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micro exam 3 exta
dtcc micro 125
Question | Answer |
---|---|
human microbiome | microbes that live in or on humans |
some microbes are colonist meaning they have | normal biota |
some microbes are rapidly lost meaning they are | transients |
some microbes that are not colonist or rapid are | tissue invaders |
most human microbiome | colonize for long term cause no harm |
infection is when | microbes get past host defense into tissues and multiply |
When the cumulative effects of the infection damage or disrupt tissues and organs, the pathologic state that results is _______ | disease |
a disease is defined as any | deviation from health |
human diseases are caused by factors such as (4) | 1. infections, 2. genetics, 3. aging, 4. malfunction of systems or organs |
______ is a pathologic state caused directly by microorganisms or their products. | infectious disease |
humans actually require microbes in and on their bodies for | proper growth and development |
A project of the National Institutes of Health to identify microbial inhabitants of the human body and their role in health and disease; uses metagenomic techniques instead of culturing. | Human microbiome project (HMP) |
human cells contain about | 21000 protein encoding genes |
microbes living on/in us only contain | 8 million protein encoding genes |
many of the proteins we produce by genes are enzymes that help us | digest our food and metabolize substances |
____ are certainly present in healthy humans in vast quantities, both those that infect human cells and those infecting all the cells of our resident biota. | viruses |
All healthy people seem to also harbor potentially dangerous ________. | pathogens |
incoming microbes that might cause disease have to encounter the ______ as part of their path to establishing themselves in the host. | microbiome |
The human body offers a seemingly endless variety of environmental niches, with wide variations such as (4) | 1. temp, 2. ph, 3. nutrients, 4. oxygen tension |
Sites previously known to harbor normal microbiota (7) | 1. skin 2. upper respiratory tract 3. GI tract 4. Urethra 5. vagina 6. ear 7. eye |
site now thought to have normal microbiota or their DNA (4) | 1. lungs (lower) 2. Bladder (urine) 3. breast (milk too) 4. Amniotic fluid and fetus |
Sites in which DNA from microbiota has been detected (2) | 1. Brain 2. bloodstream |
Relationship in which microorganisms compete for survival in a common environment by taking actions that inhibit or destroy another organism are called _____ | microbial antagonism |
babies get a soure of microbiota from (5) | 1. utero 2. vagina or c section 3. milk 4. caregivers 5. environment |
the vagina contains | lactobacillus bacteria |
lactobacillus bacteria protects the baby from | skin disorders and other conditions |
The act of taking up long-term residence; as in microbes establishing a steady relationship with a host. | colonize |
The entry, establishment, and multiplication of pathogenic organisms within a host. | infection |
Any deviation from health, as when the effects of microbial infection damage or disrupt tissues and organs. | disease |
A microbe whose relationship with its host is parasitic and results in infection and disease is termed a | pathogen |
_______ is a broad concept that describes an organism’s potential to cause disease and is used to divide pathogenic microbes into one of two groups. | pathogenicity |
________ (primary pathogens) are capable of causing disease in healthy persons with normal immune defenses. | true pathogens |
Examples of true pathogens include the (3) | 1. flu 2. plague bacillus 3. malarial protozoan |
_______ cause disease when the host’s defenses are compromised or when the pathogens become established in a part of the body that is not natural to them. | opportunistic pathogens |
examples of opportunistic pathogens include (2) | 1. pseudomonas species 2. candida albicans |
The relative severity of the disease caused by a particular microorganism depends on the _______ | virulence |
is the accurate term for describing the degree of pathogenicity. | virulence |
The virulence of a microbe is determined by its ability to (2) | 1. establish itself in host 2. cause damage |
for a virulence microbe to establish themselves in a host it must (4) | 1.enter host 2. attach 3. negotiate microbiome 4. survive host defenses |
viruses attach by means of | specialized receptors |
Involving multiple distinct microorganisms. | polymicrobial |
A class of white blood cells capable of engulfing other cells and particles. | phagocyte |
_______ normally These cells ordinarily engulf and destroy pathogens by means of enzymes and antimicrobial chemicals | phagocytes |
________ are used by some pathogens to avoid phagocytes. | Antiphagocytic factors |
Species of both Streptococcus and Staphylococcus produce | leukocidins |
White blood cells. The primary infection-fighting blood cells. | leukocytes |
A heat-labile substance formed by some pyogenic cocci that impairs and sometimes lyses leukocytes. | leukocidin |
substances that are toxic to white blood cells. | leukocidins |
Some microorganisms secrete an extracellular surface layer (slime or capsule) that makes it physically difficult for the | phagocyte to engulf them. |
There are three major ways that microorganisms damage their host: (3) | 1.directly through the action of enzymes or toxins 2.indirectly by inducing the host’s defenses to respond excessively or inappropriately 3.epigenetic changes made to host cells by microbes |
what three things are virulence factors (3) | 1. enzymes 2. endotoxin 3.exotoxins |
three ways microbes damage the host | 1. microbial enzymes and exo/endotoxins disrupt host cell structure and connections 2.invade host 3. microbes make epigenetic changed to dna and/or supporting sturctures altering host gene |
Many pathogenic bacteria, fungi, protozoa, and worms secrete | exoenzymes |
An extracellular enzyme chiefly for hydrolysis of nutrient macromolecules that are otherwise impervious to the cell membrane. | exoenzyme |
exoenzymes that break down and inflict | damage on tissues |
______ which digests the protective coating on mucous membranes and is a factor in amoebic dysentery; | mucinase |
which digests hyaluronic acid, the ground substance that cements animal cells together. This enzyme is an important virulence factor in staphylococci, clostridia, streptococci, and pneumococci. | hyaluronidase, |
______ results in complete clearing of the red blood cells incorporated in the agar. | beta-hemolysis |
_____ refers to incomplete lysis of the red blood cells, leaving a greenish tinge to the colonies and the area surrounding them. | Alpha-hemolysis |
Coagulase, an enzyme produced by pathogenic staphylococci, causes | clotting of blood and plasma |
______ dissolving fibrin clots and expediting the invasion of damaged tissues. | bacterial kinases |
____ is used a therapy to dissolve blood clots in patients who have problems with thrombi and embolism | stretokinase |
_____ is a specific chemical product of microbes that is poisonous to other organisms. | toxin |
a toxin is named according to its | specific target of action |
______ act on the nervous system and intestine. | neurotoxins |
____ lyse red blood cells; and nephrotoxins damage the kidneys. | hemotoxins |
______ are proteins with a strong specificity for a target cell and extremely powerful, sometimes deadly, effects. | exotoxins |
exotoxins generally affect cells by damaging the | cell membrane and causing lysis or by disrupting intracellular function. |
______ are a class of bacterial exotoxin that disrupts the cell membrane of red blood cells | hemolysins |
Hemolysins causes the red blood cells to | hemolyze |
_____ to burst and release hemoglobin pigment. | hemolyze |
The pattern of hemolysis is often used to identify bacteria and determine their ______ | degree of virulence |
_____ refers to a single substance | endotoxin |
_______ is actually a chemical called lipopolysaccharide (LPS), | endotoxin |
lipopolysaccharide (LPS), which is part of the | outter membrane of gram-neg cell walls |
Endotoxin differs from exotoxins because it has a | variety of systemic effects on tissues and organs. |
___ are toxic in high doses | endotoxins |
___ effect a specific cell type | exotoxins |
When there is a decrease in a host’s ability to mount an immune defense, these patients are termed ____ | immunocompromised |
Microbes that don’t usually cause disease in healthy people are called | opportunistic pathogens |
______ These are microbes that take advantage of immunocompromised hosts to cause disease. | opportunistic pathogens |
for the host important factors are (3) | 1. natural genetic variability 2. seen microbe before 3. hosts level of health |
______ Microbes enter the body, remain confined to a specific tissue | localized infection |
_____ Infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids—usually via the bloodstream—but may travel by other means such as nerves (rabies) and cerebrospinal fluid (meningitis) | systemic infection |
_______ Infectious agent spreads from a local site and is carried to other tissues | focal infection |
_____ Several agents establish themselves simultaneously at the infection site | mixed infection (Polymicrobial infection) |
____ the initial infection | primary infectino |
Boils, warts, fungal skin infections are all examples of | localized infection |
Mumps, rubella, chickenpox, AIDS, anthrax, typhoid, syphilis are all examples of | systemic infection |
Tuberculosis, streptococcal pharyngitis are examples of | focal infection |
Human bite infections, wound infections, gas gangrene are example of | mixed infection (polymicrobial infection) |
___ can be any infection | primary infection |
______ caused by a different microbe, which complicates a primary infection; often a result of lowered host immune defenses | secondary infection |
_____ Infection comes on rapidly, with severe but short-lived effects | acute infection |
_____ Infection that progresses and persists over a long period of time | chronic infection |
Influenza complicated by pneumonia, common cold complicated by bacterial otitis media are examples of | secondary infection |
influenza is an example of an | acute infection |
HIV is an example of a | chronic infection |
