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Unit 1B - Test 2

Cancer and Genetics

An injury cause by rubbing or scraping that result in the loss of the superficial layer of skin Abrasion
The process of form new blood vessels Angiogenesis
This occurs during the granulation phase of healing in wound repair or in cancer when growth signal are sent out. Angiogenesis
Describes when edges are touching Approximation
Wound that results from tissues being torn away in a large piece. Avulsion
The removal of devitalized or dead tissue and foreign material from the wound bed. Debridement
the splitting open of a surgical wound (sutured closed) Dehiscence
Redness of the skin cause by vasodilatation or related inflammation. Erythema
Fluid that comes from a wound exudate
What is clear fluid from a wound called Serous
What is bloody fluid from a wound called Sanguineous
What is pus coming from a wound called purulent
This tissue is red or pink and has a lumpy appearance. Forms in the wound base which fills in the wounds with scar tissue. Granulation Tissue
Deficiency of blood supply to an area of tissue or an organ Ischemia
a wound resulting from tearing or cutting of the skin laceration
soft intact skin with a whitish look cause by to much moisture. maceration
This tissue is dead and usually presents as black or brown in color with a hard or leathery texture. Very prone to infection. Necrotic tissue
containing or forming pus that is usually opaque white, green or yellow exudate!! Purulent
What intention? Wound margins are brought together by any means and heal with minimal scaring or infection. primary intention
What are some example of wounds that would likely heal by primary intention? incisions, cuts, and puncture wounds
What intention? Missing tissue requires margins to contract and then fills-in, resulting in a large scar. High infection potential and cannot be sutured closed due to large amount of missing tissue. secondary intention
Pressure ulcers are mostly liked healed by what type of intention? Secondary
What intention? Wound margins either separate after being closed or are intentionally left open, then brought together again after granulation tissue appears. Tertiary Intention
What is it called when cells stop growing after a cell comes in contact with another cell. Contact inhibition (density dependent inhibition)
What cells tend to not undergo contact inhibition? Cancer cells - they keep growing after contact
Normal cells support each other by sticking together when they come in contact. What is this called? It this the same in cancer cells? Cohesiveness - Cancer cell are fragile and lack cohesiveness
What is anchorage independence? Normal cells must be anchored to a membrane or matrix of some kind to grow (exception - blood cells)
Why do cancer cells not get the message to stop growing? Faulty cell to cell communication
Most cancers synthesize and secrete ______ that break down proteins involved in the insuring intracellular organization and cell cohesion. enzymes
You hear someone talking about adenoma and osteoma. From your pathology class you know they are talking about what type of tumor? Benign Tumor
These tumors are more common in epithelial tissues, skin and mucous membranes lining body cavities. Often end in ---carcinoma Malignant tumors of epithelial
Connective tissue tumors ( bones, muscle, cartilage) - Sarcoma Malignant tumors or mesenchymal
These tumors are less common cancers but are spread more rapidly and are highly malignant. Malignant tumors of mesenchymal
What is the genetic mechanism whereby normal cells are transformed into cancer cells? Oncogenesis
A mutated gene that has the potential to cause cancer Oncogene
A normal cell that could become an oncogene due to maturation from inherited predispositions or external causes. Proto-oncogene
The maturation in proto-oncongene disable normal _____ of cells and results in what? Apoptosis - resulting in the over production of a cell leading to cancer.
What are cellular oncogenes? Cancer characteristics that are coded on the host's inherited genes.
Some viruses are known to cause cancer by transmitting their DNA or RNA into a host cells which damages a cells genes. Viral oncogenes
When antioncogenes are damaged by mutation, this leads to ______ ______ of cancer preventing cells. under production
What are some example of Oncogenic Viruses HPV, Epstein Barr Virus, Hepatitis B and C virus, Kaposi sarcoma, Human T -cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1) retrovirus.
What are the three methods of metastasis for cancer? Direct extension, seeding and circulation
What are reasons for why staging is important? 1. Helps the Doctor plan treatment 2. Stages can be used to estimate a person's prognosis 3. Staging helps health care providers and researches exchange information about patients.
