blood circulating to vital organs. Endotoxins of all gram-negative bacteria can cause shock, but most clinical cases are due to gram-negative enteric rods is | septic shock |
| Plasmodium falciparum, P. vivax, P. ovale, P. malariae, P. knowlesi are causative agents for | malaria |
| malaria transmission is | biological vector (mosquito), vertical |
| prevention for malaria is | mosquito control |
| Artemisinin, combination therapy, or chloroquine; consult WHO is treatment for | malaria |
| malaria incubation period is | 10-16 days |
| malaise, fatigue, vague aches, nausea, diarrhea, chills, fever, sweating are signs and symptoms for | malaria |
| Complications of _______ are hemolytic anemia from lysed blood cells and organ enlargement and rupture due to cellular debris that accumulates in the spleen, liver, and kidneys | malaria |
| a serious complication of malaria is | cerebral malaria |
| malaria is what species | protozoa |
| malaria is a major issue around the | equator |
| P. falciparum persistent | fever, cough, weakness |
| 2. After returnin from international travel, a 4-year-old female is diagnosed with falciparum malaria. All of the following complications may be associated with this disease, except a.plenic rupture b.acute kidney injury c.AMS d.peptic ulcer e.anemia | D |
| malaria has cycles of | fever, chills, and sweating |
| Human immunodeficiency virus 1 or 2 is causative for | HIV and AIDS |
| Direct contact (sexual), parenteral (blood-borne), vertical (perinatal and via breast milk) is transmission for | HIV and AIDS |
| Avoidance of contact with infected sex partner, contaminated blood, breast milk; pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for high-risk individuals prevention for | HIV and AIDS |
| Multiple simultaneous antiretroviral drugs is treatment is for | HIV and AIDS |
| _____ symptoms may be fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, and neurological changes | HIV and AIDS |
| ADIs stands for | AIDS-defining illnessess |
| what cells does AIDS and HIV affect? | T cells in blood |
| Enters mucous membrane and travels to dendritic cells | HIV and AIDS stage 1 |
| Grow and shed from dendritic cells | HIV and AIDS stage 2 |
| Amplification by macrophages | HIV and AIDS stage 3 |
| Infects and destroys CD4 cells, macrophages, monocytes, and B lymphocytes | HIV and AIDS stage 4 |
| diagnosis of endocarditis | echocardiogram |
| ____ Symptoms include fever, fatigue, joint pain, edema, weakness, anemia, abnormal heartbeat, and sometimes MI | endocarditis |
| _____ may cause petechiae (small red-to-purple discolorations) | endocarditis |
| Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pyogenes, S. pneumoniae, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, others is causative for | acute endocardititis |
| Alpha-hemolytic streptococci, others is causative for | subacute endocardititis |
| acute endocarditis transmission is | parental |
| subacute endocarditis is | endogenous transfer of normal biota to bloodstream |
| aseptic surgery, and injections prevention is for | acute endocarditis |
| Prophylactic antibiotics before invasive procedures is prevention for | subactue endocarditis |
| Nafcillin or oxacillin +/− gentamicin or tobramycin OR vancomycin + gentamicin; surgery may be necessary. is treatment for | acute endocarditis |
| treatment for subacute endocarditis is | surgery |
| Acute onset, high fatality rate for | acute endocarditis |
| acute endocarditis has a | slower onset |
| causative agent for septicemia is | bacteria, fungi, MRSA |
| septicemia transmission is | parenteral, endogenous transfer |
| prevention for septicemia is | none |
| Broad-spectrum antibiotic is treatment for | septicemia |
| virulence factors for septicemia is | cell wall or membrane components |
| Fever is a prominent feature of | septicemia |
| fever, AMS, chills, GI symptoms, increased breathing rate, respiratory alkalossi, low blood pressure are signs and symptoms of | septicemia |