_____ is any objective evidence of disease as noted by an observer | sign |
_____ is the subjective evidence of disease as sensed by the patient. | symptom |
When a disease can be identified or defined by a certain complex of signs and symptoms, it is termed a _____ | syndromes |
3. Which of the following factors is not thought to weaken host defenses? a.extremes in age b. underlying disease states c. surgery d. moderate exercise | D |
Babies who are delivered by cecerian section will be colonized by ? | skin biota |
Virulence factors include? A. toxins B. Enzymes C. Capsules D. All of these | D |
the human mircobiome is very important to the | health and function of host |
Normal microbiota varies from | person to person |
human microbiome project has a role in | food digestion and metabolism |
the human microbiome project finds evidence of | microbiota in new places |
microbial antagonism is | good wins over bad |
Intestinal biota influences overall health/physiology (2) | 1. risk of disease, obesity, moods 2. body response to cancer drugs |
microbial anatagonism primary mechanisms (2) | 1. limited resources 2. hostile environment |
normal biota is | pathogenic |
Human body presents variety of environmental conditions and supports wide range of microbes | acquiring microbiota |
Colonization of biota in fetus and newborn comes from (3) | 1. birth 2. feeding 3. contact |
Colonization of biota in fetus and newborn comes from birth is | lactobacilli |
Colonization of biota in fetus and newborn comes from feeding is | formula and breast fed |
newborn stabilizes biota by age | 3 |
true pathogens has a range of severity | mild, severe, fatal |
mild pathogen is a | cold |
severe true pathogen is | malaria |
fatal true pathogens is | rabies |
not considered pathogenic to normal healthy host is ______ | opportunistic pathogens |
opportunistic pathogens are not well-developed | virulence factors |
when a pathogen goes into the wrong portal there is | no infection |
portals of entry can be (5) | 1. skin, 2. gi tract, 3. respiratory, 4. urogenital tract, 5. endogenous biota |
Leukocidins, slime layer capsule, and to live intracellular are all factors for | antiphagocytic |
exotoxins are gram | positive and negative |
endotoxins are gram | negative |
_______ Microbes shun down or activate regions of DNA in the host cell | epigenetic changes |
______ changes harm host cell OR change function | epigenetic |
Which of the followin factors would promote progression of an infection? Select all that apply. a.low microbial virulence b.proper portal of entry c.genetic profile of host resistance d.no previous exposure to this infection e.host immunosuppression | b d e |
The earliest symptoms of disease usually come from the activation of the body defense process called | inflammations |
A natural, nonspecific response to tissue injury that protects the host from further damage. It stimulates immune reactivity and blocks the spread of an infectious agent. | inflammation |
The accumulation of excess fluid in cells, tissues, or serous cavities. Also called swelling. | edema |
A solid mass or nodule of inflammatory tissue containing modified macrophages and lymphocytes. Usually a chronic pathologic process of diseases such as tuberculosis or syphilis. | granuloma |
An inflamed, fibrous lesion enclosing a core of pus. | abscess |
_______ is Inflammation of one or more lymph nodes. Also called lymphadenopathy. | lymphadenitis |
change in white blood cell count indicate | infection |
_____ is an increase in the level of white blood cells, | leukocytosis |
_____ is a decrease.in white blood cells | leukopenia |
_____ Systemic infection associated with microorganisms multiplying in circulating blood. | septicemia |
The presence of viable bacteria in circulating blood is _____ | bacteremia |
_____ The presence of viruses in the bloodstream. | Viremia |
______ An infection that produces no noticeable symptoms even though the microbe is active in the host tissue. | asymptomatic |
_____ A period of inapparent manifestations that occurs before symptoms and signs of disease appear. | subclinical |
the ______ starts at the time from contact to symptoms | incubation period |
the incubations period has | no symptoms |
the incubation period depends on (3) | 1. host resistance 2. virulence 3. target and entry distance |
the prodromal stage lasts | 1-2 days |
_____ has general symptoms | prodromal stage |
_____ Route through which a pathogen departs from the host organism. | portal of exit |
_____ The state of being inactive. Example: a latent virus or latent infection. | latency |
______ A morbid complication that follows a disease. | sequela |
______ Characterized by rapid onset and short duration. | acute |
_______ Recovery; the period between the end of a disease and the complete restoration of health in a patient. | convalescence |
_____ Organism lingers for months, years or indefinitely after the patient is completely well | continuation phase |
_______ In disease communication, the natural host or habitat of a pathogen. | reservoir |
_____ where infection is acquired | transmitters |
A pt has been dx with E. coli septicemia. Which of the followin characteristics are associated with endotoxins? Select all that apply. a.toxicity in min concentration b.gram-neg bacteria c. fever d.protein composition e.released by cell durin lysis | b, c, e |
______ can be directly transmitted to humans, as in the example of bats transmitting rabies to humans | pathogens from animals |
______ A person who harbors infections and inconspicuously spreads them to others. Also, a chemical agent that can accept an atom, chemical radical, or subatomic particle from one compound and pass it on to another. | carrier |
_____ spread the infectious agent during the incubation period. | incubating carriers |
___ recuperating patients without symptoms; they continue to shred viable microbes and convey the infection to others | convalescent carriers |
____ individuals who shelter the infectious agent for a long period after recovery because of the latency of the infectious agent | chronic carriers |
___ medical and dental persons who must handle pt materials that are heavily contaminated with pt secretions and blood risk picking up pathogens mechanically and accidentally transferring them to other pts | passive carriers |
_____ An infectious disease indigenous to animals that humans can acquire through direct or indirect contact with infected animals. | zoonosis |
_____ spread of disease is promoted by close associations of humans with animals, | zoonotic |
____ make up a full 70% of all new emerging diseases worldwide. | zoonoses |
_____ Capable of being transmitted from one individual to another. | communicable infection |
_____ Communicable; transmissible by direct contact with infected people and their fresh secretions or excretions. | contagious |
_____ An infectious disease that does not arrive through transmission of an infectious agent from host to host. | noncommunicable |
_____ means the disease is spread through a population from one infected individual to another. | horizontal |
_____ signifies transmission from parent to offspring via the ovum, sperm, placenta, or milk. | vertical |
______ involves very close contact between people. | direct transmission |
_____ occurs when an object or substance carries the agent from one person to another. | indirect transmission |
______ is parenteral transmission. | indirect transmission |
_____ is termed biological if the microorganism lives and multiplies within the insect. | vector |
____ inanimate object that harbors and transmits pathogens | fomite |
____ a natural nonliving material that can transmit infectious agents | vehicle |
___ small particles evaporate and remain in the air and can be encountered by a new host | air |
___ are suspensions of fine dust or moisture particles in the air that contain live pathogens | aerosols |
____ some pathogens survive for long periods in water and can infect humans long after they were deposited in the water | water |
____ microbes resistant to drying live in and can be transmitted from soil | soil |
___ meats may contain pathogens with which the animal was infected foods can also be contaminated by food handlers | food |
___ transmission via intentional or unintentional injection into deeper tissues | parenteral |
___ insect carries microbes to host on its body parts | mechanical vector |
___ insect injects microbes into host | biological vector |
Infectious diseases that are acquired or develop during a hospital or health care facility stay are known as _____ also called _____ | healthcare-associated infections, nosocomial infections |
_____ The microbial cause of disease; the pathogen. | etiologic agent |
___ A procedure to establish the specific cause of disease. In all cases of infection: (1) must be found; (2)pure culture must reproduce the same disease in animals; (3) be present in the experimental animal; (4) a pure culture must again be obtained. | koch's postulates |
pt has symptoms a few days ago: fever, arthralgia, and fatigue. Pt was seen at clinic, dx with a bacterial infection, pres antibiotic. Pt has 3 days of treatment remainin. The pt would be in which stage? a.acute b.convalescent c.incubation d.prodromal | b |
____ The study of the factors affecting the prevalence and spread of disease within a community. | epidemiology |
Surveillance is an epidemiological term that basically means | Surveillance is an epidemiological term that basically means |
_____ Surveillance is an epidemiological term that basically means | reportable diseases |
_____ The total number of cases of a disease in a certain area and time period. | prevalence |
_____ In epidemiology, the number of new cases of a disease occurring during a period. | incidence |
prevalence = | (total of cases/ people) x100=% |
_____ The number of persons who have died as the result of a particular cause or due to all causes, expressed as a numerator, with the denominator being some unit of population (as in x/100,000). | mortality rate |
____ The number of persons afflicted with an illness under question or with illness in general, expressed as a numerator, with the denominator being some unit of population (as in x/100,000). | morbidity rate |
____ An outbreak of disease in which all affected individuals were exposed to a single source of the pathogen, even if they were exposed at different times. | common-source epidemic |
______ An outbreak of disease in which all affected individuals were exposed to a single source of the pathogen at a single point in time. | point-source epidemic |
___ The first case of a disease identified in an outbreak or epidemic. | index case |
Healthcare-associated infections are called _______ | Nosocomial infections |
