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micro exam 3 exta

dtcc micro 125

human microbiome microbes that live in or on humans
some microbes are colonist meaning they have normal biota
some microbes are rapidly lost meaning they are transients
some microbes that are not colonist or rapid are tissue invaders
most human microbiome colonize for long term cause no harm
infection is when microbes get past host defense into tissues and multiply
When the cumulative effects of the infection damage or disrupt tissues and organs, the pathologic state that results is _______ disease
a disease is defined as any deviation from health
human diseases are caused by factors such as (4) 1. infections, 2. genetics, 3. aging, 4. malfunction of systems or organs
______ is a pathologic state caused directly by microorganisms or their products. infectious disease
humans actually require microbes in and on their bodies for proper growth and development
A project of the National Institutes of Health to identify microbial inhabitants of the human body and their role in health and disease; uses metagenomic techniques instead of culturing. Human microbiome project (HMP)
human cells contain about 21000 protein encoding genes
microbes living on/in us only contain 8 million protein encoding genes
many of the proteins we produce by genes are enzymes that help us digest our food and metabolize substances
____ are certainly present in healthy humans in vast quantities, both those that infect human cells and those infecting all the cells of our resident biota. viruses
All healthy people seem to also harbor potentially dangerous ________. pathogens
incoming microbes that might cause disease have to encounter the ______ as part of their path to establishing themselves in the host. microbiome
The human body offers a seemingly endless variety of environmental niches, with wide variations such as (4) 1. temp, 2. ph, 3. nutrients, 4. oxygen tension
Sites previously known to harbor normal microbiota (7) 1. skin 2. upper respiratory tract 3. GI tract 4. Urethra 5. vagina 6. ear 7. eye
site now thought to have normal microbiota or their DNA (4) 1. lungs (lower) 2. Bladder (urine) 3. breast (milk too) 4. Amniotic fluid and fetus
Sites in which DNA from microbiota has been detected (2) 1. Brain 2. bloodstream
Relationship in which microorganisms compete for survival in a common environment by taking actions that inhibit or destroy another organism are called _____ microbial antagonism
babies get a soure of microbiota from (5) 1. utero 2. vagina or c section 3. milk 4. caregivers 5. environment
the vagina contains lactobacillus bacteria
lactobacillus bacteria protects the baby from skin disorders and other conditions
The act of taking up long-term residence; as in microbes establishing a steady relationship with a host. colonize
The entry, establishment, and multiplication of pathogenic organisms within a host. infection
Any deviation from health, as when the effects of microbial infection damage or disrupt tissues and organs. disease
A microbe whose relationship with its host is parasitic and results in infection and disease is termed a pathogen
_______ is a broad concept that describes an organism’s potential to cause disease and is used to divide pathogenic microbes into one of two groups. pathogenicity
________ (primary pathogens) are capable of causing disease in healthy persons with normal immune defenses. true pathogens
Examples of true pathogens include the (3) 1. flu 2. plague bacillus 3. malarial protozoan
_______ cause disease when the host’s defenses are compromised or when the pathogens become established in a part of the body that is not natural to them. opportunistic pathogens
examples of opportunistic pathogens include (2) 1. pseudomonas species 2. candida albicans
The relative severity of the disease caused by a particular microorganism depends on the _______ virulence
is the accurate term for describing the degree of pathogenicity. virulence
The virulence of a microbe is determined by its ability to (2) 1. establish itself in host 2. cause damage
for a virulence microbe to establish themselves in a host it must (4) 1.enter host 2. attach 3. negotiate microbiome 4. survive host defenses
viruses attach by means of specialized receptors
Involving multiple distinct microorganisms. polymicrobial
A class of white blood cells capable of engulfing other cells and particles. phagocyte
_______ normally These cells ordinarily engulf and destroy pathogens by means of enzymes and antimicrobial chemicals phagocytes
________ are used by some pathogens to avoid phagocytes. Antiphagocytic factors
Species of both Streptococcus and Staphylococcus produce leukocidins
White blood cells. The primary infection-fighting blood cells. leukocytes
A heat-labile substance formed by some pyogenic cocci that impairs and sometimes lyses leukocytes. leukocidin
substances that are toxic to white blood cells. leukocidins
Some microorganisms secrete an extracellular surface layer (slime or capsule) that makes it physically difficult for the phagocyte to engulf them.
There are three major ways that microorganisms damage their host: (3) 1.directly through the action of enzymes or toxins 2.indirectly by inducing the host’s defenses to respond excessively or inappropriately 3.epigenetic changes made to host cells by microbes
what three things are virulence factors (3) 1. enzymes 2. endotoxin 3.exotoxins
three ways microbes damage the host 1. microbial enzymes and exo/endotoxins disrupt host cell structure and connections 2.invade host 3. microbes make epigenetic changed to dna and/or supporting sturctures altering host gene
Many pathogenic bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and worms secrete exoenzymes
An extracellular enzyme chiefly for hydrolysis of nutrient macromolecules that are otherwise impervious to the cell membrane. exoenzyme
exoenzymes that break down and inflict damage on tissues
______ which digests the protective coating on mucous membranes and is a factor in amoebic dysentery; mucinase
which digests hyaluronic acid, the ground substance that cements animal cells together. This enzyme is an important virulence factor in staphylococci, clostridia, streptococci, and pneumococci. hyaluronidase,
______ results in complete clearing of the red blood cells incorporated in the agar. beta-hemolysis
_____ refers to incomplete lysis of the red blood cells, leaving a greenish tinge to the colonies and the area surrounding them. Alpha-hemolysis
Coagulase, an enzyme produced by pathogenic staphylococci, causes clotting of blood and plasma
______ dissolving fibrin clots and expediting the invasion of damaged tissues. bacterial kinases
____ is used a therapy to dissolve blood clots in patients who have problems with thrombi and embolism stretokinase
_____ is a specific chemical product of microbes that is poisonous to other organisms. toxin
a toxin is named according to its specific target of action
______ act on the nervous system and intestine. neurotoxins
____ lyse red blood cells; and nephrotoxins damage the kidneys. hemotoxins
______ are proteins with a strong specificity for a target cell and extremely powerful, sometimes deadly, effects. exotoxins
exotoxins generally affect cells by damaging the cell membrane and causing lysis or by disrupting intracellular function.
______ are a class of bacterial exotoxin that disrupts the cell membrane of red blood cells hemolysins
Hemolysins causes the red blood cells to hemolyze
_____ to burst and release hemoglobin pigment. hemolyze
The pattern of hemolysis is often used to identify bacteria and determine their ______ degree of virulence
_____ refers to a single substance endotoxin
_______ is actually a chemical called lipopolysaccharide (LPS), endotoxin
lipopolysaccharide (LPS), which is part of the outter membrane of gram-neg cell walls
Endotoxin differs from exotoxins because it has a variety of systemic effects on tissues and organs.