| People who have suffered rheumatic fever and the accompanying damage to heart valves are particularly susceptible to this condition are predisposed to | subacute endocarditis |
| Yersinia pestis causative for | plague |
| transmission for plague is | vector, biological, droplet, direct |
| prevention for the plague is | flea/ animal control vaccine available |
| streptomycin or gentamicin is treatment for | plague |
| plague incubation period last | 2-8 days |
| fever, chills, headache, nausea, weakness, tenderness of bubo is signs and symptoms of | plague |
| Infection causes inflammation and necrosis of the lymph node, resulting in a swollen lesion called a | bubo |
| fleas are | bubonic |
| Francisella tularensis causative for | tularemia |
| tularemia can be transmitted by | biological vecot (tick), direct, airborne |
| Avoiding contact; postexposure prophylaxis is prevention for | tularemia |
| Gentamicin or streptomycin (antibiotic therapy) is treatment for | tularemia |
| incubation period for tularemia is | days-3 weeks |
| Aches, chills, weakness, fever, swollen lymph nodes, portal of entry issues, , skin lesions, conjuctival inflmmation, sore throat, intestinal disruption, pulmonary involvement is signs and symptoms for | tularemia |
| 3.at a clinic for pts infected with Hiv Rn provides edu bout ADIs Which are characterized as ADIs? all that apply. a.Kaposi’s sarcoma b.Tuberculosis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis c.Brucellosis d.Acute lymphocytic leukemia e.HIV encephalopathy | A, B, E |
| Nerves are | Bundles of enzymes |
| Naglia is | Bundles of cell body |
| Protection of neurons is | -Nutrition -liquid cushion |
| Protective layer of brain | -crainal bones (skull) -meninges -csf |
| Protection of spinal cord | -verterbal column -menings -csf |
| Borrelia burgdorferi and closely related species causative agent for | Lyme disease |
| Transmission of lyme disease is | Biological vector (tick) |
| Prevention of lyme disease is | Avoid ticks |
| Doxycycline and/or amoxicillin (2 weeks), also cephalosporins and penicillin treatment for | Lyme disease |
| Rash (erythema migrans), raised reddish ring, fever, headache, stiff neck, dizziness are signs and symptoms of | Lyme disease |
| Bacterial meningitis has | Bacterial capsules |
| Long term complications of lyme disease | Facial palsy. Arthritis, chronic cardiovascular and neurological problems |
| Bacterial meningitis has red/purple spots on skin from | Broken blood vessels |
| Causative for infectious mononucleosis is | Epstein barred virus (ebv) |
| Infectious mononucleosis transmission is | Direct, indirect, parental |
| Virulence factors for infectious mononucleosis is | Incorporate in host dna |
| Prevention for infectious mononucleosis is | None |
| Treatment for infectious mononucleosis is | None |
| Most commonly infectious mononucleosis affects | Teens |
| Sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, leukocytosis hepato/ splenomegaly, FATIGUE, enlarged spleen and liver are signs and symptoms for | Infectious mononucleosis |
| Incubation period for infectious mononucleosis is | 30-50 days |
| Infectious mononucleosis increases and affects | WBC, b&t cells |
| Infectious mononucleosis is also called | Mono |
| A person (90% of world) when infected the virus Infectious mononucleosis stays with them | Forever |
| Causative of yellow fever is | Yellow fever |
| Causative of dengue is | Dengue fever |
| Causative of chikungunya is | Chikungunya disease |
| Causative of Ebola is | Ebola virus |
| Causative of lassa fever is | Lassa fever |
| Yellow fever transmission | Biological vector (mosquitoes) |
| Dengue transmission | Biological vector (mosquitoes) |
| Chikungunya transmission is | Biological vector (mosquitoes) |
| Ebola/marburg transmission is | Direct contact body fluids |