____ An impurity; any undesirable material or organism. | contamination/ contact |
only on surfaces of body • external - skin - eye • internal - nose - mouth - intestinal tract - vagina - urethra are all places that _______ | normal biota is |
_____ is when Good flora competes with potential pathogens...consume nutrients, create an unfavorable environment for pathogens, help stimulate WBC's, provide vitamins (K and B's) | normal microbiota and immunity |
old age and extreme youth • genetic defects in immunity, (AIDS); • surgery and organ transplants; • underlying disease: • chemotherapy/immunosuppressive drugs • physical and mental stress • pregnancy; • other infections. are all ex of | infection susceptibility |
steps for infection (4) | 1. establishment 2. attachment 3. surviving host defense 4. disease |
For most agents, infection will proceed only if a minimum number, called the ____ | infectious dose |
numbers below _______ will generally not result in an infection | infectious dose |
________ via surface molecules on the pathogen called adhesins (glycoproteins or lipoproteins) or ligands that bind specifically to complementary surface receptors. | microbe attachment |
Some common ____ include fever, pain, soreness, and swelling | symptoms of inflammation |
_____include edema, granulomas, lymphadenitis, | signs of inflammation |
_____ downfall is because the patient experiences no symptoms or disease and does not seek medical attention. | asymptomatic |
In many cases, the portal of ____ is the same as the portal of entry, but some pathogens use a different route. | exit |
General idea of _____ postulates is that you must isolate what you think the cause is, then apply it to a naive population, and then produce the same effect | Koch's |
Kosh doesn't work when infectious agents are not | readily isolated or grown in the laboratory. |
Koch's purpose is | to prove the etiology. |
An infectious disease that exhibits a relatively steady frequency over a long time period in a particular geographic locale is _____ | endemic |
_______ Description of a disease that exhibits new cases at irregular intervals in unpredictable geographic locales. | sporadic |
______ A sudden and simultaneous outbreak or increase in the number of cases of disease in a community. | epidemic |
_____ A disease afflicting an increased proportion of the population over a wide geographic area (often worldwide). | pandemic |
The best descriptive term for the resident microbiota is a. commensal. b. parasitic. c. pathogenic. d. mutualistic. | D |
Which of the following are virulence factors? a. toxins b. enzymes c. capsules d. all of the above | D |
When the resident microbiota prevents the establishment of a pathogen, it is called a. disruption. b. a superinfection. c. a nonliving reservoir. d. microbial antagonism. | D |
Most microbial exotoxins would be created using the process of a. DNA replication. b. protein synthesis. c. mutation. d. fatty acid synthesis. | B |
The ______ is the time between an encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms. a. prodrome b. acute stage c. convalescence d. incubation period | D |
A seasonal outbreak of influenza would be what type of outbreak? a. point-source b. common-source c. propagated d. two of the above | C |
The number of cases, including new cases as well as already existing cases, in a defined period of time is the a. incidence. b. prevalence. c. It could be either; need more information. | B |
______ are a multilevel network of innate, nonspecific protections and adaptive, specific protections that are commonly referred to as the first, second, and third lines of defense | host defense |
_____ includes any barrier that blocks invasion at the portal of entry. | first line of defense |
_____ also nonspecific, is a more internal system of protective cells, fluids, and processes that includes inflammation and phagocytosis. | second line of defense |
______ is acquired only as each foreign substance is encountered by white blood cells called lymphocytes. | third line of defense |
The third line of defense provides ______ | long term immunity |
the host defense innate, nonspecific line of defenses are | fist and second line |
the third line of defense is | acquired specific |
A healthy functioning immune system is responsible for the following: | 1.surveillance of the body, 2. recognition of foreign material, and 3. destruction of entities deemed to be foreign. |
all cells as well as some particles such as pollen, display a unique mix of macromolecules on their surfaces that the immune system “senses” to determine if they are foreign or not. These chemicals are called | antigens |
_____ Natural markers of the body that are recognized by the immune system. | self |
_____ Molecules recognized by the immune system as containing foreign markers, indicating a need for immune response. | nonself |
______ Any trait or factor of a cell, virus, or molecule that makes it distinct and recognizable; example: a genetic marker. | marker |
_____ which generally consist of proteins and/or sugars, can be thought of as the cellular equivalent of facial characteristics in humans and allow the cells of the immune system to identify whether or not a newly discovered cell poses a threat | markers |
_____ Molecules on the surfaces of many types of microbes that are not present on host cells that mark the microbes as foreign. | Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPS) |
_____ Molecules on the surface of host defense cells that recognize pathogen-associated molecular patterns on microbes. | pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) |
______ A collection of monocytes and macrophages scattered throughout the extracellular spaces that function to engulf and degrade foreign molecules. | mononuclear phagocyte system (MPS) |
______ A system of vessels and organs that serve as sites for development of immune cells and immune reactions. It includes the spleen, thymus, lymph nodes, and gut-associated lymphoid tissue (GALT). | lymphatic system |
_____ is a compartmentalized network of vessels, cells, and specialized accessory organs | lymphatic system |
Is functions of _____ system 1. provide route for the return of extracellular fluid to the circulatory system 2. a “drain-off” system for the inflammatory response; 3. to render surveillance, recognition, and protection against foreign materials. | lymphatic |
____ The system of vessels that transports lymph is constructed along the lines of blood vessels. | lymphatic vessels |
____ = non-specific, not induced | first line of defense |
_____= non-specific, induced | 2nd line of defense |
____= specific, induced, memory | third line of defense |
the first line of defense has _____ to entry | barriers |
Not a true immune response Does not recognize any specific foreign substance Very general in action is the | first line of defense |
Physical Barriers, Chemical Barriers, Genetic Components these three parts belong to the ____ | first line of defense |
physical barriers protect | common portals of entry |
Stratum corneum, Sloughing, Shedding and desquamation of hair shaft follicle cells, Flushing effect of sweat glands is part of the ____ | skin |
Mucus coat, Blinking and tear production, Saliva flushes microbes to stomach, Vomiting and defecation is part of the ____ | mucous membranes |
Nose hair, Copious mucus flushing, Sneezing and coughing is part of the ____ | respiratory tract |
Urine flow through ureters, Urination, Flushing of vaginal secretions is part of the ____ | genitourinary tract |
chemical barriers are (2) | Lysozymes, low ph areas |
Microbiota barrier is a type of | structural barriers |
_____ bloxks access of pathogens, hostile envionments | microbial antagonism |
Commensal microbiota trains | immune system |
Surveillance of the body, Recognition of foreign material, Destruction of only foreign entities are responsibilities of | the immune system |
the immune system is part of the | second and third lines of defense |
Pathogen associated molecular patterns (PAMPs), Pattern recognition receptors (PRPs) are part of | phagocytosis |
Mononuclear phagocytic system has massive connective | tissue network surrounding all organs |
Mononuclear phagocytic system has _________ embedded in it. | phagocytic cells |
Mononuclear phagocytic system is found in the (4) | thymus, lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen |
the lymphatic system function is to return | ECF to circulatory system |
Lymphatic system functions does | inflammation drainage |
Lymphatic system functions is ___ and ___ perform surveillance, recognition and protection. | WBC and antibodies |
in the Bloodstream is has | plasma |
plasma is made up of | water and proteins |
platelets are | thrombocytes |
red blood cells are | erythrocytes |
white blood cells are | leukocytes |
Granulocytes are (3) | Neutrophils, Eosinophils, Basophils |
Agranulocytes are (2) | monocytes, lymphocytes |
the flow of lymph is in | one direction only |
lymph move from the ___ toward the ___ | extremities, heart |
______ transported through the body by means of a dedicated pump (the heart) | blood |
_____ is moved only through the contraction of the skeletal muscles through which the lymphatic ducts wend their way. | lymph |
_____ Sites where B and T lymphocytes are generated and become mature. In the human, the red bone marrow and the thymus are primary lymphatic organs. | primary lymphatic organ |
the sites of immune cell birth and the locations where they mature are considered _____ | primary lymphatic organs |
Locations in the body where immune cells become activated, reside, or carry out their functions are called _____ | secondary lymphatic organs |