___ are toxic in high doses endotoxins
___ effect a specific cell type exotoxins
When there is a decrease in a host’s ability to mount an immune defense, these patients are termed ____ immunocompromised
Microbes that don’t usually cause disease in healthy people are called opportunistic pathogens
______ These are microbes that take advantage of immunocompromised hosts to cause disease. opportunistic pathogens
for the host important factors are (3) 1. natural genetic variability 2. seen microbe before 3. hosts level of health
______ Microbes enter the body, remain confined to a specific tissue localized infection
_____ Infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids—usually via the bloodstream—but may travel by other means such as nerves (rabies) and cerebrospinal fluid (meningitis) systemic infection
_______ Infectious agent spreads from a local site and is carried to other tissues focal infection
_____ Several agents establish themselves simultaneously at the infection site mixed infection (Polymicrobial infection)
____ the initial infection primary infectino
Boils, warts, fungal skin infections are all examples of localized infection
Mumps, rubella, chickenpox, AIDS, anthrax, typhoid, syphilis are all examples of systemic infection
Tuberculosis, streptococcal pharyngitis are examples of focal infection
Human bite infections, wound infections, gas gangrene are example of mixed infection (polymicrobial infection)
___ can be any infection primary infection
______ caused by a different microbe, which complicates a primary infection; often a result of lowered host immune defenses secondary infection
_____ Infection comes on rapidly, with severe but short-lived effects acute infection
_____ Infection that progresses and persists over a long period of time chronic infection
Influenza complicated by pneumonia, common cold complicated by bacterial otitis media are examples of secondary infection
influenza is an example of an acute infection
HIV is an example of a chronic infection
_____ is any objective evidence of disease as noted by an observer sign
_____ is the subjective evidence of disease as sensed by the patient. symptom
When a disease can be identified or defined by a certain complex of signs and symptoms, it is termed a _____ syndromes
3. Which of the following factors is not thought to weaken host defenses? a.extremes in age b. underlying disease states c. surgery d. moderate exercise D
Babies who are delivered by cecerian section will be colonized by ? skin biota
Virulence factors include? A. toxins B. Enzymes C. Capsules D. All of these D
the human mircobiome is very important to the health and function of host
Normal microbiota varies from person to person
human microbiome project has a role in food digestion and metabolism
the human microbiome project finds evidence of microbiota in new places
microbial antagonism is good wins over bad
Intestinal biota influences overall health/physiology (2) 1. risk of disease, obesity, moods 2. body response to cancer drugs
microbial anatagonism primary mechanisms (2) 1. limited resources 2. hostile environment
normal biota is pathogenic
Human body presents variety of environmental conditions and supports wide range of microbes acquiring microbiota
Colonization of biota in fetus and newborn comes from (3) 1. birth 2. feeding 3. contact
Colonization of biota in fetus and newborn comes from birth is lactobacilli
Colonization of biota in fetus and newborn comes from feeding is formula and breast fed
newborn stabilizes biota by age 3
true pathogens has a range of severity mild, severe, fatal
mild pathogen is a cold
severe true pathogen is malaria
fatal true pathogens is rabies
not considered pathogenic to normal healthy host is ______ opportunistic pathogens
opportunistic pathogens are not well-developed virulence factors
when a pathogen goes into the wrong portal there is no infection
portals of entry can be (5) 1. skin, 2. gi tract, 3. respiratory, 4. urogenital tract, 5. endogenous biota
Leukocidins, slime layer capsule, and to live intracellular are all factors for antiphagocytic
exotoxins are gram positive and negative
endotoxins are gram negative
_______ Microbes shun down or activate regions of DNA in the host cell epigenetic changes
______ changes harm host cell OR change function epigenetic
Which of the followin factors would promote progression of an infection? Select all that apply. a.low microbial virulence b.proper portal of entry c.genetic profile of host resistance d.no previous exposure to this infection e.host immunosuppression b d e
The earliest symptoms of disease usually come from the activation of the body defense process called inflammations
A natural, nonspecific response to tissue injury that protects the host from further damage. It stimulates immune reactivity and blocks the spread of an infectious agent. inflammation
The accumulation of excess fluid in cells, tissues, or serous cavities. Also called swelling. edema
A solid mass or nodule of inflammatory tissue containing modified macrophages and lymphocytes. Usually a chronic pathologic process of diseases such as tuberculosis or syphilis. granuloma
An inflamed, fibrous lesion enclosing a core of pus. abscess
_______ is Inflammation of one or more lymph nodes. Also called lymphadenopathy. lymphadenitis
change in white blood cell count indicate infection
_____ is an increase in the level of white blood cells, leukocytosis
_____ is a decrease.in white blood cells leukopenia
_____ Systemic infection associated with microorganisms multiplying in circulating blood. septicemia
The presence of viable bacteria in circulating blood is _____ bacteremia
_____ The presence of viruses in the bloodstream. Viremia
______ An infection that produces no noticeable symptoms even though the microbe is active in the host tissue. asymptomatic
_____ A period of inapparent manifestations that occurs before symptoms and signs of disease appear. subclinical
the ______ starts at the time from contact to symptoms incubation period
the incubations period has no symptoms
the incubation period depends on (3) 1. host resistance 2. virulence 3. target and entry distance
the prodromal stage lasts 1-2 days
_____ has general symptoms prodromal stage
_____ Route through which a pathogen departs from the host organism. portal of exit
_____ The state of being inactive. Example: a latent virus or latent infection. latency
______ A morbid complication that follows a disease. sequela
______ Characterized by rapid onset and short duration. acute
_______ Recovery; the period between the end of a disease and the complete restoration of health in a patient. convalescence
_____ Organism lingers for months, years or indefinitely after the patient is completely well continuation phase
_______ In disease communication, the natural host or habitat of a pathogen. reservoir
_____ where infection is acquired transmitters
A pt has been dx with E. coli septicemia. Which of the followin characteristics are associated with endotoxins? Select all that apply. a.toxicity in min concentration b.gram-neg bacteria c. fever d.protein composition e.released by cell durin lysis b, c, e
______ can be directly transmitted to humans, as in the example of bats transmitting rabies to humans pathogens from animals
______ A person who harbors infections and inconspicuously spreads them to others. Also, a chemical agent that can accept an atom, chemical radical, or subatomic particle from one compound and pass it on to another. carrier
_____ spread the infectious agent during the incubation period. incubating carriers
___ recuperating patients without symptoms; they continue to shred viable microbes and convey the infection to others convalescent carriers
____ individuals who shelter the infectious agent for a long period after recovery because of the latency of the infectious agent chronic carriers
___ medical and dental persons who must handle pt materials that are heavily contaminated with pt secretions and blood risk picking up pathogens mechanically and accidentally transferring them to other pts passive carriers
_____ An infectious disease indigenous to animals that humans can acquire through direct or indirect contact with infected animals. zoonosis
_____ spread of disease is promoted by close associations of humans with animals, zoonotic
____ make up a full 70% of all new emerging diseases worldwide. zoonoses
_____ Capable of being transmitted from one individual to another. communicable infection
_____ Communicable; transmissible by direct contact with infected people and their fresh secretions or excretions. contagious
_____ An infectious disease that does not arrive through transmission of an infectious agent from host to host. noncommunicable
_____ means the disease is spread through a population from one infected individual to another. horizontal
_____ signifies transmission from parent to offspring via the ovum, sperm, placenta, or milk. vertical
______ involves very close contact between people. direct transmission
_____ occurs when an object or substance carries the agent from one person to another. indirect transmission
______ is parenteral transmission. indirect transmission
_____ is termed biological if the microorganism lives and multiplies within the insect. vector
____ inanimate object that harbors and transmits pathogens fomite
____ a natural nonliving material that can transmit infectious agents vehicle
___ small particles evaporate and remain in the air and can be encountered by a new host air
___ are suspensions of fine dust or moisture particles in the air that contain live pathogens aerosols
____ some pathogens survive for long periods in water and can infect humans long after they were deposited in the water water
____ microbes resistant to drying live in and can be transmitted from soil soil
___ meats may contain pathogens with which the animal was infected foods can also be contaminated by food handlers food
___ transmission via intentional or unintentional injection into deeper tissues parenteral
___ insect carries microbes to host on its body parts mechanical vector
___ insect injects microbes into host biological vector
Infectious diseases that are acquired or develop during a hospital or health care facility stay are known as _____ also called _____ healthcare-associated infections, nosocomial infections
_____ The microbial cause of disease; the pathogen. etiologic agent
___ A procedure to establish the specific cause of disease. In all cases of infection: (1) must be found; (2)pure culture must reproduce the same disease in animals; (3) be present in the experimental animal; (4) a pure culture must again be obtained. koch's postulates
pt has symptoms a few days ago: fever, arthralgia, and fatigue. Pt was seen at clinic, dx with a bacterial infection, pres antibiotic. Pt has 3 days of treatment remainin. The pt would be in which stage? a.acute b.convalescent c.incubation d.prodromal b
____ The study of the factors affecting the prevalence and spread of disease within a community. epidemiology
Surveillance is an epidemiological term that basically means Surveillance is an epidemiological term that basically means
_____ Surveillance is an epidemiological term that basically means reportable diseases
_____ The total number of cases of a disease in a certain area and time period. prevalence
_____ In epidemiology, the number of new cases of a disease occurring during a period. incidence
prevalence = (total of cases/ people) x100=%
_____ The number of persons who have died as the result of a particular cause or due to all causes, expressed as a numerator, with the denominator being some unit of population (as in x/100,000). mortality rate
____ The number of persons afflicted with an illness under question or with illness in general, expressed as a numerator, with the denominator being some unit of population (as in x/100,000). morbidity rate
____ An outbreak of disease in which all affected individuals were exposed to a single source of the pathogen, even if they were exposed at different times. common-source epidemic
______ An outbreak of disease in which all affected individuals were exposed to a single source of the pathogen at a single point in time. point-source epidemic
___ The first case of a disease identified in an outbreak or epidemic. index case
Healthcare-associated infections are called _______ Nosocomial infections
____ An impurity; any undesirable material or organism. contamination/ contact
only on surfaces of body • external - skin - eye • internal - nose - mouth - intestinal tract - vagina - urethra are all places that _______ normal biota is
_____ is when Good flora competes with potential pathogens...consume nutrients, create an unfavorable environment for pathogens, help stimulate WBC's, provide vitamins (K and B's) normal microbiota and immunity
old age and extreme youth • genetic defects in immunity, (AIDS); • surgery and organ transplants; • underlying disease: • chemotherapy/immunosuppressive drugs • physical and mental stress • pregnancy; • other infections. are all ex of infection susceptibility
steps for infection (4) 1. establishment 2. attachment 3. surviving host defense 4. disease
For most agents, infection will proceed only if a minimum number, called the ____ infectious dose
numbers below _______ will generally not result in an infection infectious dose
________ via surface molecules on the pathogen called adhesins (glycoproteins or lipoproteins) or ligands that bind specifically to complementary surface receptors. microbe attachment
Some common ____ include fever, pain, soreness, and swelling symptoms of inflammation
_____include edema, granulomas, lymphadenitis, signs of inflammation
_____ downfall is because the patient experiences no symptoms or disease and does not seek medical attention. asymptomatic
In many cases, the portal of ____ is the same as the portal of entry, but some pathogens use a different route. exit
General idea of _____ postulates is that you must isolate what you think the cause is, then apply it to a naive population, and then produce the same effect Koch's
Kosh doesn't work when infectious agents are not readily isolated or grown in the laboratory.