| Lassa fever transmission | Droplet contact (rodent exertion) direct contact with infected fluids |
| Virulence factors for yellow fever | Disrupt clotting factor |
| Virulence factors for dengue | Disrupts clotting factors |
| Virulence factors for chikungunya is | Disrupt clotting factors |
| Virulence factors of ebola | Disrupts clotting factors |
| Virulence factors of lassa fever is | Disrupt clotting factors |
| Prevention for yellow fever | Live vaccine |
| Prevention for dengue | None |
| Prevention for chimungunya | None |
| Prevention for ebola | Vaccine |
| Prevention for lassa fever is | Avoid rats, safe food storage |
| Treatment for yellow fever | None |
| Treatment for dengue | None |
| Treatment for chikungunya is | None |
| Treatment for ebola is | None |
| Treatment for lassa fever is | Ribavirin |
| tularemia is also called | rabbit fever |
| diagnosis for ________ Clinical, ELISA, PCR | lyme disease |
| yellow fever is an endemic in | africa, south america |
| Fever, chills, improvement and reoccurrence, Vomiting of hemorrhaged, clotted blood signs and symptoms for | yellow fever |
| yellow fever attacks the ___ cells and is accompanied by ____ | liver, jaundice |
| dengue fever is also called | breakbone fever |
| Fever, headache, severe muscle and joint pain, measles-like rash. signs and symptoms of | dengue fever |
| Fever, joint pains (long-lasting), maculopapular rash signs and symptoms of | chikungunya |
| chikungunya is an endemic in | africa |
| Massive hemorrhaging – Extreme capillary fragility – Patients bleed from their orifices and mucous membranes Death due to DIC, hypotension, necrosis leading to multiple organ shutdown are signs and symptoms for | ebola fever |
| brucellosis is also known as | malta fever, undulant fever, bangs disease |
| focal lesion in liver, spleen, bone marrow, kidney, fever, joint and muscle pain, weight loss, belly pain is signs and symptoms for | brucellosis |
| B. melitensis, B.abortus, B. sois, Brucella is also called | brucellosis |
| transmission for brucellosis is | direct, indirect, inhalation (lab) |
| reservoirs for brucellosis is | live stock, wild animals, dogs |
| incubation period for brucellosis is | 5-60 days |
| prevention for brucellosis is | avoid raw meat or unpasteruized milk |
| treatment for brucellosis is | antibiotics |
| Damaged skin or mucus membranes Undulant fever, lesions on organs, muscle aches signs and symptoms for | brucellosis |
| brucellosis is an occupational illness for | farmers and butchers |
| 4.pt with a tick bite surrounded by rash has fever, lethargy & headache. Whichof followin shows understandin? a.take my antiviral meds b.My family is at risk of contractin from me c. If progresses I may develop a facial droop d.preventable with a vac | C |
| Coxiella Burnetti is causative for | Q fever |
| fever, chills, head and muscle ache, and, occasionally, a rash signs and symptoms for | q fever |
| Airborne, foodborne, direct contact with animal parts, fluids, wastes etc is tranmissions for | Q fever |
| people at high risk for Q fever is | farm workers, butchers, vets, lab, raw milk |
| Q fever can be treated with | doxycycline |
| Bartonella henselae image G causative for | cat scratch disease |
| transmission for cat sratch disease is | parenteral (cat scratch or bite) |
| Virulence factors for cat scratch is | endotoxin |
| prevention for cat scratch is | clean wound sites, control fleas |
| treatment for cat scratch is | azithromycin |
| who is most at risk with cat scratch | children |
| incubation period for cat scratch is | 1-2 weeks |
| cat scratch has what at infection site | small papules |
| Ehrlichia species image G causative for | ehrlichiosis |
| _____ is a small intracellular parasitic bacterium in ticks | Ehrlichia |
| Fever with headache, muscle pain, chills S&S for | ehrlichiosis |
| Anaplasma species causative for | anaplasmosis |
| Babesia species causative for | babesiosis |