______ Tissue locations where T and B lymphocytes perform their actions. Examples are lymph nodes, MALT, SALT. | secondary lymphatic organs |
_____ is an important intersection between the circulatory system, skeletal system, and lymphatic system. | red bone marrow |
______ is typically found in the internal matrix of long bones, and is the site of blood cell production. | red bone marrow |
____ Butterfly-shaped organ near the tip of the sternum that is the site of T-cell maturation. | thymus |
______ are where the action of immunity takes place. | secondary lymphatic organs |
_____ are small, encapsulated, bean-shaped organs stationed, usually in clusters, along lymphatic channels and large blood vessels of the thoracic and abdominal cavities | lymph nodes |
____ The outer rim of a lymph node. | cortex |
_____ A layer of the lymph node internal to the cortex; houses T cells. | paracortical area |
B Lymphocytes and macrophages are in the ___ | medullary sinus |
____ serves as a filter for blood | spleen |
the spleen primary function is to remove | worn out red blood cells from circulation |
_____ Patches of lymphatic tissue containing B and T cells that underlie the surface of many skin surfaces in the body. | skin associated lymphoid tissue (SALT) |
______ Patches of lymphatic tissue containing B and T cells that underlie the surface of most mucosal surfaces in the body. | mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) |
______ A ring of lymphoid tissue in the pharynx that acts as a repository for lymphocytes. | tonsils |
______ A collection of lymphoid tissue in the gastrointestinal tract that includes the appendix, the lacteals, and Peyer’s patches. | gut associated lymphoid tissue (GALT) |
_____ Oblong lymphoid aggregates of the gut located in the wall of the terminal and small intestine. Along with the tonsils and appendix, Peyer’s patches make up the gut-associated lymphoid tissue that responds to local invasion by infectious agents. | peyers patches |
____ compact aggregations of lymphocytes in the ileum of the small intestine. | peyers patches |
____ A liquid connective tissue consisting of blood cells suspended in plasma. | whole blood |
______ Cellular components of the blood consisting of red blood cells, primarily responsible for the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide, and white blood cells, primarily responsible for host defense and immune reactions. | blood cells |
____ The carrier fluid element of blood. | plasma |
The substance that courses through the arteries, veins, and capillaries is | whole bood, blood cells, plasma |
____ The process by which the various types of blood cells are formed, such as in the bone marrow. | hematopoiesis |
_____ the production of blood cells | hematopoiesis |
_____ Pluripotent, undifferentiated cells. | stem cells |
______ means that the cells are able to become any type of blood cell that is needed. | pluripotent |
____ Making one object distinguishable from another; also, the process of biological cells changing from one state to a more mature state. | differentiation |
______ A mature leukocyte that contains noticeable granules in a Wright stain. Examples: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. | granulocyte |
_____ One form of leukocyte (white blood cell) having globular, nonlobed nuclei and lacking prominent cytoplasmic granules. | agranulocyte |
Which of the following act/acts as a filter for blood, removing worn-out red cells from circulation? a.thymus b.liver c.spleen d.lymph nodes e.kidneys | C |
____ Regulatory chemical released by cells of the immune system that serves as signal between different cells. | cytokine |
All cells in the blood originate from one cell type the _____ | hematopoietic stem cell |
___ blood phagocytes that rapidly leave the circulation; mature into macrophages and dendritic cells | monocytes |
___ large phagocytic cells; high capacity for killing microbes and cleaning up dead cells; antigen-presenting cells | macrophages |
____ reside in tissues and MPS; the process foreign matter and present it to lymphocytes; antigen-presenting cells | dendritic cells |
___ cell mediated immunity assist b cells | t cell |
___ differentiate into plasma cells and release antibody, antigen-presenting cells | b cell |
__ related to T cells but do not act specifically | Natural killer |
___ are T cells and have NK activity | NKT |
____ respond to both specific and nonspecific antigens | Gamma-delta T cells |
___ short-lived phagocytes in blood; active engulfers and killers of bacteria | neutrophils |
____ function in inflammatory events | basophils |
____ active in protozoal, helminth, and inflammatory reactions | eosinohils |
____ specialized tissue-cells similar to basophils that trigger local inflammatory reactions such as allergic symptoms | Mast cells |
___ carry o2 and co2 | red blood cells |
___ involved in blood clotting inflammation and destruction of blood borne bacteria | platelets |
Cytokines have potent ____ | inflammatory mediators/ chemical messengers |
Cytokines is used by immune cells to | communicate |
Cytokines influence | defensive response |
Cytokines are produced by several types of cells such as (4) | monocytes, lymphocytes, macrophages, mast cells ect |
_____ cytokines, that encourage specific and nonspecific immune responses | pro-inflammatory |
_____ cytokines that discourage specific and nonspecific immune responses | anti-inflammatory |
___ and ____ that can change the diameter of blood vessels or vessel permeability | vasodilators and vasoconstrictors |
____ cytokines, that regulate lymphocyte growth or activation | growth factors |
_____ Another term for macrophage. | histiocyte |
____ To shed the cuticle in scales; to peel off the outer layer of a surface. | desquamate |
____ An enzyme found in sweat, tears, and saliva that breaks down bacterial peptidoglycan. | lysozyme |
The presence of intestinal microbiota is considered a.a first line of defense. b.a second line of defense. c.a third line of defense. d.none of the above. | A |
_____ is A cellular and chemical system that comes immediately into play if infectious agents pass the surface defenses | second line of defense |
the four mechanism for the second line of defense is to identify and destroy is | 1. phagocytosis 2. inflammation 3. fever 4. antimicrobial proteins |
during phagocytosis the cells devour | non-self |
Survey tissues and interstitial compartments, Ingest and eliminate , Extract antigens are activities of | phagocytosis |
____ A mature granulocyte present in peripheral circulation, exhibiting a multilobular nucleus and numerous cytoplasmic granules that retain a neutral stain. The neutrophil is an active phagocytic cell in bacterial infection. | neutrophil |
___ have a limited ability to phagocytose due to their rapid death when exposed to their own toxic oxygen products that also kill engulfed bacteria. | neutrophils |
____ accumulate quickly near sites of injury or infection and are a primary component of pus. | dead neutrophils |
____ A large mononuclear leukocyte normally found in the lymph nodes, spleen, bone marrow, and loose connective tissue. This type of cell makes up 3% to 7% of circulating leukocytes. | monocyte |
___ A white blood cell derived from a monocyte that leaves the circulation and enters tissues. These cells are important in nonspecific phagocytosis and in regulating, stimulating, and cleaning up after immune responses. | macrophage |
monocytes are transformed by varies inflammatory mediators into | macrophages |
Neutrophils are _____ of WBC | 40-60% |
Neutrophils are ___ | 1st responders |
___ are granular leukocytes (lysosomes) | neutrophils |
Macrophages and Monocytes ingest ___ and ____ cells | pathogens, infected |
Macrophages and monocytes are important to the | third line of defense |
Macrophages and monocytes eat (3) | 1. markers 2. PAMPS 3. PRRs |
Inflammation respond to | injury or infection |
____ can be Mild or severe, rapid or long term, local or systemic | inflammation |
inflammation mobilize _____ to the state of injury | immune components |
inflammation work towards | repairing tissues |
inflammation destroy __ and block___ | microbes, further invasion |
inflammation has a powerful ___ | defensive reaction |
vascodilation is | heat and redness |
___ is also called pyrexia | fever |
____ means eating cell | phagocyte |
These pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) are molecules shared by many microorganisms—but not present in | mammals |
_____ include peptidoglycan and lipopolysaccharide. Double-stranded RNA, which is found only in some _____ | baterial PAMPS, viruses |
_____ A large protein in phagocytic cells that contains pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) to help these cells initiate the inflammatory response. | imflammasome |
Many_______ cells of the innate immune system contain PRRs inside their ______ | phagocytic, cytoplasm |
At its most general level, the ______ response is a reaction to any traumatic event in the tissues. | inflammatory |
Rubor ish.o | redness |
_____ is caused by increased circulation and vasodilation in the injured tissues; | rubor |
Calor is | warmth |
______ is the heat given off by the increased flow of blood; | calor |
tumor is | swelling |
_____ is caused by increased fluid escaping into the tissues | tumor |
dolor is | pain |
____ is caused by the stimulation of nerve endings | dolor |
cardovascular disease can be caused by | chronic inflammation |
1. mobilize and attract immune components to the site 2. to set in motion mechanisms to repair tissue damage and localize and clear away harmful substances, and 3. to destroy microbes and block their further invasion. are functions of _____ | inflammation |
_____ response is a powerful defensive reaction, a means for the body to maintain stability and restore itself after an injury. | inflmmatory |
_____ has the potential to actually cause tissue injury, destruction, and disease. | inflammatory response |
In order to assess immune function, the nurse anticipates that the physician will first order a a.white blood cell (WBC) count with differential. b.red blood cell (RBC) count with differential. c.chemistry profile. d.coagulation profile. | A |
pt has 3-day of fever, lethargy, & respiratory symptoms. Is experiencing an immune response? Select all that apply. a.swollen cervical lymph nodes b.axillary temperature 39.0°C c.redness in the oropharynx d.sneezin e.large amt of nasal secretions | A, B, C, E |