Koch's purpose is to prove the etiology.
An infectious disease that exhibits a relatively steady frequency over a long time period in a particular geographic locale is _____ endemic
_______ Description of a disease that exhibits new cases at irregular intervals in unpredictable geographic locales. sporadic
______ A sudden and simultaneous outbreak or increase in the number of cases of disease in a community. epidemic
_____ A disease afflicting an increased proportion of the population over a wide geographic area (often worldwide). pandemic
The best descriptive term for the resident microbiota is a. commensal. b. parasitic. c. pathogenic. d. mutualistic. D
Which of the following are virulence factors? a. toxins b. enzymes c. capsules d. all of the above D
When the resident microbiota prevents the establishment of a pathogen, it is called a. disruption. b. a superinfection. c. a nonliving reservoir. d. microbial antagonism. D
Most microbial exotoxins would be created using the process of a. DNA replication. b. protein synthesis. c. mutation. d. fatty acid synthesis. B
The ______ is the time between an encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms. a. prodrome b. acute stage c. convalescence d. incubation period D
A seasonal outbreak of influenza would be what type of outbreak? a. point-source b. common-source c. propagated d. two of the above C
The number of cases, including new cases as well as already existing cases, in a defined period of time is the a. incidence. b. prevalence. c. It could be either; need more information. B
______ are a multilevel network of innate, nonspecific protections and adaptive, specific protections that are commonly referred to as the first, second, and third lines of defense host defense
_____ includes any barrier that blocks invasion at the portal of entry. first line of defense
_____ also nonspecific, is a more internal system of protective cells, fluids, and processes that includes inflammation and phagocytosis. second line of defense
______ is acquired only as each foreign substance is encountered by white blood cells called lymphocytes. third line of defense
The third line of defense provides ______ long term immunity
the host defense innate, nonspecific line of defenses are fist and second line
the third line of defense is acquired specific
A healthy functioning immune system is responsible for the following: 1.surveillance of the body, 2. recognition of foreign material, and 3. destruction of entities deemed to be foreign.
all cells as well as some particles such as pollen, display a unique mix of macromolecules on their surfaces that the immune system “senses” to determine if they are foreign or not. These chemicals are called antigens
_____ Natural markers of the body that are recognized by the immune system. self
_____ Molecules recognized by the immune system as containing foreign markers, indicating a need for immune response. nonself
______ Any trait or factor of a cell, virus, or molecule that makes it distinct and recognizable; example: a genetic marker. marker
_____ which generally consist of proteins and/or sugars, can be thought of as the cellular equivalent of facial characteristics in humans and allow the cells of the immune system to identify whether or not a newly discovered cell poses a threat markers
_____ Molecules on the surfaces of many types of microbes that are not present on host cells that mark the microbes as foreign. Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPS)
_____ Molecules on the surface of host defense cells that recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns on microbes. pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
______ A collection of monocytes and macrophages scattered throughout the extracellular spaces that function to engulf and degrade foreign molecules. mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS)
______ A system of vessels and organs that serve as sites for development of immune cells and immune reactions. It includes the spleen, thymus, lymph nodes, and gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT). lymphatic system
_____ is a compartmentalized network of vessels, cells, and specialized accessory organs lymphatic system
Is functions of _____ system 1. provide route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system 2. a “drain-off” system for the inflammatory response; 3. to render surveillance, recognition, and protection against foreign materials. lymphatic
____ The system of vessels that transports lymph is constructed along the lines of blood vessels. lymphatic vessels
____ = non-specific, not induced first line of defense
_____= non-specific, induced 2nd line of defense
____= specific, induced, memory third line of defense
the first line of defense has _____ to entry barriers
Not a true immune response Does not recognize any specific foreign substance Very general in action is the first line of defense
Physical Barriers, Chemical Barriers, Genetic Components these three parts belong to the ____ first line of defense
physical barriers protect common portals of entry
Stratum corneum, Sloughing, Shedding and desquamation of hair shaft follicle cells, Flushing effect of sweat glands is part of the ____ skin
Mucus coat, Blinking and tear production, Saliva flushes microbes to stomach, Vomiting and defecation is part of the ____ mucous membranes
Nose hair, Copious mucus flushing, Sneezing and coughing is part of the ____ respiratory tract
Urine flow through ureters, Urination, Flushing of vaginal secretions is part of the ____ genitourinary tract
chemical barriers are (2) Lysozymes, low ph areas
Microbiota barrier is a type of structural barriers
_____ bloxks access of pathogens, hostile envionments microbial antagonism
Commensal microbiota trains immune system
Surveillance of the body, Recognition of foreign material, Destruction of only foreign entities are responsibilities of the immune system
the immune system is part of the second and third lines of defense
Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), Pattern recognition receptors (PRPs) are part of phagocytosis
Mononuclear phagocytic system has massive connective tissue network surrounding all organs
Mononuclear phagocytic system has _________ embedded in it. phagocytic cells
Mononuclear phagocytic system is found in the (4) thymus, lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen
the lymphatic system function is to return ECF to circulatory system
Lymphatic system functions does inflammation drainage
Lymphatic system functions is ___ and ___ perform surveillance, recognition and protection. WBC and antibodies
in the Bloodstream is has plasma
plasma is made up of water and proteins
platelets are thrombocytes
red blood cells are erythrocytes
white blood cells are leukocytes
Granulocytes are (3) Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils
Agranulocytes are (2) monocytes, lymphocytes
the flow of lymph is in one direction only
lymph move from the ___ toward the ___ extremities, heart
______ transported through the body by means of a dedicated pump (the heart) blood
_____ is moved only through the contraction of the skeletal muscles through which the lymphatic ducts wend their way. lymph
_____ Sites where B and T lymphocytes are generated and become mature. In the human, the red bone marrow and the thymus are primary lymphatic organs. primary lymphatic organ
the sites of immune cell birth and the locations where they mature are considered _____ primary lymphatic organs
Locations in the body where immune cells become activated, reside, or carry out their functions are called _____ secondary lymphatic organs
______ Tissue locations where T and B lymphocytes perform their actions. Examples are lymph nodes, MALT, SALT. secondary lymphatic organs
_____ is an important intersection between the circulatory system, skeletal system, and lymphatic system. red bone marrow
______ is typically found in the internal matrix of long bones, and is the site of blood cell production. red bone marrow
____ Butterfly-shaped organ near the tip of the sternum that is the site of T-cell maturation. thymus
______ are where the action of immunity takes place. secondary lymphatic organs
_____ are small, encapsulated, bean-shaped organs stationed, usually in clusters, along lymphatic channels and large blood vessels of the thoracic and abdominal cavities lymph nodes
____ The outer rim of a lymph node. cortex
_____ A layer of the lymph node internal to the cortex; houses T cells. paracortical area
B Lymphocytes and macrophages are in the ___ medullary sinus
____ serves as a filter for blood spleen
the spleen primary function is to remove worn out red blood cells from circulation
