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Health Assess
HEENT Abdominal Nutrition Male/female Genitalia
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| AnDroid Obesity | Excess body fat that is placed prodominantly within the abdomen and upper body |
| Anergy | A less than expected or absent immune reaction in response to the injection of antigens within the skin |
| Anthropometry | measurement of the body (height, weight, circumference etc) |
| Diet History | A detailed record of dietary intake obtainable from 24 hr recall, food frequency questionares, food diaries, etc. |
| Gynoid Obesity | Excess body fat within hip and thighs |
| Kwashiorkor | Primarily a protein deficency characterized by edema, growth failure, and muscle wasting |
| Malnutrition | May mean any nutrition disorder but usually refers to long term nutritional excess/inadequacies |
| Marasmic Kwashiorkor | combination of chronic energy deficit and chronic/acute protein deficiency |
| Nitrogen Balance | Condition in which nitrogen losses from the body are equal to nitrogen intake; the expected state of the healthy adult |
| Nutritional Monitoring | Assessment of dietary or nutritional status at intermittent times with the aim of detecting changes in the dietary or nutritional status of a population |
| Nutrition screening | A process used to identify individuals at nutrition risk/with nutritional problems |
| Serum Proteins | Proteins present in serum that are indicators of the body's visceral protein status |
| The balance between nutrient intake and nutrition requirements is described as | Nutritional Status |
| To support the synthesis of maternal and fetal tissue during pregnancy, a weight gain of _____ pounds is recommended | Recommendation depends on the BMI of the mother at the start of the pregnancy |
| Which of the following are normal, expected changes with aging | decrease in height |
| Which of the following data would be obtained as part of a nutritional screening | weight and nutrition history |
| Current dietary guidelines recomend that omplex carbohydrates compromise ___% of total calorie intake | 60% |
| The 24 hr recall of dietary intake | Is a questionare/interview of everything eaten within the last 24 hrs |
| The nutritional needs of a patient with trauma/major SX | Maybe 2-3 times greater than normal |
| Mary (15 yr old) has come for a school physical during the interview, the examiner is told that menarche has not occured. An explanation to be explored is | Nutritional deficiency |
| Older adults are at risk for alteration in nutritional status. Select the individuals who appear the least at risk | A 65 yr old widower who visits a senior center with a meal program 5 days a week |
| Body weight as a percentage of ideal weight is calculated to assess for malnutrition. Severe malnutrition is DX when current body weight is | Less than 70% ideal body weight |
| The examiner is completing an initial assessment for a pt being admitted to a long term care facility. the pt is unable to stand for a measurement of height in order to obtain this important anthropometric information the examiner may | Measure arm span |
| A skin testing or anergy panel has been ordered for a patient, the test is done to | Assess for immunocompetence |
| Which assessment finding indicates nutrition risk | Serum-albumin= 2.5 g/dL |
| Marasmus is ofent characterized by | Low weight for height |
| Which BMI category in adults is indicative of obesity | 30-39 |
| Aneurysm | defect or sac formed by dialation in artery wall due to atherosclerosis trauma, or congenital defect |
| Anorexia | Loss of appetite for food |
| Ascites | Abnormal accumulation of serous fluid within the peritoneal cavity, associated with CHF, cirrhosis, cancer, or portal hypertension |
| Borborygmi | Loud gurgling bowel sounds signaling increased motility or hyperperistalis, occurs with diarrhea etc |
| Bruit | Blowing, swoshing, sound heard through a stethescope when an artery is partially occluded |
| Cecum | First/proximal part of large intestine |
| Cholecystitis | Inflamation of the gallbladder |
| Costal Margin | Lower border of rib margin formed by the medial edges of the 8th, 9th, and 10 ribs |
| Costovertebral angle | angle formed by the 12th rib and the vertebral colom on the posterior thorax, overlying the kidney |
| Diastasis Recti | Midline longitudinal ridge in the abdomen, a separation of abdominal rectus muscles |
| Dysphagia | Difficulty swallowing |
| Epigastrium | Name of abdominal region between the costal margins |
| Hepatomegaly | abnormal enlargement of liver |
| Hernia | Abnormal protrusion of bowelthrough weakening in abdominal musculature |
| Linea Alba | Midline tendinous seam joining the abdominal muscles |
| Peritoneal Friction rub | rough grating sound heard through the the stethescope over the site of peritoneal inflammation |
| Peritonitis | Inflammation of peritoneum |
| Pyrosis | Heartburn--burning sensation in upper abdomen, due to reflux of gastric acid |
| Rectus abdominis muscle | midline abdoninal muscles extending from rib cage to pubic bone |
| Schaphiod | abnormal enlargement of spleen |
| Striae | Stretch marks--stretching of the abdominal skin as with pregnancy/obesity |
| Suprapubic | Name of abdominal region just superior to pubic bone |
| Tympany | High-pitched, musical, drumlike percussion note heard when percussing over stomach and intestine |
| Umbilicus | depression on the abdomen marking site of entry of umbilical cord |