____ The migration of intact blood cells between endothelial cells of a blood vessel such as a venule. | diapedesis |
_______ or the tendency of cells to migrate in response to a specific chemical stimulus given off at a site of injury or infection. | chemotaxis |
The _____of fluid dilutes toxic substances, and the_____ can effectively trap microbes and prevent their further spread. | influx, fibrin clot |
___ The viscous, opaque, usually yellowish matter formed by an inflammatory infection. It consists of serum exudate, tissue debris, leukocytes, and microorganisms. | pus |
_____ Pertains to pus formers, especially the pyogenic cocci: pneumococci, streptococci, staphylococci, and neisseriae. | pyogenic |
An important systemic component of inflammation—and innate immunity in general—is | fever |
____ defined as an abnormally elevated body temperature. | fever |
FUO | fevers of unknown orgins |
core temperature is around | 37C (98.6F) |
____ A substance that causes a rise in body temperature. It can come from pyrogenic microorganisms or from polymorphonuclear leukocytes (endogenous pyrogens). | pyrogen |
____ reset the hypothalamic thermostat to a higher setting | pyrogens |
____ Small molecules that are released during inflammation and specific immune reactions that allow communication between the cells of the immune system and facilitate surveillance, recognition, and attack. | chemical mediators |
____ Referring to chemical mediators involved in the immune response that act on endothelial cells or the smooth muscle of blood vessels causing them to either restrict or relax. | vasoactive |
____ Chemical mediators that stimulate the movement of white blood cells. See chemokine. | chemotactic factors |
____ Chemical mediators (cytokines) that stimulate the movement and migration of white blood cells. | chemokine |
____ Fluid that escapes cells into the extracellular spaces during the inflammatory response. | exudate |
inflmmatory steps | 1. injury 2. vascular reaction 3.edema/ pus 4. resolution/ scar |
____ Referring to serum, the clear fluid that escapes cells during the inflammatory response. | serous |
____ The migration of intact blood cells between endothelial cells of a blood vessel such as a venule. | diapedesis |
_____ Originating outside the body. | exogenous |
____ originating internally | endogenous |
______pyrogens are products of infectious agents such as viruses, bacteria, protozoa, and fungi. | exogenous |
_____ pyrogens are released by monocytes, neutrophils, and macrophages during the process of phagocytosis and appear to be a natural part of the immune response. | endogenous |
pt followin joint replacement surgery develops a fever in the first 24 hours. What is the priority intervention? a.Collect blood cultures from pt’s peripheral IV catheters. b.Administer antipyretic med. c.Apply ice packs to surgical site. d. IV bolus | A |
fever inhibits multplication of temperature ___ and ___ | sensitive viruses and fungal pathogens |
fever reduces ability of | iron |
fever increases ___ and stimulate ___ | metabolism, immune responses |
dangers of fever (4) | 1. tachycardia 2. tachypnea 3. lower seizure threshold 4. brain damage |
tachypnea is | elevated respiratory rate |
____ Natural human chemical that inhibits viral replication; used therapeutically to combat viral infections and cancer. | interferon (IFN) |
_____ In immunology, serum protein components that act in a definite sequence when set in motion either by an antigen-antibody complex or by factors of the alternative (properdin) pathway. | complement |
____ Short protein molecules found in epithelial cells; have the ability to kill bacteria. 12-15 amino acids | antimicrobial peptides |
____ Host cell molecules that inhibit viral replication. | restriction factors |
____ are small proteins produced naturally by certain white blood and tissue cells. | interferons |
the three major interferons are | alpha, beta, and gamma |
intergeron works by infected cells produce | interferon |
interferon attaches to another | cell |
with interferons the 2nd cell produces proteins to | inhibit viral replication |
complement has 30 | proteins in blood |
complement is inactive until | infection |
complement cascade reactions are (4) | 1. initiation 2. activation and cascade 3. polymerization 4. membrane attack |
complement amplifies | inflammation |
antimicrobial peptides are | short proteins |
antimicrobial peptides insert into | prokaryotic membran= death |
antimicrobial peptides have (3) | 1. defensin 2. magainins 3. protegrins |
____ Pathway of complement activation initiated by a specific antigen-antibody interaction. | classical complement pathway |
_____ Complement cascade initiated by spontaneous breakdown of a blood protein called C3 in the presence of microbes. | alternative complement pathway |
___ In the alternative pathway, a C3 protein, either free or bound to a pathogen membrane, is hydrolyzed into two fragments, C3b and C3a | initiation |
_____ involve further enzymatic action. The C3b protein cleaves the protein C5 into C5a and C5b. | activation and cascade |
____ The C5b fragment is now free to form a complex with C6, C7, and C8. This complex is called the ____ | polymerization, membrane attack complex |
_____ A group of proteins that insert themselves into bacterial or infected cell membranes as a result of complement activation. | membrane attack complex |
_____ are short proteins, of between 12 and 50 amino acids, that have the capability of inserting themselves into bacterial membranes | antimicrobial peptides |
prevent assembly of a new virus, or prevent virus release from host cells. These are collectively called | restriction factors |
A microorganism carries _____ markers and a B cell carries _____ markers. a. self, nonself b. nonself, self c. self, self d. nonself, nonself | B |
Which of the following cells are lymphocytes? a. macrophages b. neutrophils c. red blood cells d. B cells | D |
Cytokines are secreted by which cells? a. macrophages b. B cells c. T cells d. all of these | D |
The initial reaction to the presence of viruses in a human cell is the production of __________ by that cell. a. complement b. interferon c. antiviral protein d. fever | B |
An example of an exogenous pyrogen is a. interleukin-1. b. endotoxin. c. complement. d. interferon. | B |
The normal microbiota is part of the ______ line of defense. a. first b. second c. third d. None of these is correct. | A |
_______immune reactions are generalized responses to invasion, regardless of the type. These include phagocytosis, inflammation, fever, and an array of antimicrobial products. | nonspecific |
Mucous membranes and the skin are _____ barriers. Sweat, lysozymes, fatty acids, and pH levels are typical ____ barriers. | physical, chemical |
____ encompasses the study of all features of the body’s second and third lines of defense | immunology |
What fluid compartments must work together for effective immune responsiveness? | Molecular Phagocyte System & Extracellular Fluid - blood & lymphatic capillaries penetrate these tissues |
*Parts -Tonsils -Spleen -Cervical, Axillary, Lymph, Thoracic, Abdominal, Inguinal, Pelvic Nodes -GALT are all parts of the ____ | lymphatic system |
What formed elements are present in the blood stream? | blood cells |
What are common portals of entry for microbes? | usually skin or mucous membrane |
Bacterial, Fungal & Protozaol Pathogens attach by | Attach by mechanisms such as fimbriae (pili), surface proteins & adhesive slimes or capsules. |
viruses attach by means of | of specialized receptors. |
parasitic worms attach by | suckers, hooks & barbs. |
Why is adhesion a key step in a microbes ability to cause disease? | It allows them to gain a more stable foothold on the host tissues. |
Why are asymptomatic infections problematic? | They can cause serious damage if they are not caught, and they are hard to catch |
_____ Infectious agent multiplies at high levels, exhibits greatest virulence, and becomes well established in its target tissue | period of invasion |
What is the relationship between transmitters and reservoirs? | Reservoir is where the disease can live, transmitter is when the disease is actually passed on to a healthy host |
Which leukocytes are especially active in phagocytosis? | lymphocytosis |
What are the four cardinal signs of inflammation? | Redness, Warmth, Swelling, Pain |
____ are Hundreds of small, active molecules constantly being secreted to regulate, stimulate, suppress & control the aspects of cell development, inflammation & immunity | cytokines |
fever is caused by when | pyrogens reset the hypothalamic thermostat to a higher setting. |
What are the three classes of MHC | Class 1: on all nucleated cells -Class 2: Macrophages, B Cells, Dendritic Cells -Class 3: Proteins involved in the complement system |
Alpha & Beta | Stimulate phagocytes |
gamma is | Immune regulator of macrophages & T & B cells |
_____ Consists of over 30 dif. blood proteins that work in concert to destroy bacteria | complement system |
_____ are Molecules that stimulate a response by T & B cells (cause an immune response) | antigen/immunogen |
_____ are The primary signal that a molecule is foreign ***small fragment of the molecule | epitope |
_____ is the Ability of the body to react with countless foreign substances | Immunocompetence |
What two important characteristics make the third line of defense different from the first two? | Specificity & Memory, Acquired immunity is specific, Acquired immunity is specific. |
What are the four stages of lymphocyte development? | 1. Development of B & T 2. Antigen processing, 3. Lymphocyte activation 4. End result of lymphocyte activation |
_____ lymphocyte specificity & migration to lymphoid organs | development of B&T |
____ presentation to lymphocytes, assistance to B cells by T cells | antigen processing |
_____ clonal expansion, formation of memory B & T cells | Lymphocyte activation |
_____ antibody release, cell mediated immunity | End result of lymphocyte activation |
Which lymphocyte development stages are antigen-dependent? | stages 2-4 |
What is the MHC? | Major Histocompatibility Complex- set of genes that codes for human cell markers or receptors |
What are CD molecules | Cluster of differentiation markers |
CD molecules? What are the most prominent/important ones? | Most IMPORTANT - CD3, CD4, CD8 |