_____ Patches of lymphatic tissue containing B and T cells that underlie the surface of many skin surfaces in the body. skin associated lymphoid tissue (SALT)
______ Patches of lymphatic tissue containing B and T cells that underlie the surface of most mucosal surfaces in the body. mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)
______ A ring of lymphoid tissue in the pharynx that acts as a repository for lymphocytes. tonsils
______ A collection of lymphoid tissue in the gastrointestinal tract that includes the appendix, the lacteals, and Peyer’s patches. gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT)
_____ Oblong lymphoid aggregates of the gut located in the wall of the terminal and small intestine. Along with the tonsils and appendix, Peyer’s patches make up the gut-associated lymphoid tissue that responds to local invasion by infectious agents. peyers patches
____ compact aggregations of lymphocytes in the ileum of the small intestine. peyers patches
____ A liquid connective tissue consisting of blood cells suspended in plasma. whole blood
______ Cellular components of the blood consisting of red blood cells, primarily responsible for the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide, and white blood cells, primarily responsible for host defense and immune reactions. blood cells
____ The carrier fluid element of blood. plasma
The substance that courses through the arteries, veins, and capillaries is whole bood, blood cells, plasma
____ The process by which the various types of blood cells are formed, such as in the bone marrow. hematopoiesis
_____ the production of blood cells hematopoiesis
_____ Pluripotent, undifferentiated cells. stem cells
______ means that the cells are able to become any type of blood cell that is needed. pluripotent
____ Making one object distinguishable from another; also, the process of biological cells changing from one state to a more mature state. differentiation
______ A mature leukocyte that contains noticeable granules in a Wright stain. Examples: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. granulocyte
_____ One form of leukocyte (white blood cell) having globular, nonlobed nuclei and lacking prominent cytoplasmic granules. agranulocyte
Which of the following act/acts as a filter for blood, removing worn-out red cells from circulation? a.thymus b.liver c.spleen d.lymph nodes e.kidneys C
____ Regulatory chemical released by cells of the immune system that serves as signal between different cells. cytokine
All cells in the blood originate from one cell type the _____ hematopoietic stem cell
___ blood phagocytes that rapidly leave the circulation; mature into macrophages and dendritic cells monocytes
___ large phagocytic cells; high capacity for killing microbes and cleaning up dead cells; antigen-presenting cells macrophages
____ reside in tissues and MPS; the process foreign matter and present it to lymphocytes; antigen-presenting cells dendritic cells
___ cell mediated immunity assist b cells t cell
___ differentiate into plasma cells and release antibody, antigen-presenting cells b cell
__ related to T cells but do not act specifically Natural killer
___ are T cells and have NK activity NKT
____ respond to both specific and nonspecific antigens Gamma-delta T cells
___ short-lived phagocytes in blood; active engulfers and killers of bacteria neutrophils
____ function in inflammatory events basophils
____ active in protozoal, helminth, and inflammatory reactions eosinohils
____ specialized tissue-cells similar to basophils that trigger local inflammatory reactions such as allergic symptoms Mast cells
___ carry o2 and co2 red blood cells
___ involved in blood clotting inflammation and destruction of blood borne bacteria platelets
Cytokines have potent ____ inflammatory mediators/ chemical messengers
Cytokines is used by immune cells to communicate
Cytokines influence defensive response
Cytokines are produced by several types of cells such as (4) monocytes, lymphocytes, macrophages, mast cells ect
_____ cytokines, that encourage specific and nonspecific immune responses pro-inflammatory
_____ cytokines that discourage specific and nonspecific immune responses anti-inflammatory
___ and ____ that can change the diameter of blood vessels or vessel permeability vasodilators and vasoconstrictors
____ cytokines, that regulate lymphocyte growth or activation growth factors
_____ Another term for macrophage. histiocyte
____ To shed the cuticle in scales; to peel off the outer layer of a surface. desquamate
____ An enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva that breaks down bacterial peptidoglycan. lysozyme
The presence of intestinal microbiota is considered a.a first line of defense. b.a second line of defense. c.a third line of defense. d.none of the above. A
_____ is A cellular and chemical system that comes immediately into play if infectious agents pass the surface defenses second line of defense
the four mechanism for the second line of defense is to identify and destroy is 1. phagocytosis 2. inflammation 3. fever 4. antimicrobial proteins
during phagocytosis the cells devour non-self
Survey tissues and interstitial compartments, Ingest and eliminate , Extract antigens are activities of phagocytosis
____ A mature granulocyte present in peripheral circulation, exhibiting a multilobular nucleus and numerous cytoplasmic granules that retain a neutral stain. The neutrophil is an active phagocytic cell in bacterial infection. neutrophil
___ have a limited ability to phagocytose due to their rapid death when exposed to their own toxic oxygen products that also kill engulfed bacteria. neutrophils
____ accumulate quickly near sites of injury or infection and are a primary component of pus. dead neutrophils
____ A large mononuclear leukocyte normally found in the lymph nodes, spleen, bone marrow, and loose connective tissue. This type of cell makes up 3% to 7% of circulating leukocytes. monocyte
___ A white blood cell derived from a monocyte that leaves the circulation and enters tissues. These cells are important in nonspecific phagocytosis and in regulating, stimulating, and cleaning up after immune responses. macrophage
monocytes are transformed by varies inflammatory mediators into macrophages
Neutrophils are _____ of WBC 40-60%
Neutrophils are ___ 1st responders
___ are granular leukocytes (lysosomes) neutrophils
Macrophages and Monocytes ingest ___ and ____ cells pathogens, infected
Macrophages and monocytes are important to the third line of defense
Macrophages and monocytes eat (3) 1. markers 2. PAMPS 3. PRRs
Inflammation respond to injury or infection
____ can be Mild or severe, rapid or long term, local or systemic inflammation
inflammation mobilize _____ to the state of injury immune components
inflammation work towards repairing tissues
inflammation destroy __ and block___ microbes, further invasion
inflammation has a powerful ___ defensive reaction
vascodilation is heat and redness
___ is also called pyrexia fever
____ means eating cell phagocyte
These pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) are molecules shared by many microorganisms—but not present in mammals
_____ include peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharide. Double-stranded RNA, which is found only in some _____ baterial PAMPS, viruses
_____ A large protein in phagocytic cells that contains pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) to help these cells initiate the inflammatory response. imflammasome
Many_______ cells of the innate immune system contain PRRs inside their ______ phagocytic, cytoplasm
At its most general level, the ______ response is a reaction to any traumatic event in the tissues. inflammatory
Rubor ish.o redness
_____ is caused by increased circulation and vasodilation in the injured tissues; rubor
Calor is warmth
______ is the heat given off by the increased flow of blood; calor
tumor is swelling
_____ is caused by increased fluid escaping into the tissues tumor
dolor is pain
____ is caused by the stimulation of nerve endings dolor
cardovascular disease can be caused by chronic inflammation
1. mobilize and attract immune components to the site 2. to set in motion mechanisms to repair tissue damage and localize and clear away harmful substances, and 3. to destroy microbes and block their further invasion. are functions of _____ inflammation
_____ response is a powerful defensive reaction, a means for the body to maintain stability and restore itself after an injury. inflmmatory
_____ has the potential to actually cause tissue injury, destruction, and disease. inflammatory response
In order to assess immune function, the nurse anticipates that the physician will first order a a.white blood cell (WBC) count with differential. b.red blood cell (RBC) count with differential. c.chemistry profile. d.coagulation profile. A
pt has 3-day of fever, lethargy, & respiratory symptoms. Is experiencing an immune response? Select all that apply. a.swollen cervical lymph nodes b.axillary temperature 39.0°C c.redness in the oropharynx d.sneezin e.large amt of nasal secretions A, B, C, E
____ The migration of intact blood cells between endothelial cells of a blood vessel such as a venule. diapedesis
_______ or the tendency of cells to migrate in response to a specific chemical stimulus given off at a site of injury or infection. chemotaxis
The _____of fluid dilutes toxic substances, and the_____ can effectively trap microbes and prevent their further spread. influx, fibrin clot