What are the part of the TNM staging? T - Size of Tumor N - Node involvement M- Metastatic spread
Benign or Malignant - cell characteristics - poor differentiation malignant
Benign or Malignant - cellular cohesiveness - Breaks apart, sluffs off easily malignant
Benign or Malignant - growth mode - expands and pushes on surrounding tissue benign
Benign or Malignant -growth rate - rapid growth rate malignant
Benign or Malignant- growth pattern - encapsulated benign
Benign or Malignant - hormone secretion - Hyper (hyper thyroid) Benign
Benign or Malignant - Metastatic potential - eventually metastasizes Malignant
Benign or Malignant- tumor mobility - fixed Malignant
Differentiation - As a cell become _________when it loses the characteristics that made it unique to a type of cell and it no longer functions as normal tissue. malignant
In the primary tumor staging what does TX mean? T0? TX - primary tumor cannot be evaluated T0 - no evidence of primary tumor
Referring to regional lymph nodes what does NX mean? N0? NX - Regional lymph nodes cannot be evaluated N0 - no regional lymph node involvement
Referring to distant Metastasis what does MX, M0, and M1 mean? MX- distant metastasis cannot be evaluated ----- M0 - No distant metastasis ------- M1 - Distant metastasis is present
What are the 5 main categories of summary staging? Stage 1: In Situ ----Stage 2: Localized ---- Stage 3: Regional ------ Stage 4: Distant/ Metastatic ---- Unk ---- Unknown
What stage - Abnormal cells are present only in the layer of cells in which they develop? Stage 1: in situ
What stage - Cancer is limited to the organ in which it began - no evidence of spread Stage 2: Localized
what stage - Cancer has spread beyond the primary site to nearby lymph nodes or tissues and organs. Stage 3: Regional
what stage - Cancer has spread from the primary site to distant tissues or organs or to distant lymph nodes. Stage 4: Distant/ Metastatic
What stage - There is not enough information to determine the stage. Unk - Unknown
Tumor grading is used as an indicator of what? how quickly a tumor is likely to grow and spread.
What type of tumor cells tent to grow faster, Well differentiated or poorly differentiated? Poorly differentiated
What tumor grade - Grade Cannot be assessed (undetermined grade) GX
What tumor grade - Well differentiated, least aggressive Grade I
what tumor grade - Moderately differentiated Grade II
What tumor grade - Poorly differentiated Grade III
What tumor grade - Very poorly differentiated. More likely to progress quickly, highly malignant Grade IV
What are 5 cancer symptoms/signs? (I C Face Book Post) Fatigue, Pain, Blood dyscrasias, infection, cachexia
What is the most commonly report symptom of Cancer? Fatigue
What is a major concern in cancer treatment. Note this often is not present in the early stages. Pain management
What is Blood dyscrasias? Blood component disorder
What usually cause blood dyscrasias? Can be a tumor but is usually caused by bone marrow damage from various cancer treatments.
What is low red blood cell count? Anemia
What can cause Anemia? bleeding, malnutrition, cancer treatment (especially radiation therapy)
A tumor may uncerate or erode blood vessels leading to bleeding. What is the result? Decrease oxygen delivery to tissues resulting in fatigue and s/s of low oxygen
What is low white blood cell count? Luekopenia
What cause luekopenia? bone cancers or cancer treatments.
Low WBC means what for cancer patients? They are prone to infection
What is low platelet count? Thrombocytopenia
What causes thrombocytopenia? Bone cancers or cancer treatments
Thrombocytopenia cause bleeding disorders which can turn into ______. Anemia
What is the most significant cause of mortality in cancer patients? Infection
What is cause by an increase BMR caused by a growing tumor? Cachexia "wasting" syndrome
What are some side effects of chemotherapy cause? Destruction of taste buds so patients are not motivated to eat. Also CINV - chemotherapy induced nausea and vomiting
What are the 4 goals of cancer treatment. 1: Curative 2: Control 3: Palliative 4: Adjuvant Therapy
Treatment given only to relieve cancer symptoms and reduce the suffering caused by cancer. - not curative palliative care
What is the life expectancy for terminal cancer? Less the 6 months
What is treatment given in addition to the primary treatment to make sure cancer is eradicated? Adjuvant treatment
Chemo drugs kill all ____ ____ cells fast growing
What are some example of fast growing cells? GI tract, Bone marrow and hair follicles
What does chemotherapy do the the GI tract damages it causing things like sever nausea/ vomiting (CINV). Can also cause mucositis/stomatitis: diarrhea or constipation
Chemo effects the Bone Marrow. What does it cause? reduction in all blood components
What is Alopecia? Hair loss because hair follicle are fast growing
What can be caused by the caustic chemotherapy agents used to treat the primary tumor? Secondary Malignancies
What begins 3-10 days after the initiation of chemo and can last 7-14 days? Mucositis (stomatitis)
What does mucositis cause? mucosal lining of the mouth starts to atrophy and break down resulting in ulcers forming. Note ulcer may act as a point of entry for infections.