____ In immunity, the concept that some parts of the immune system only react with antigens that originally activated them. | specificity |
_____ The capacity of the immune system to recognize and act against an antigen upon second and subsequent encounters. | memory |
The elegance and complexity of _______ are largely due to lymphocytes working closely together with phagocytes. | immune function |
1 Lymph development& clonal deletion; 2 Present of antigen& clonal selection; III. Challenge of B and T lymph by antigens; IV. T-lymph response: cell-mediated immunity& B-lymph response: the prod & activities of antibodies. are prinicpal stages for? | immunologic development and interaction |
Although all _____ arise from the same basic stem cell type, at some point in development they diverge into two distinct types. | lymphocytes |
for the lymphocyte development of B cells occurs in specialized _____sites, and that of T cells occurs in the _____. | B marrow, thymus |
____ response is focused on a single antigen | specificity |
____ there is always at least one cell that can react against any antigen | dicersity |
____ only turned on when triggered | inducibility |
_____ generates millions of cells with the same specificity | clonality |
___ does not react with self antigens | tolerance |
___ rapid mobilization of lymphocytes preprogrammed to recall their first engagement with the antigen | memory |
What happens during primary lymphocyte development (3 things) | 1. proliferation 2. differentiation 3. acquisition of antigen recognition |
_____ A set of genes in mammals that produces molecules on surfaces of cells that differentiate among different individuals in the species. See HLA | major histocompatibility complex (MHC) |
_____ their major role is to “accept” or “grasp” antigens in some form. | lymphocyte markers/ receptors |
___ have receptors that bind antigens, | B cells |
___ have receptors that bind antigens that have been processed and complexed with MHC molecules on the presenting cell surface | T cells |
______ that activate macrophages, assist B-cell processes, and help activate cytotoxic T cells; | helper T cells |
____ control the T-cell response by secreting anti-inflammatory cytokines or preventing proliferation; | regulatory T cells |
_____ that lead to the destruction of infected host cells and other “foreign” cells. | cytotoxic T cells |
____ host immune responses that are mediated by antigen-specific T cells and various nonspecific cells of immune system | cell mediated immunity |
CMI protect against | intracellular bacteria, viruses, and tumors and responsible for graft rejection |
third line of defense when host barriers and non specific defenses ____ | fail |
______ response defends against pathogens that are free in the blood by using antibodies against pathogen-specific antigens. | humoral response |
_____ React specifically and nonspecifically; responsive to lipid antigens | gamma t cells |
CMI cell types are (5) | 1. helper t cells 2. regulatory t cells 3. cytotoxic t cells 4. memory t cells 5. gamma-delta t cells |
___ Activates the cell-mediated immunity pathway; secretes tumor necrosis factor and interferon gamma; also responsible for delayed hypersensitivity | t helper cell 1 |
____ Can activate macrophages to expel helminths or protozoans, phagocytose extracellular antigens; contributes to type 1 (allergic) hypersensitivity; can encourage tumor development | t helper cell 2 |
____ Promotes inflammation | t helper cell 17 |
____ Drives B-cell proliferation, and aids B cells in antibody class switching | T follicular helper cell |
_____ Controls specific immune response; prevents autoimmunity; can contribute to cancer progression | T regulatory cell |
___ Destroys a target foreign cell by lysis; important in destruction of complex microbes, cancer cells, virus-infected cells; graft rejection; requires MHC-I for function | T cytotoxic cell |
B cell Specific Surface Markers | immunoglobulin |
T cells Specific Surface Markers | t cell receptor several CD molecules |
B cells Circulation in Blood | low numbers |
T cells Circulation in Blood | high numbers |
B cells Receptors for Antigen | b cell receptor |
T cells Receptors for Antigen | t cell receptor |
B cells Distribution in Lymphatic Organs | cortex |
T cells Distribution in Lymphatic Organs | paracortical sites |
B cells require Antigen Presented with MHC | no |
T cells Require Antigen Presented with MHC | yes |
B cells product of Antigenic Stimulation | Plasma cells and memory cells |
T cells product of antigenic stimulation | Several types of activated T cells and memory cells |
____ general function is Production of antibodies to inactivate, neutralize, target antigens | b cells |
_____ general function is Cells activated to help other immune cells; suppress or kill abnormal cells; mediate hypersensitivity; synthesize cytokines | t cells |
____ The chemical class of proteins to which antibodies belong. | immunoglobulin (IG) |
____ Specific region at the ends of the antibody molecule that recognize specific antigens. These sites have numerous shapes to fit a wide variety of antigens. | antigen binding site |
____ The antigen binding fragment of an immunoglobulin molecule, consisting of a combination of heavy and light chains whose molecular conformation is specific for the antigen. | variable region |
____ A conceptual explanation for the development of lymphocyte specificity and variety during immune maturation. | clonal selection |
After activation, the B or T cell multiplies rapidly in a process called ______ | clonal expansion |
This outcome can lead to severe damage if the immune system actually perceives self molecules as foreign and mounts a harmful response against the host’s tissues. Any such clones are destroyed during development through _____ | clonal deletion |
____ A colony of cells derived from a single cell (or single organism) by asexual reproduction. All units share identical characteristics. Also used as a verb to refer to the process of producing a genetically identical population of cells or genes. | clone |
_____ The selective elimination of lymphocytes that would recognize self markers. | clonal deletion |
_____ Tolerance to self; the inability of one’s immune system to react to self proteins or antigens. | immune tolerance |
To be perceived as an antigen or immunogen, a substance must meet certain requirements in (4) | 1. foreignness 2. shape 3. size 4. accessibility |
_____ (enzymes, cell surface structures, exotoxins); | proteins and polypeptides |
____(cell membranes); | lipoproteins |
____ blood cell markers | glycoproteins |
____ (DNA complexed to proteins but not pure DNA) | nucleoproteins |
____ (certain bacterial capsules) | polysaccharides |
characteristics of good antigens are (3) | 1. chemical composition 2. context 3. size |
____ An incomplete or partial antigen. Although it constitutes the determinative group and can bind antigen, hapten cannot stimulate a full immune response without being carried by a larger protein molecule. | haptens |
Small foreign molecules that are too small by themselves to stimulate the immune response are termed ___ | haptens |
if such an incomplete antigen is linked to a larger carrier molecule, the combined molecule can develop | immunogenicity |
____ include such molecules as drugs, metals, and ordinarily innocuous household, industrial, and environmental chemicals. | haptens |
____ An antigen that is present in some but not all members of the same species. | alloantigens |
____ are cell surface markers and molecules that occur in some members of the same species but not in others. | alloantigens |
____ Bacterial toxins that are potent stimuli for T cells and can be a factor in diseases such as toxic shock. | superantigens |
____ A substance that provokes an allergic response. | allergens |
_____ Cells of the immune system that digest foreign cells and particles and place pieces of them on their own surfaces in such a way that other cells of the immune system recognize them. | antigen-presenting cells (APCs) |
____ A large, antigen-processing cell characterized by long, branchlike extensions of the cell membrane. | dendritic cells |
____ cells are the most potent and versatile of the APC | dendritic |
The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is a gene complex that gives rise to a series of glycoproteins (MHC molecules) found on all cells except a.red blood cells. b.white blood cells. c.plasma cells. d.B cells. | A |
_____ A birth defect usually caused by a missing or incomplete thymus that results in abnormally low or absent T cells and other developmental abnormalities. | Digeorge syndrome |
____ A collection of syndromes occurring in newborns caused by a genetic defect that knocks out both B- and T-cell types of immunity. There are several versions of this disease. | severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) |
In reviewing a client’s history, the nurse notes that the client’s blood type is O-negative. The client’s blood type is based on the presence or absence of a.haptens. b.alloantigens. c.limmunogens. d.lipoproteins. | B |
____ cells have one job: to destroy other cells. | cytotoxic T cells |
______ is the most important factor in graft rejection | cytotoxic cell-mediated immunity |
____ The simultaneous stimulation of T-helper cells and T-cytotoxic cells by antigen. | cross presentation |
The subcategory of T cells called_____ T cells is distinct from other T cells. | gamma-delta |
Gamma-delta t cells still produce ____ when they are activated. For these reasons, they are considered a bridge between the nonspecific and specific immune responses. | memory cells |
_____ cells are a type of lymphocyte related to T cells that lack specificity for antigens | natural killer (NK) |
_____ circulate through the spleen, blood, and lungs, and are probably the first killer cells to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells. | natural killer (NK) cells |
Most antigens must be presented first to_______ even though they will eventually activate both the T-cell and B-cell systems | t cells |
a few antigens can trigger a response directly from B lymphocytes without the cooperation of APCs or T helper cells. These are called _________ | t cell independent antigens |
______ reactions require T helper cells. | b cells |
For the third line of defense is when ____ and ____ fail | Host barriers, non specific defenses |