___ The viscous, opaque, usually yellowish matter formed by an inflammatory infection. It consists of serum exudate, tissue debris, leukocytes, and microorganisms. pus
_____ Pertains to pus formers, especially the pyogenic cocci: pneumococci, streptococci, staphylococci, and neisseriae. pyogenic
An important systemic component of inflammation—and innate immunity in general—is fever
____ defined as an abnormally elevated body temperature. fever
FUO fevers of unknown orgins
core temperature is around 37C (98.6F)
____ A substance that causes a rise in body temperature. It can come from pyrogenic microorganisms or from polymorphonuclear leukocytes (endogenous pyrogens). pyrogen
____ reset the hypothalamic thermostat to a higher setting pyrogens
____ Small molecules that are released during inflammation and specific immune reactions that allow communication between the cells of the immune system and facilitate surveillance, recognition, and attack. chemical mediators
____ Referring to chemical mediators involved in the immune response that act on endothelial cells or the smooth muscle of blood vessels causing them to either restrict or relax. vasoactive
____ Chemical mediators that stimulate the movement of white blood cells. See chemokine. chemotactic factors
____ Chemical mediators (cytokines) that stimulate the movement and migration of white blood cells. chemokine
____ Fluid that escapes cells into the extracellular spaces during the inflammatory response. exudate
inflmmatory steps 1. injury 2. vascular reaction 3.edema/ pus 4. resolution/ scar
____ Referring to serum, the clear fluid that escapes cells during the inflammatory response. serous
____ The migration of intact blood cells between endothelial cells of a blood vessel such as a venule. diapedesis
_____ Originating outside the body. exogenous
____ originating internally endogenous
______pyrogens are products of infectious agents such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa, and fungi. exogenous
_____ pyrogens are released by monocytes, neutrophils, and macrophages during the process of phagocytosis and appear to be a natural part of the immune response. endogenous
pt followin joint replacement surgery develops a fever in the first 24 hours. What is the priority intervention? a.Collect blood cultures from pt’s peripheral IV catheters. b.Administer antipyretic med. c.Apply ice packs to surgical site. d. IV bolus A
fever inhibits multplication of temperature ___ and ___ sensitive viruses and fungal pathogens
fever reduces ability of iron
fever increases ___ and stimulate ___ metabolism, immune responses
dangers of fever (4) 1. tachycardia 2. tachypnea 3. lower seizure threshold 4. brain damage
tachypnea is elevated respiratory rate
____ Natural human chemical that inhibits viral replication; used therapeutically to combat viral infections and cancer. interferon (IFN)
_____ In immunology, serum protein components that act in a definite sequence when set in motion either by an antigen-antibody complex or by factors of the alternative (properdin) pathway. complement
____ Short protein molecules found in epithelial cells; have the ability to kill bacteria. 12-15 amino acids antimicrobial peptides
____ Host cell molecules that inhibit viral replication. restriction factors
____ are small proteins produced naturally by certain white blood and tissue cells. interferons
the three major interferons are alpha, beta, and gamma
intergeron works by infected cells produce interferon
interferon attaches to another cell
with interferons the 2nd cell produces proteins to inhibit viral replication
complement has 30 proteins in blood
complement is inactive until infection
complement cascade reactions are (4) 1. initiation 2. activation and cascade 3. polymerization 4. membrane attack
complement amplifies inflammation
antimicrobial peptides are short proteins
antimicrobial peptides insert into prokaryotic membran= death
antimicrobial peptides have (3) 1. defensin 2. magainins 3. protegrins
____ Pathway of complement activation initiated by a specific antigen-antibody interaction. classical complement pathway
_____ Complement cascade initiated by spontaneous breakdown of a blood protein called C3 in the presence of microbes. alternative complement pathway
___ In the alternative pathway, a C3 protein, either free or bound to a pathogen membrane, is hydrolyzed into two fragments, C3b and C3a initiation
_____ involve further enzymatic action. The C3b protein cleaves the protein C5 into C5a and C5b. activation and cascade
____ The C5b fragment is now free to form a complex with C6, C7, and C8. This complex is called the ____ polymerization, membrane attack complex
_____ A group of proteins that insert themselves into bacterial or infected cell membranes as a result of complement activation. membrane attack complex
_____ are short proteins, of between 12 and 50 amino acids, that have the capability of inserting themselves into bacterial membranes antimicrobial peptides
prevent assembly of a new virus, or prevent virus release from host cells. These are collectively called restriction factors
A microorganism carries _____ markers and a B cell carries _____ markers. a. self, nonself b. nonself, self c. self, self d. nonself, nonself B
Which of the following cells are lymphocytes? a. macrophages b. neutrophils c. red blood cells d. B cells D
Cytokines are secreted by which cells? a. macrophages b. B cells c. T cells d. all of these D
The initial reaction to the presence of viruses in a human cell is the production of __________ by that cell. a. complement b. interferon c. antiviral protein d. fever B
An example of an exogenous pyrogen is a. interleukin-1. b. endotoxin. c. complement. d. interferon. B
The normal microbiota is part of the ______ line of defense. a. first b. second c. third d. None of these is correct. A
_______immune reactions are generalized responses to invasion, regardless of the type. These include phagocytosis, inflammation, fever, and an array of antimicrobial products. nonspecific
Mucous membranes and the skin are _____ barriers. Sweat, lysozymes, fatty acids, and pH levels are typical ____ barriers. physical, chemical
____ encompasses the study of all features of the body’s second and third lines of defense immunology
What fluid compartments must work together for effective immune responsiveness? Molecular Phagocyte System & Extracellular Fluid - blood & lymphatic capillaries penetrate these tissues
*Parts -Tonsils -Spleen -Cervical, Axillary, Lymph, Thoracic, Abdominal, Inguinal, Pelvic Nodes -GALT are all parts of the ____ lymphatic system
What formed elements are present in the blood stream? blood cells
What are common portals of entry for microbes? usually skin or mucous membrane
Bacterial, Fungal & Protozaol Pathogens attach by Attach by mechanisms such as fimbriae (pili), surface proteins & adhesive slimes or capsules.
viruses attach by means of of specialized receptors.
parasitic worms attach by suckers, hooks & barbs.
Why is adhesion a key step in a microbes ability to cause disease? It allows them to gain a more stable foothold on the host tissues.
Why are asymptomatic infections problematic? They can cause serious damage if they are not caught, and they are hard to catch
_____ Infectious agent multiplies at high levels, exhibits greatest virulence, and becomes well established in its target tissue period of invasion
What is the relationship between transmitters and reservoirs? Reservoir is where the disease can live, transmitter is when the disease is actually passed on to a healthy host
Which leukocytes are especially active in phagocytosis? lymphocytosis
What are the four cardinal signs of inflammation? Redness, Warmth, Swelling, Pain
____ are Hundreds of small, active molecules constantly being secreted to regulate, stimulate, suppress & control the aspects of cell development, inflammation & immunity cytokines
fever is caused by when pyrogens reset the hypothalamic thermostat to a higher setting.
What are the three classes of MHC Class 1: on all nucleated cells -Class 2: Macrophages, B Cells, Dendritic Cells -Class 3: Proteins involved in the complement system
Alpha & Beta Stimulate phagocytes
gamma is Immune regulator of macrophages & T & B cells
_____ Consists of over 30 dif. blood proteins that work in concert to destroy bacteria complement system
_____ are Molecules that stimulate a response by T & B cells (cause an immune response) antigen/immunogen
_____ are The primary signal that a molecule is foreign ***small fragment of the molecule epitope
_____ is the Ability of the body to react with countless foreign substances Immunocompetence
What two important characteristics make the third line of defense different from the first two? Specificity & Memory, Acquired immunity is specific, Acquired immunity is specific.