| Rickettsia rickettsii image G causative for | rocky mountain spotted fever |
| ____ a small intracellular bacterium | anaplasma |
| babesiosis transmission is | biological vector (tick) |
| rocky mountain spotted fever transmission is | biological vector (tick) |
| Induces apoptosis in cells lining blood vessels is a virulence factor for | rocky mountain spotted fever |
| babesiosis prevention is | avoid ticks |
| rocky mountain spotted fever prevention is | avoid ticks |
| treatment for babesiosis is | therapy antibacterial and antiprotozoal |
| treatment for rocky mountain spotted fever is | doxycycline |
| _____ A protozoan with infects RBCs is | babesiosis |
| Fever, chills, muscle pain, headache, rash Untreated lesions become enlarged, necrotic – Gangrene of toes or fingertips signs and symptoms of | rocky mountain spotted fever |
| Serious manifestations of ______ - Cardiovascular disruptions and neurologic effects | rocky mountain spotted fever |
| Trypanosoma cruzi causative agent for | chagas disease |
| transmission of chagas disease is | biological vetor triatomine bug, vertical because it crosses placenta, blood transfusion with infected blood |
| virulence factors of chagas disease is | co-opting host antigens induces autoimmunity |
| Acute Phase – fever, nausea, fatigue Chronic Phase – organ inflammation/dysfunction such as in heart, brain and intestinal tract signs and symptoms of | chagas |
| chagas has no | treatment or prevention |
| Bacillus anthracis is a causative agent for | anthrax |
| Vehicle (air, soil), indirect contact (animal hides), vehicle (food) is transmission for | anthrax |
| virulence factors for anthrax is | triple exotoxin |
| prevention for anthrax is | vaccine |
| _____ has Endospore forming bacterium and 3 exotoxins, hemolysins, capsule | anthrax |
| Site specific + headache, fever, malaise Bleeding from intestine, mucous membranes, orifices signs and symptoms for | anthrax |
| Culturing bacteria on blood agar, gram stain, Ab testing is testing for | anthrax |
| 1. Which of the following microbes have evolved an intracellular life style? a. Bacillus anthracis b. Coxiella burnetii c. MRSA d. two of these | B |
| 4. Which of the following is a G+ bacterium? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Borrelia burgdorferi c. Coxiella burnetii d. Trypanosoma cruzi | A |
| 7. Which of the following diseases is characterized by the formation of a biofilm? a. plague b. HIV c. endocarditis d. Chagas disease | C |
| 10. Which of the following diseases is caused by a retrovirus? a. Lassa fever b. Ebola c. anthrax d. HIV | D |
| 13. The bite of a tick can cause a. ehrlichiosis. b. Lyme disease. c. anaplasmosis. d. all of these. | D |
| 16. Normal biota found in the oral cavity are most likely to cause a. acute endocarditis. b. subacute endocarditis. c. malaria. d. tularemia. | B |
| 19. Lyme disease is most likely to occur in a. North Dakota. b. Connecticut. c. Oklahoma. d. Arkansas. | B |
| 5. Early lesions in Rocky Mountain spotted fever may resemble the rash of a. measles. b. chickenpox. c. rubella. d. Lyme disease. | A |
| conjunctivitis is also called | pink eye |
| neisseria meningitides has | IgA protease |
| streptococcus pneumoniae is also called | pneumococcal meningitis |
| streptococcus pneumoniae produces | Hemolysin H2O2 |
| hemolysin H2O2 | damages the nervous system |
| The causative factor for brucellosis is | B.mitensis, b.abortus, b.suis |
| Brucellosis is also known as | Malta fever, undulant fever or bang's disease |
| Brucellosis reservoirs are | Livestock, dogs, wild animals |
| The incubation period for brucellosis is | 5-60 days |
| Focal lesion in liver, spleen, bone marrow, kidney,fever, joint and muscle pain, weight loss, fatigue, belly pain are signs and symptoms of | Brucellosis |
| Brucellosis transmission is | Direct, in direct, inhalation( lab setting) |
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