There are 6 methods for third line of defense | 1. Acquired 2. Induced 3. Specific 4. Memory 5. Colonality 6. Ttolerance |
__ The ability of the body to recognize and react with multiple foreign substances. | Immunocompetence |
____ A large protein molecule evoked in response to an antigen that interacts specifically with that antigen. | Antibody |
___ is the most common infection (nosocomal) | Uti |
____ Any cell, particle, or chemical that induces a specific immune response by B cells or T cells and can stimulate resistance to an infection or a toxin. See immunogen. | Antigen (ag), immunogen |
Most common animal to spread disease to humans | Flies, fleas, ticks, mosquitoes |
___ is the most contracted disease from animals to humans | Rabies |
_____ The precise molecular group of an antigen that defines its specificity and triggers the immune response. | Epitope |
____ make up a full 70% of all new emerging diseases worldwide. | Zoonoses |
Asympotomatic examples are | Gonorrhea, herpes |
Inculbating disease ex | Mono |
Convalescent examples | Hep a |
Chronic ex | Tuberculosis |
Passive infection ex | Health care associated infection |
Mosquitoes = | Maliara |
Horizontal disease is from | One person to another |
Point source for epidemic curves | Infectious agent comes from single source and all victims are exposed |
Epidemic curves/ graphs are | Incidence over time |
Epidemic curves propagated | Infectious agent that is communicable from person to person and therefore it stays for long periods of time |
Point vs common | Point- specific 1 time like restaurant Common- over long periods of time (city water) |
We refer to ____ as restricted that is they require MTV to be activated | T cells |
T cells produce____ | Cytokines |
End result of ____ stimulation is the mobilization of other t cells, b cells, and phagocytes | T cells |
T cells are sensitized when an _____ complex comes in contact with receptors | Antigen/mhc |
When activated t cells divide the differentiate into subsets of ______ and ______ cells | Effector cells, memory |
_____ are some of the longest lived blood cells known | Memory t cells |
All t helper cells have ____ | Cd4 markers |
T helper cells regulate immune reactions to ______ | Antigens |
T helper cells help activate | Macrophages |
T helper cells help activate macrophages directly by | Receptor contact |
T helper cells help activate macrophages indirectly by releasing | Cytokines like interferon gamma |
T cells secrete | Interleukin |
Interleukin-2 stimulates growth and activation of | T cells and cytotoxic cells |
______ cells are the most prevalent type of t cells in the blood and lymphoid organs it makes up for ___ of this population | T helper, 65% |
Severe depression of t cells by HIV causes | Aids |
Cytotoxic t felld have 1 job | Destroy other cells |
TC cells destroy (3) | 1. Virally infected cells 2. cancer cells 3. human and animal cells |
_____ A T lymphocyte programmed to directly affix cells and kill them. See cytotoxicity. | killer T cells |
_____ Proteins released by cytotoxic T cells that produce pores in target cells. | perforin |
_____ Enzymes secreted by cytotoxic T cells that damage proteins of target cells. | Granzymes |
_____ are proteins that can punch holes in the membranes of target cells. | perforins |
_____ are enzymes that attack proteins of target cells. | granzymes |
The two “arms” that bind antigen are termed | antigen binding fragments |
______ coat the surface of a bacterium, preventing its normal function and reproduction | antibodies |
______ The process of stimulating phagocytosis by affixing molecules (opsonins such as antibodies and complement) to the surfaces of foreign cells or particles. | opsonization |
____ a process that makes microbes more readily recognized by phagocytes, | opsonization |
____ The process of combining an acid and a base until they reach a balanced proportion, with a pH value close to 7. | neutralization |
______ antibodies fill the surface receptors on a virus or the active site on a microbial enzyme to prevent it from attaching normally. | neutralization reactions |
_____ The aggregation by antibodies of suspended cells or similar-size particles (agglutinogens) into clumps that settle. | aggutination |
____ Globulin fraction of serum that neutralizes a specific toxin. Also refers to the specific antitoxin antibody itself. | antitoxin |
The principal activity of an antibody is to (3) | 1. immobilize 2. call attention to 3. neutralize antigen |
Immunoglobulins exist as structural and functional classes called | isotypes |
These are forms or? 1. monomer that circulates in small amounts in the blood 2. dimer that is a significant component of the mucous and serous secretions of the salivary glands, intestine, nasal membrane, breast, lung, and genitourinary tract | IGA |
The dimer, called _____IgA, is formed by two monomers held together by a _____ | secretory, J chain |
The Fc on a IgG binds to the | phagocytes |
the Fc on a IgE binds to the | mast cells and basiphils |
Monomer produced by plasma in a primary response & by memory cells respondin the 2nd time to a given antigenic; most prevalent antibody circulating throughout the tissue fluids& blood; neutralizes toxins, opsonizes, fixes complement is the function of | IgG |
Dimer is secretory antibody on mucous membranes; monomer in small quantities in blood is the function of | IgA |
Produced at first response to antigen; can serve as B-cell receptor is the function of | IgM |
Receptor on B cells; triggering molecule for B-cell activation is the function of | IgD |
Antibody of allergy; worm infections; mediates anaphylaxis, asthma, etc. is the function of | IgE |
____ coats the surface of mucous membranes and also is suspended in saliva, tears, colostrum, and mucus. | IGA |
The very earliest secretion of the breast, a thin, yellow milk called ______, is very high in IgA. | colostrum |
____ antibodies form a protective coating in the gastrointestinal tract of a nursing infant that guards against infection by a number of enteric pathogens | IGA |
____ In immunochemistry, a measure of antibody level in a patient, determined by agglutination methods. | titer |
____ The first response of the immune system when exposed to an antigen. | primary response |
_____ The rapid rise in antibody titer following a repeat exposure to an antigen that has been recognized from a previous exposure. This response is brought about by memory cells produced as a result of the primary exposure | secondary response |
The secondary response is also called the | amamnestic response |
_____ Any immunity that arises naturally in an organism via previous experience with the antigen. | natural immunity |
_____ encompasses any immunity that is acquired during the normal biological experiences of an individual rather than through medical intervention. | natural immunity |
____ Immunity that is induced as a medical intervention, either by exposing an individual to an antigen or administering immune substances to him or her. | artificial immunity |
____ is protection from infection obtained through medical procedures. | artificial immunity |
____ immunity is induced by immunization with vaccines and immune serum. | artificial |
____ Immunity acquired through direct stimulation of the immune system by antigen. | active |
_____ occurs when an individual receives an immune stimulus (antigen) that activates the B and T cells, causing the body to produce immune substances such as antibodies. | active immunity |
______ creates a memory that renders the person ready for quick action upon reexposure to that same antigen; | active immunity |
_____ requires several days to develop; | active immunity |
______ lasts for a relatively long time, sometimes for life | active immunity |
_____ and ______ can be stimulated by natural or artificial means. | active immunity, passive immunity |
_____ Specific resistance that is acquired indirectly by donation of preformed immune substances (antibodies) produced in the body of another individual | passive immunity |
______ occurs when an individual receives immune substances (usually antibodies) that were produced actively in the body of another human or animal donor. | passive immunity |
____ is characterized by 1. lack of memory 2. lack of production of antibodies 3. immediate onset and protection 4. short term effectiveness | passive immunity |
_____ A hazardous, outmoded process of deliberately introducing smallpox material scraped from a victim into the nonimmune subject in the hope of inducing resistance. | variolation |
___ used in reference to inoculation with the cowpox or vaccinia virus to protect against smallpox. In general, the term now pertains to injection of whole microbes (killed or attenuated), toxoids, or parts of microbes as a prevention or cure for disease. | vaccine |
_____ occur as (1) a fetus develops and encounters selected antibodies that are able to cross the placental barrier, and (2) a newborn nurses and receives IgA in breast milk that is secreted at birth and for a short time afterward. | passive immunization |
The method of processing______concentrates the antibodies to increase potency and eliminates potential pathogens (such as hepatitis B and HIV). | IVIG |
A preparation called s________ (SIG) is derived from a more defined group of donors. | specific immune globulin |
The basic _____behind vaccination is to stimulate a primary response and a memory response that primes the immune system for future exposure to a virulent pathogen. | principle |
In ______, an infectious agent stimulates a relatively long-term protective response. | natural immunity |
an effective vaccine are as follows: It should protect against exposure to ___ and ____ forms of the pathogen. | natural and wild |
an effective vaccine are as follows: It should have a low level of adverse ____ or _____ and not cause harm. | side effects or toxicity |
an effective vaccine are as follows: It should stimulate both antibody _____ response and cell-mediated ____ response. | b-cell, c-cell |
an effective vaccine are as follows :It should have long-term, _____ (produce ______). | lasting effects, memory |
an effective vaccine are as follows: It should not require numerous ____ or _____. | doses or boosters |
an effective vaccine are as follows: It should be inexpensive, have a relatively _______, and be easy to administer. | long shelf life |