What are the four stages of lymphocyte development? 1. Development of B & T 2. Antigen processing, 3. Lymphocyte activation 4. End result of lymphocyte activation
_____ lymphocyte specificity & migration to lymphoid organs development of B&T
____ presentation to lymphocytes, assistance to B cells by T cells antigen processing
_____ clonal expansion, formation of memory B & T cells Lymphocyte activation
_____ antibody release, cell mediated immunity End result of lymphocyte activation
Which lymphocyte development stages are antigen-dependent? stages 2-4
What is the MHC? Major Histocompatibility Complex- set of genes that codes for human cell markers or receptors
What are CD molecules Cluster of differentiation markers
CD molecules? What are the most prominent/important ones? Most IMPORTANT - CD3, CD4, CD8
____ In immunity, the concept that some parts of the immune system only react with antigens that originally activated them. specificity
_____ The capacity of the immune system to recognize and act against an antigen upon second and subsequent encounters. memory
The elegance and complexity of _______ are largely due to lymphocytes working closely together with phagocytes. immune function
1 Lymph development& clonal deletion; 2 Present of antigen& clonal selection; III. Challenge of B and T lymph by antigens; IV. T-lymph response: cell-mediated immunity& B-lymph response: the prod & activities of antibodies. are prinicpal stages for? immunologic development and interaction
Although all _____ arise from the same basic stem cell type, at some point in development they diverge into two distinct types. lymphocytes
for the lymphocyte development of B cells occurs in specialized _____sites, and that of T cells occurs in the _____. B marrow, thymus
____ response is focused on a single antigen specificity
____ there is always at least one cell that can react against any antigen dicersity
____ only turned on when triggered inducibility
_____ generates millions of cells with the same specificity clonality
___ does not react with self antigens tolerance
___ rapid mobilization of lymphocytes preprogrammed to recall their first engagement with the antigen memory
What happens during primary lymphocyte development (3 things) 1. proliferation 2. differentiation 3. acquisition of antigen recognition
_____ A set of genes in mammals that produces molecules on surfaces of cells that differentiate among different individuals in the species. See HLA major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
_____ their major role is to “accept” or “grasp” antigens in some form. lymphocyte markers/ receptors
___ have receptors that bind antigens, B cells
___ have receptors that bind antigens that have been processed and complexed with MHC molecules on the presenting cell surface T cells
______ that activate macrophages, assist B-cell processes, and help activate cytotoxic T cells; helper T cells
____ control the T-cell response by secreting anti-inflammatory cytokines or preventing proliferation; regulatory T cells
_____ that lead to the destruction of infected host cells and other “foreign” cells. cytotoxic T cells
____ host immune responses that are mediated by antigen-specific T cells and various nonspecific cells of immune system cell mediated immunity
CMI protect against intracellular bacteria, viruses, and tumors and responsible for graft rejection
third line of defense when host barriers and non specific defenses ____ fail
______ response defends against pathogens that are free in the blood by using antibodies against pathogen-specific antigens. humoral response
_____ React specifically and nonspecifically; responsive to lipid antigens gamma t cells
CMI cell types are (5) 1. helper t cells 2. regulatory t cells 3. cytotoxic t cells 4. memory t cells 5. gamma-delta t cells
___ Activates the cell-mediated immunity pathway; secretes tumor necrosis factor and interferon gamma; also responsible for delayed hypersensitivity t helper cell 1
____ Can activate macrophages to expel helminths or protozoans, phagocytose extracellular antigens; contributes to type 1 (allergic) hypersensitivity; can encourage tumor development t helper cell 2
____ Promotes inflammation t helper cell 17
____ Drives B-cell proliferation, and aids B cells in antibody class switching T follicular helper cell
_____ Controls specific immune response; prevents autoimmunity; can contribute to cancer progression T regulatory cell
___ Destroys a target foreign cell by lysis; important in destruction of complex microbes, cancer cells, virus-infected cells; graft rejection; requires MHC-I for function T cytotoxic cell
B cell Specific Surface Markers immunoglobulin
T cells Specific Surface Markers t cell receptor several CD molecules
B cells Circulation in Blood low numbers
T cells Circulation in Blood high numbers
B cells Receptors for Antigen b cell receptor
T cells Receptors for Antigen t cell receptor
B cells Distribution in Lymphatic Organs cortex
T cells Distribution in Lymphatic Organs paracortical sites
B cells require Antigen Presented with MHC no
T cells Require Antigen Presented with MHC yes
B cells product of Antigenic Stimulation Plasma cells and memory cells
T cells product of antigenic stimulation Several types of activated T cells and memory cells
____ general function is Production of antibodies to inactivate, neutralize, target antigens b cells
_____ general function is Cells activated to help other immune cells; suppress or kill abnormal cells; mediate hypersensitivity; synthesize cytokines t cells
____ The chemical class of proteins to which antibodies belong. immunoglobulin (IG)
____ Specific region at the ends of the antibody molecule that recognize specific antigens. These sites have numerous shapes to fit a wide variety of antigens. antigen binding site
____ The antigen binding fragment of an immunoglobulin molecule, consisting of a combination of heavy and light chains whose molecular conformation is specific for the antigen. variable region
____ A conceptual explanation for the development of lymphocyte specificity and variety during immune maturation. clonal selection
After activation, the B or T cell multiplies rapidly in a process called ______ clonal expansion
This outcome can lead to severe damage if the immune system actually perceives self molecules as foreign and mounts a harmful response against the host’s tissues. Any such clones are destroyed during development through _____ clonal deletion
____ A colony of cells derived from a single cell (or single organism) by asexual reproduction. All units share identical characteristics. Also used as a verb to refer to the process of producing a genetically identical population of cells or genes. clone
_____ The selective elimination of lymphocytes that would recognize self markers. clonal deletion
_____ Tolerance to self; the inability of one’s immune system to react to self proteins or antigens. immune tolerance
To be perceived as an antigen or immunogen, a substance must meet certain requirements in (4) 1. foreignness 2. shape 3. size 4. accessibility
_____ (enzymes, cell surface structures, exotoxins); proteins and polypeptides
____(cell membranes); lipoproteins
____ blood cell markers glycoproteins
____ (DNA complexed to proteins but not pure DNA) nucleoproteins
____ (certain bacterial capsules) polysaccharides
characteristics of good antigens are (3) 1. chemical composition 2. context 3. size
____ An incomplete or partial antigen. Although it constitutes the determinative group and can bind antigen, hapten cannot stimulate a full immune response without being carried by a larger protein molecule. haptens
Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to stimulate the immune response are termed ___ haptens
if such an incomplete antigen is linked to a larger carrier molecule, the combined molecule can develop immunogenicity
____ include such molecules as drugs, metals, and ordinarily innocuous household, industrial, and environmental chemicals. haptens
____ An antigen that is present in some but not all members of the same species. alloantigens
____ are cell surface markers and molecules that occur in some members of the same species but not in others. alloantigens
____ Bacterial toxins that are potent stimuli for T cells and can be a factor in diseases such as toxic shock. superantigens
____ A substance that provokes an allergic response. allergens
_____ Cells of the immune system that digest foreign cells and particles and place pieces of them on their own surfaces in such a way that other cells of the immune system recognize them. antigen-presenting cells (APCs)
____ A large, antigen-processing cell characterized by long, branchlike extensions of the cell membrane. dendritic cells
____ cells are the most potent and versatile of the APC dendritic
The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is a gene complex that gives rise to a series of glycoproteins (MHC molecules) found on all cells except a.red blood cells. b.white blood cells. c.plasma cells. d.B cells. A
_____ A birth defect usually caused by a missing or incomplete thymus that results in abnormally low or absent T cells and other developmental abnormalities. Digeorge syndrome
____ A collection of syndromes occurring in newborns caused by a genetic defect that knocks out both B- and T-cell types of immunity. There are several versions of this disease. severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
In reviewing a client’s history, the nurse notes that the client’s blood type is O-negative. The client’s blood type is based on the presence or absence of a.haptens. b.alloantigens. c.limmunogens. d.lipoproteins. B
____ cells have one job: to destroy other cells. cytotoxic T cells
______ is the most important factor in graft rejection cytotoxic cell-mediated immunity
____ The simultaneous stimulation of T-helper cells and T-cytotoxic cells by antigen. cross presentation
The subcategory of T cells called_____ T cells is distinct from other T cells. gamma-delta
Gamma-delta t cells still produce ____ when they are activated. For these reasons, they are considered a bridge between the nonspecific and specific immune responses. memory cells