What does mucositis contribute to? Pain, malnutrition, Cachexia and infection
What is radiation therapy most efficient for Fast growing poorly differentiated tumor cells
What are the adverse reaction of radiation therapy Skin burns, GI tract damage, bone marrow suppression, Alopecia
T or F - surgery can curative and palliative but not adjuvant. False - it can also be adjuvant
What are BRMs? Biologic Response Modifiers
What medications are used to stimulate the immune system to identify and destroy cancer cells without damaging surrounding normal cells? Biotherapy (immunotherapy)
what class of drugs are used to treat cancer by altering or augmenting naturally occurring processes within the body? BRMs- Biologic response modifiers
________ uses BRMs to enhance the activity of the immune system to increase the body's natural defense mechanisms against cancer. immunotherapy
T or F - BRMs can either enhance or suppress the immune system. True
What are the advantages of immunotherapy? 1. Highly specificity for antigens - less damage to healthy tissue. 2. Immune memory cells give long protection
What are the disadvantages of immunotherapy? Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, loss of appetite, fever, chills, muscle aches, weakness, skin rash, increase tendency to bleed or swelling.
3 Types of BRMs Monoclonal Antibodies (-MAB drugs), Interleukin-2 (a cytokine), Alpha interferon (IFN)
What happens when Monoclonal Antibodies (MAB) attach to cancer cells? 1. Make the cancer cell more visible to the immune system 2. Block growth signals 3. stop new blood vessels from forming 4. Deliver radiation to to cancer cells 5. Deliver chemotherapy to cancer cells.
Monoclonal andibodies can block ____ ____ receptors and prevent growth. growth factors
When are most pediatric cancers diagnosed? Peak growth periods.
_____ accounts for 1/3 of childhood cancer. Leukemia
Adult vs pediatric cancer: frequency and cause A: >90% and environmental -------- P. <1% and genetic causes, not much from environmental
Adult vs pediatric cancer: able to be prevented and how is is found A: 80% can be prevented and cancer is found during routine screening exams. ------- P: Few can be prevented and cancer is found accidentally
Adult vs pediatric cancer: tolerance to treatment and responsiveness to chemo A: intolerant to treatment and less responsive ------- P: Tolerant to treatment but long term consequences. Very responsive to chemo
What are chemical, biological or physical factors that might cause an abnormal development of a fetus in the mother's womb (congenital birth defects) Teratogens
During the first week of pregnancy what is meant by the all or nothing rule? The embryo either dies under effects of teratogens or survives without any harm from them.
What weeks are consider the most critical during pregnancy? Why? Weeks 3 to 8 - This is the time when organs are forming and they are very sensitive to harmful factors.
What are some example of teratogens? Diseases: chicken pox, herpes, German measles, cytomegaly virus, HIV, AIDS----drugs/chemicals: tetracycline, acne medication, aspirin, antacids, diet pills, alcohol, tobacco, mary jane, cocaine, meth, heroin. ----environmental: mercury, lead, radiation
What is the number one cause of metal retardation in children Fetal alcohol syndrome
List some defective facial features of fetal alcohol syndrome wide set eyes, exceptionally thin upper lip, short upturned nose, smooth skin surface between the nose and lip.
What can fetal alcohol syndrome cause? developmental delays, physical defects, seizures during withdrawal, behavior problems, intellectual impairment and brain malformation
What does TORCH stand for perinatal infections that account for 2-3% of all congenital anomalies. T: Toxoplasmosis O: Other (syphilis, varicella-zoster, parvovirus B19) R: Rubella (german measles) C: Cytomegalovirus (cmv) H: Herpes
________________ changes are modifications of DNA, which occur without any alteration in the underlying DNA sequence and can control whether a gene is turned on or off and how much of a particular message is made Epigenetics
Created by: sbertelsen



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