Vaccine preparations can be broadly categorized as either ______ or _____ preparations. | whole-organism or part of organism |
These are a. live, attenuated microbial cells or viruses b. killed cells or inactivated viruses | whole cells or viruses |
_______ preparations: antigenic molecules derived from bacterial cells or viruses (subunits) | part-of-organism |
Part-of-organism: subunits derived from cultures of ____ or ____ | cells or viruses |
Part-of-organism: subunits manufactured via _______ | genetic engineering |
Part-of-organism: subunits conjugated with proteins (often from other microbes) to make them more _____. These are called conjugated _____ | immunogenic, conjugated vaccines |
_____ Subunit vaccines combined with carrier proteins, often from other microbes, to make them more immunogenic. | conjugated vaccines |
_____ A newer vaccine preparation based on inserting DNA from pathogens into host cells to encourage them to express the foreign protein and stimulate immunity. | dna vaccine |
______ or _____ are very effective immunogens, since they are so large and complex | whole cells or viruses |
______ (viruses are termed “inactivated” instead of “killed”) are prepared by cultivating the desired strain or strains of a bacterium or virus and treating them with chemicals, radiation, heat, or some other agent that does not destroy antigenicity. | killed vaccines |
_____ A whole cell or intact virus preparation in which the microbes are dead or preserved and cannot multiply but are still capable of conferring immunity | killed or inactivated vaccine |
______ contain live microbes whose virulence has been attenuated, or lessened/eliminated. | live attenuated vaccines |
____ Vaccines composed of living organisms that have been weakened and cannot cause disease. | live attenuated vaccines |
These are advantages of ______ 1. Viable micro can multiply and produce infection (but not disease) like the natural organism 2.confer long-lasting protection 3. require fewer doses & boosters 4. effective at inducing cell-mediated immunity | live preparations |
If the exact ______ that stimulate immunity are known, it is possible to produce a vaccine based on a selected component of a microorganism. | epitopes |
___ A vaccine preparation that contains only antigenic fragments such as surface receptors from the microbe. Usually in reference to virus vaccines. | subunit vaccine |
____ which consists of a purified bacterial exotoxin that has been chemically denatured. | toxoid |
____ A toxin that has been rendered nontoxic but is still capable of eliciting the formation of protective antitoxin antibodies; used in vaccines. | toxoid |
____ In immunology, a chemical vehicle that enhances antigenicity, presumably by prolonging antigen retention at the injection site. | adjuvant |
The ____ precipitates the antigen and holds it in the tissues so that it will be released gradually. | adjuvant |
1. A single bacterium has _______ epitope(s). a. a specific b. multiple c. MHC d. clonal | B |
4. The primary B-cell receptor is a. IgD. b. IgA. c. IgE. d. IgG. | A |
7. In humans, B cells mature in the ___ and T cells mature in the ____. a. GALT; liver b. bursa; thymus c. bone marrow; thymus d. lymph nodes; spleen | C |
10. Which of the following cells is capable of specifically responding to a nearly infinite number of epitopes? a. B and T cells b. Plasma cells c. T cytotoxic cells d. All of these | A |
16. A vaccine that contains parts of viruses is called a. acellular. b. recombinant. c. subunit. d. attenuated. | C |
19. u draw from a pt & if pt has a herpes simplex infection, pt has large amt of IgG against virus but low levels of IgM, what do u conclude? a.pt is newly infected. b.pt had the infection awhile. c. The pt is not infected. d. cant draw conclusions. | B |
13. Some microbial products can activate B cells without the assistance of T cells. Which of the following can do this? a. Capsule of S. pneumoniae b. Lipopolysaccharide c. Some viral capsids d. All of these | D |
1. The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is a gene complex that gives rise to a series of glycoproteins (MHC molecules) found on all cells except a. red blood cells. b. white blood cells. c. plasma cells. d. B cells. | A |
2. In reviewing a client’s history, the nurse notes that the client’s blood type is O-negative. The client’s blood type is based on the presence or absence of a. haptens. b. alloantigens. c. limmunogens. d. lipoproteins. | B |
3. Which characteristic is associated with passive artificial immunity? a. long-term protection duration b. requires several days to develop protection c. immediate protection d. creation of memory in response to antigen | C |
humoral immunity deals with | extracellular antigens |
humoral immunity utilizes | b cells |
In humoral immunity the production of ______ is the final result | antibodies |
cell-mediated immunity utilizes | t cells |
in cell-mediated immunity we see ______________, which are involved in chemical signals | cytokines |
what is one major difference between humoral immunity and cell mediated immunity | h- prevention of infection c- attacks already infected cells |
Lymphocyte Development are | antigen independent |
Lymphocyte Development stem cells become | b or t cells |
Lymphocyte Development mature and enter | circulation |
Antigens and Clonal Selection pathogens breech | first line of defense |
Antigens and Clonal Selection antigens are process and presented by the | 2nd line of defense |
Antigens and Clonal Selection appropriate | t and b cells activated |
Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) genes code for mhc are | molecules (markers and receptors) |
Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) recognition of | self and non self |
Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) all nucleated | human cells |
CD Molecules cluster of | differentiation |
CD Molecules are on | cell surgace |
CD Molecules there are over | 300 |
CD Molecules main ones are | cd3, cd4, cd8 |
Lymphocyte Receptors are the hands of the | immune system |
Lymphocyte Receptors b cells grab | ags directly |
Lymphocyte Receptors t cells grab | ag/ mhc complex |
Antigens b and t cells are challenged by | antigens |
Challenging with Antigens is | activation |
Challenging with Antigens clonal | selection and expansion |
Challenging with Antigens has | differentiation |
Cell Mediated Immunity Targets | cells attack directly |
____ targets cancer cells, virally infected cells, intracellular pathogens (tuberculosis), cells from other humans and animals | cell mediated immunity |
Lymphocyte Development maturation directed by | thymus |
good antigens must be | big and complex |
T-independent antigens trigger direct response from | b cells |
T-independent antigens are | simple molecules |
Antigen Presenting Cells (APC’s) they _____ | process and present antigen |
Engulf- | breakdown- transported apc |
___ presented to T helper cells | membrane |
apc stimulate | cd4 co receptor |
cd4 carrying t cells becomes active and differentiates | th or tr |
Th1- cytokines-stimulate | macrophages |
th2-cytokines- stimulate | b cell proliferation |
th17- | inflammation |
tr stands for | t regulatory |
APC and TH1 stimulate | cd8 cells |
CD8 carrying cell becomes active | tc |
Cytotoxic T Attack release perforins and granzymes is called ____ | apoptosis |
Cytotoxic T Attack active in | graft rejection |
gamma-delta t cells respond to certain kinds of | PAMPS |
gamma-delta t cells is a bridge between | 2nd and 3rd defense |
antibodies attack ____ that bind specifically to antigens | proteins |
IgG is | gamma globulin |
IgG is the most | prevalent |
IgG is produced by | plasma and memory cells |
IgG crosses the | placenta |
IgG in Fc binds to | phagocytes |
IgD is in very | low concentration |
IgM has a ____ shape | Pentamer |
IgA gives | localized protection |
Vaccines create long-lasting immunity via t and b cell response without | illness or other harm |
Mature T cells can express: | CD8 and CD4 |
once b cells mature they go to the | bone marrow |
What makes a good antigen? | Size (large), complex (proteins), easily soluble |
_____ that actually perform the ultimate action of the system | effector cells |
the two “arms” that bind antigen are termed________ (Fabs), and the rest of the molecule is the ________ (Fc), so called because it was the first to be crystallized in pure form. | antigen binding fragments, crystallizable fragments |
The Fc end of the antibody of allergy (IgE) binds to basophils and mast cells, which causes the release of_______ mediators such as histamine. | allergic |
structure of an antibody? | 1. four polypeptide chains 2. variable region 3. constant region |
Precise molecular group of an antigen that defines its specificity and triggers the immune response | epitope |
antigen binding sites: determine antigen specificity and attachment - can bind to two epitopes of the same at the same time is called ______ | Fab fragment |
this is heavy chain constant region: determines effector functions including binding to: 1. Fc receptors on host cells 2. First molecules in classical complement pathway - tells us the class and function of antibody | Fc region |
horizontal is one | peep to another |
microbial antagonism blocks | entry |
neutrophils are for | phagocytes |
eosinophils are for | worm and fungal infections |
Basophils are for | inflammatory |
monocytes mature into | macrophages |
lymphocytes are for the | 3rd line of defense |
B cell- humoral immunity- | ab production |
T-cell mediated immunity is a | cytotoxic response |
Membrane attack drills holes into | Cytoplasm of bacteria |
WBC identify bacteria by | Pamps (marker/antigen) |
Epitope is part of antigen that it | Identifiesand attacks against |
Humoral response no | Cell body involved |
CD stands for | Cluster of differentiation |
Fc stands for | F constant cell |
Fc site can bind with | Macrophages, many cells, wbc |
Fab sites matches specific | Epitope |
Fab both sites on y must fit the same | Epitope |
Iga most important in specific | Local immunity in mucous lining areas |
During lactation | High iga |
Iga provides protective coat in gastrointestinal tract protection against | Pathogens |
The original term for vaccination | Variolation |
2 main types of vaccine are | 1. Whole cell/ virus 2. Subunits |