_____ cells are a type of lymphocyte related to T cells that lack specificity for antigens natural killer (NK)
_____ circulate through the spleen, blood, and lungs, and are probably the first killer cells to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells. natural killer (NK) cells
Most antigens must be presented first to_______ even though they will eventually activate both the T-cell and B-cell systems t cells
a few antigens can trigger a response directly from B lymphocytes without the cooperation of APCs or T helper cells. These are called _________ t cell independent antigens
______ reactions require T helper cells. b cells
For the third line of defense is when ____ and ____ fail Host barriers, non specific defenses
There are 6 methods for third line of defense 1. Acquired 2. Induced 3. Specific 4. Memory 5. Colonality 6. Ttolerance
__ The ability of the body to recognize and react with multiple foreign substances. Immunocompetence
____ A large protein molecule evoked in response to an antigen that interacts specifically with that antigen. Antibody
___ is the most common infection (nosocomal) Uti
____ Any cell, particle, or chemical that induces a specific immune response by B cells or T cells and can stimulate resistance to an infection or a toxin. See immunogen. Antigen (ag), immunogen
Most common animal to spread disease to humans Flies, fleas, ticks, mosquitoes
___ is the most contracted disease from animals to humans Rabies
_____ The precise molecular group of an antigen that defines its specificity and triggers the immune response. Epitope
____ make up a full 70% of all new emerging diseases worldwide. Zoonoses
Asympotomatic examples are Gonorrhea, herpes
Inculbating disease ex Mono
Convalescent examples Hep a
Chronic ex Tuberculosis
Passive infection ex Health care associated infection
Mosquitoes = Maliara
Horizontal disease is from One person to another
Point source for epidemic curves Infectious agent comes from single source and all victims are exposed
Epidemic curves/ graphs are Incidence over time
Epidemic curves propagated Infectious agent that is communicable from person to person and therefore it stays for long periods of time
Point vs common Point- specific 1 time like restaurant Common- over long periods of time (city water)
We refer to ____ as restricted that is they require MTV to be activated T cells
T cells produce____ Cytokines
End result of ____ stimulation is the mobilization of other t cells, b cells, and phagocytes T cells
T cells are sensitized when an _____ complex comes in contact with receptors Antigen/mhc
When activated t cells divide the differentiate into subsets of ______ and ______ cells Effector cells, memory
_____ are some of the longest lived blood cells known Memory t cells
All t helper cells have ____ Cd4 markers
T helper cells regulate immune reactions to ______ Antigens
T helper cells help activate Macrophages
T helper cells help activate macrophages directly by Receptor contact
T helper cells help activate macrophages indirectly by releasing Cytokines like interferon gamma
T cells secrete Interleukin
Interleukin-2 stimulates growth and activation of T cells and cytotoxic cells
______ cells are the most prevalent type of t cells in the blood and lymphoid organs it makes up for ___ of this population T helper, 65%
Severe depression of t cells by HIV causes Aids
Cytotoxic t felld have 1 job Destroy other cells
TC cells destroy (3) 1. Virally infected cells 2. cancer cells 3. human and animal cells
_____ A T lymphocyte programmed to directly affix cells and kill them. See cytotoxicity. killer T cells
_____ Proteins released by cytotoxic T cells that produce pores in target cells. perforin
_____ Enzymes secreted by cytotoxic T cells that damage proteins of target cells. Granzymes
_____ are proteins that can punch holes in the membranes of target cells. perforins
_____ are enzymes that attack proteins of target cells. granzymes
The two “arms” that bind antigen are termed antigen binding fragments
______ coat the surface of a bacterium, preventing its normal function and reproduction antibodies
______ The process of stimulating phagocytosis by affixing molecules (opsonins such as antibodies and complement) to the surfaces of foreign cells or particles. opsonization
____ a process that makes microbes more readily recognized by phagocytes, opsonization
____ The process of combining an acid and a base until they reach a balanced proportion, with a pH value close to 7. neutralization
______ antibodies fill the surface receptors on a virus or the active site on a microbial enzyme to prevent it from attaching normally. neutralization reactions
_____ The aggregation by antibodies of suspended cells or similar-size particles (agglutinogens) into clumps that settle. aggutination
____ Globulin fraction of serum that neutralizes a specific toxin. Also refers to the specific antitoxin antibody itself. antitoxin
The principal activity of an antibody is to (3) 1. immobilize 2. call attention to 3. neutralize antigen
Immunoglobulins exist as structural and functional classes called isotypes
These are forms or? 1. monomer that circulates in small amounts in the blood 2. dimer that is a significant component of the mucous and serous secretions of the salivary glands, intestine, nasal membrane, breast, lung, and genitourinary tract IGA
The dimer, called _____IgA, is formed by two monomers held together by a _____ secretory, J chain
The Fc on a IgG binds to the phagocytes
the Fc on a IgE binds to the mast cells and basiphils
Monomer produced by plasma in a primary response & by memory cells respondin the 2nd time to a given antigenic; most prevalent antibody circulating throughout the tissue fluids& blood; neutralizes toxins, opsonizes, fixes complement is the function of IgG
Dimer is secretory antibody on mucous membranes; monomer in small quantities in blood is the function of IgA
Produced at first response to antigen; can serve as B-cell receptor is the function of IgM
Receptor on B cells; triggering molecule for B-cell activation is the function of IgD
Antibody of allergy; worm infections; mediates anaphylaxis, asthma, etc. is the function of IgE
____ coats the surface of mucous membranes and also is suspended in saliva, tears, colostrum, and mucus. IGA
The very earliest secretion of the breast, a thin, yellow milk called ______, is very high in IgA. colostrum
____ antibodies form a protective coating in the gastrointestinal tract of a nursing infant that guards against infection by a number of enteric pathogens IGA
____ In immunochemistry, a measure of antibody level in a patient, determined by agglutination methods. titer
____ The first response of the immune system when exposed to an antigen. primary response
_____ The rapid rise in antibody titer following a repeat exposure to an antigen that has been recognized from a previous exposure. This response is brought about by memory cells produced as a result of the primary exposure secondary response
The secondary response is also called the amamnestic response
_____ Any immunity that arises naturally in an organism via previous experience with the antigen. natural immunity
_____ encompasses any immunity that is acquired during the normal biological experiences of an individual rather than through medical intervention. natural immunity
____ Immunity that is induced as a medical intervention, either by exposing an individual to an antigen or administering immune substances to him or her. artificial immunity
____ is protection from infection obtained through medical procedures. artificial immunity
____ immunity is induced by immunization with vaccines and immune serum. artificial
____ Immunity acquired through direct stimulation of the immune system by antigen. active
_____ occurs when an individual receives an immune stimulus (antigen) that activates the B and T cells, causing the body to produce immune substances such as antibodies. active immunity
______ creates a memory that renders the person ready for quick action upon reexposure to that same antigen; active immunity
_____ requires several days to develop; active immunity
______ lasts for a relatively long time, sometimes for life active immunity
_____ and ______ can be stimulated by natural or artificial means. active immunity, passive immunity
_____ Specific resistance that is acquired indirectly by donation of preformed immune substances (antibodies) produced in the body of another individual passive immunity
______ occurs when an individual receives immune substances (usually antibodies) that were produced actively in the body of another human or animal donor. passive immunity
____ is characterized by 1. lack of memory 2. lack of production of antibodies 3. immediate onset and protection 4. short term effectiveness passive immunity
_____ A hazardous, outmoded process of deliberately introducing smallpox material scraped from a victim into the nonimmune subject in the hope of inducing resistance. variolation
___ used in reference to inoculation with the cowpox or vaccinia virus to protect against smallpox. In general, the term now pertains to injection of whole microbes (killed or attenuated), toxoids, or parts of microbes as a prevention or cure for disease. vaccine
_____ occur as (1) a fetus develops and encounters selected antibodies that are able to cross the placental barrier, and (2) a newborn nurses and receives IgA in breast milk that is secreted at birth and for a short time afterward. passive immunization
The method of processing______concentrates the antibodies to increase potency and eliminates potential pathogens (such as hepatitis B and HIV). IVIG
A preparation called s________ (SIG) is derived from a more defined group of donors. specific immune globulin
The basic _____behind vaccination is to stimulate a primary response and a memory response that primes the immune system for future exposure to a virulent pathogen. principle
In ______, an infectious agent stimulates a relatively long-term protective response. natural immunity
an effective vaccine are as follows: It should protect against exposure to ___ and ____ forms of the pathogen. natural and wild
an effective vaccine are as follows: It should have a low level of adverse ____ or _____ and not cause harm. side effects or toxicity
an effective vaccine are as follows: It should stimulate both antibody _____ response and cell-mediated ____ response. b-cell, c-cell
an effective vaccine are as follows :It should have long-term, _____ (produce ______). lasting effects, memory
an effective vaccine are as follows: It should not require numerous ____ or _____. doses or boosters
an effective vaccine are as follows: It should be inexpensive, have a relatively _______, and be easy to administer. long shelf life
Vaccine preparations can be broadly categorized as either ______ or _____ preparations. whole-organism or part of organism
These are a. live, attenuated microbial cells or viruses b. killed cells or inactivated viruses whole cells or viruses
_______ preparations: antigenic molecules derived from bacterial cells or viruses (subunits) part-of-organism
Part-of-organism: subunits derived from cultures of ____ or ____ cells or viruses
Part-of-organism: subunits manufactured via _______ genetic engineering
Part-of-organism: subunits conjugated with proteins (often from other microbes) to make them more _____. These are called conjugated _____ immunogenic, conjugated vaccines
_____ Subunit vaccines combined with carrier proteins, often from other microbes, to make them more immunogenic. conjugated vaccines
_____ A newer vaccine preparation based on inserting DNA from pathogens into host cells to encourage them to express the foreign protein and stimulate immunity. dna vaccine
______ or _____ are very effective immunogens, since they are so large and complex whole cells or viruses
______ (viruses are termed “inactivated” instead of “killed”) are prepared by cultivating the desired strain or strains of a bacterium or virus and treating them with chemicals, radiation, heat, or some other agent that does not destroy antigenicity. killed vaccines
_____ A whole cell or intact virus preparation in which the microbes are dead or preserved and cannot multiply but are still capable of conferring immunity killed or inactivated vaccine
______ contain live microbes whose virulence has been attenuated, or lessened/eliminated. live attenuated vaccines
____ Vaccines composed of living organisms that have been weakened and cannot cause disease. live attenuated vaccines
These are advantages of ______ 1. Viable micro can multiply and produce infection (but not disease) like the natural organism 2.confer long-lasting protection 3. require fewer doses & boosters 4. effective at inducing cell-mediated immunity live preparations
If the exact ______ that stimulate immunity are known, it is possible to produce a vaccine based on a selected component of a microorganism. epitopes
___ A vaccine preparation that contains only antigenic fragments such as surface receptors from the microbe. Usually in reference to virus vaccines. subunit vaccine
____ which consists of a purified bacterial exotoxin that has been chemically denatured. toxoid
____ A toxin that has been rendered nontoxic but is still capable of eliciting the formation of protective antitoxin antibodies; used in vaccines. toxoid
____ In immunology, a chemical vehicle that enhances antigenicity, presumably by prolonging antigen retention at the injection site. adjuvant
The ____ precipitates the antigen and holds it in the tissues so that it will be released gradually. adjuvant
1. A single bacterium has _______ epitope(s). a. a specific b. multiple c. MHC d. clonal B
4. The primary B-cell receptor is a. IgD. b. IgA. c. IgE. d. IgG. A
7. In humans, B cells mature in the ___ and T cells mature in the ____. a. GALT; liver b. bursa; thymus c. bone marrow; thymus d. lymph nodes; spleen C
10. Which of the following cells is capable of specifically responding to a nearly infinite number of epitopes? a. B and T cells b. Plasma cells c. T cytotoxic cells d. All of these A
16. A vaccine that contains parts of viruses is called a. acellular. b. recombinant. c. subunit. d. attenuated. C
19. u draw from a pt & if pt has a herpes simplex infection, pt has large amt of IgG against virus but low levels of IgM, what do u conclude? a.pt is newly infected. b.pt had the infection awhile. c. The pt is not infected. d. cant draw conclusions. B
13. Some microbial products can activate B cells without the assistance of T cells. Which of the following can do this? a. Capsule of S. pneumoniae b. Lipopolysaccharide c. Some viral capsids d. All of these D
1. The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is a gene complex that gives rise to a series of glycoproteins (MHC molecules) found on all cells except a. red blood cells. b. white blood cells. c. plasma cells. d. B cells. A
2. In reviewing a client’s history, the nurse notes that the client’s blood type is O-negative. The client’s blood type is based on the presence or absence of a. haptens. b. alloantigens. c. limmunogens. d. lipoproteins. B
3. Which characteristic is associated with passive artificial immunity? a. long-term protection duration b. requires several days to develop protection c. immediate protection d. creation of memory in response to antigen C
humoral immunity deals with extracellular antigens
humoral immunity utilizes b cells
In humoral immunity the production of ______ is the final result antibodies
cell-mediated immunity utilizes t cells
in cell-mediated immunity we see ______________, which are involved in chemical signals cytokines
what is one major difference between humoral immunity and cell mediated immunity h- prevention of infection c- attacks already infected cells
Lymphocyte Development are antigen independent
Lymphocyte Development stem cells become b or t cells
Lymphocyte Development mature and enter circulation
Antigens and Clonal Selection pathogens breech first line of defense
Antigens and Clonal Selection antigens are process and presented by the 2nd line of defense
Antigens and Clonal Selection appropriate t and b cells activated
Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) genes code for mhc are molecules (markers and receptors)
Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) recognition of self and non self
Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) all nucleated human cells
CD Molecules cluster of differentiation
CD Molecules are on cell surgace
CD Molecules there are over 300
CD Molecules main ones are cd3, cd4, cd8
Lymphocyte Receptors are the hands of the immune system
Lymphocyte Receptors b cells grab ags directly
Lymphocyte Receptors t cells grab ag/ mhc complex
Antigens b and t cells are challenged by antigens
Challenging with Antigens is activation
Challenging with Antigens clonal selection and expansion
Challenging with Antigens has differentiation
Cell Mediated Immunity Targets cells attack directly
____ targets cancer cells, virally infected cells, intracellular pathogens (tuberculosis), cells from other humans and animals cell mediated immunity
Lymphocyte Development maturation directed by thymus
good antigens must be big and complex
T-independent antigens trigger direct response from b cells
T-independent antigens are simple molecules
Antigen Presenting Cells (APC’s) they _____ process and present antigen
Engulf- breakdown- transported apc
___ presented to T helper cells membrane
apc stimulate cd4 co receptor
cd4 carrying t cells becomes active and differentiates th or tr
Th1- cytokines-stimulate macrophages
th2-cytokines- stimulate b cell proliferation
th17- inflammation
tr stands for t regulatory
APC and TH1 stimulate cd8 cells
CD8 carrying cell becomes active tc
Cytotoxic T Attack release perforins and granzymes is called ____ apoptosis
Cytotoxic T Attack active in graft rejection
gamma-delta t cells respond to certain kinds of PAMPS
gamma-delta t cells is a bridge between 2nd and 3rd defense
antibodies attack ____ that bind specifically to antigens proteins
IgG is gamma globulin
IgG is the most prevalent
IgG is produced by plasma and memory cells
IgG crosses the placenta
IgG in Fc binds to phagocytes
IgD is in very low concentration
IgM has a ____ shape Pentamer
IgA gives localized protection
Vaccines create long-lasting immunity via t and b cell response without illness or other harm
Mature T cells can express: CD8 and CD4
once b cells mature they go to the bone marrow
What makes a good antigen? Size (large), complex (proteins), easily soluble
_____ that actually perform the ultimate action of the system effector cells
the two “arms” that bind antigen are termed________ (Fabs), and the rest of the molecule is the ________ (Fc), so called because it was the first to be crystallized in pure form. antigen binding fragments, crystallizable fragments
The Fc end of the antibody of allergy (IgE) binds to basophils and mast cells, which causes the release of_______ mediators such as histamine. allergic
structure of an antibody? 1. four polypeptide chains 2. variable region 3. constant region
Precise molecular group of an antigen that defines its specificity and triggers the immune response epitope
antigen binding sites: determine antigen specificity and attachment - can bind to two epitopes of the same at the same time is called ______ Fab fragment
this is heavy chain constant region: determines effector functions including binding to: 1. Fc receptors on host cells 2. First molecules in classical complement pathway - tells us the class and function of antibody Fc region
horizontal is one peep to another
microbial antagonism blocks entry
neutrophils are for phagocytes
eosinophils are for worm and fungal infections
Basophils are for inflammatory
monocytes mature into macrophages
lymphocytes are for the 3rd line of defense
B cell- humoral immunity- ab production
T-cell mediated immunity is a cytotoxic response
Membrane attack drills holes into Cytoplasm of bacteria
WBC identify bacteria by Pamps (marker/antigen)
Epitope is part of antigen that it Identifiesand attacks against
Humoral response no Cell body involved
CD stands for Cluster of differentiation
Fc stands for F constant cell
Fc site can bind with Macrophages, many cells, wbc
Fab sites matches specific Epitope
Fab both sites on y must fit the same Epitope
Iga most important in specific Local immunity in mucous lining areas
During lactation High iga
Iga provides protective coat in gastrointestinal tract protection against Pathogens
The original term for vaccination Variolation
2 main types of vaccine are 1. Whole cell/ virus 2. Subunits
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