| Viscera | Internal Organs |
| Sequence of technique used during an examination of the abdomen | inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation |
| Which of the following may be noted through inspection of the abdomen | venous pattern, peristalic waves and abdominal contour |
| RUQ tenderness may indicate pathology in the | Liver, pancreas, or accending colon |
| Hyperactive bowel sounds are | high pitched, rushing, tinkling |
| The absence of bowel sounds is established after listening for | 5 full minutes |
| Auscultation of the abdomen may reveal bruits of the ______ arteries | aortic, renal, iliac and femoral |
| The range of normal liver span in the right midclavicular line in the adult is | 6-12 cm |
| The LUQ contains | Spleen |
| Straie, which occur when the elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the skin are broken following rapid/prolonged stretching, have a distinct color which is | silvery white |
| Auscultation of the abdomen is begun in the RLQ because | bowel sounds are always normally present here |
| A dull percussion note forward of the left midaxillary line is | indicative of splenic enlargement |
| Shifting dullness is a test for | ascites |
| Tenderness during abdominal palpation is expected when palpating | Sigmoid Colon |
| Murphy's sign is best described as | pain felt when taking a deep breath when the examiner's fingers are on the approx location of the inflamed gallbladder |
| Goiter | increase in size of thyroid gland that occurs with hyperthyroidism |
| Lyphadenopathy | enlargement of the lymph nodes due to infection allergy or neoplasm |
| Macrocephalic | abnormally large head |
| Microcephalic | Abnormally small head |
| Normocephalic | Round symmetric skull that is appropriately related to body size |
| Torticollis | Head tilt due to shortening/spasm of one sternomastoid muscle |
| Vertigo | Dizziness |
| Identify the facial bone that articulates a joint instead of a suture | Mandible |
| Identify the BV that runs diagonally accross the sternomastoid muscle | External jugular vein |
| The isthmus of the thyroid gland lies just below the | Cricoid cartilage |
| What is true regarding cluster headaches | maybe precipitated by alcohol and daytime napping |
| select the symptom that is lease likely to indicate a possible malignancy | Tenderness |
| Providing resistance while the pt shruggs the shoulders is a test of the status of cranial nerve | IX |
| Upon examination, the fontanels should feel | Firm slightly concave and well defined |
| If the thyroid gland is enlarged bilaterally which of the following maneuvers is appropriate | Listen for a bruitt over the thyroid lobes |
| It is normal to palpate a few lymph nodes in the neck of a healthy person. what are the characteristics of these lobes | Mobile, soft, nontender |
| Cephalhematoma is associated with | Subperiosteal hemorrhage |
| Normal cervical lymph nodes are | smaller than 1 cm |
| A throbbing unilateral pain associated with nausea, vomiting and photophobia is characteristic of | migrain headache |
| Accommodation | Adaptation of the eye for near vision by increasing the curvature of the lens |
| Anisocoria | Unequal pupil size |
| Arcus senilis | gray-white arc or circle around the limbus of the iris that is common with aging |
| Argyll Robertson Pupil | Pupil does not react to light; does constrict with accomodation |
| Astigmatism | Refractive error of vision due to differences in curvature in refractive surfaces of the eye |
| A-V Crossing | Crossing paths of an artery and vein in the ocular fundus |
| Bitemporal Hemianopsia | Loss of both temporal visual fields |
| Blepharitis | Inflammation of the glands and the eyelash folicles along the margin of the eyelid |
| Cataract | Opacity of the lens of the eye that develops slowly with aging and gradually obstructs vision |
| Chalazion | infection or retention syst of a meibomianland showing as a beady nodule on the eyelid |
| Conjunctivitis | infedction of conjunctiva "pinkeye" |
| Diopter | unit of strength of the lens settings on the ophthalmoscope that changes focus on the eye structures |
| Diplopia | Double vision |
| Drusen | Benign deposits on the ocular fundus that show as round yellow dots and occur commonly with aging |
| Ectropion | Lower eyelid loose and rolling outward |
| Entropion | Lower eyelid rolling inward |
| Exophthalmos | Protruding eyeballs |
| Fovea | area of keenist vision at the center of the macula on the ocular fundus |
| Glaucoma | A group of eye diseases characterized by increased intraocular pressure |
| Hordeolum | (Stye) red painful pustule that is localized infection of hair follicle at eyelid margin |
| Macula | Round, darker area of the ocular fundus that mediates vision only from the central visual field. |
| Microaneursym | Abnormal finding of round red dots on the ocular fundus that are localized dialations of small vessels |
| Miosis | constricted pupils |
| Mydriasis | Dialated pupils |
| Myopia | (nearsighted) |
| Nystagmus | Involuntary rapid rythmic movement of the eyeball |
| OD | Oculus Dexter (right eye) |
| Optic Atrophy | Pallor of the optic disk due to partial or complete death of optic nerve. |
| Optic Disk | Area of ocular fundus in which BV exit and enter |
| OS | Oculus Sinister (left eye) |
| Papilledema | Stasis of blood flow out of the ocular fundus sign of increase intracranial pressure |
| Presbyopia | decrease accomodation that occurs with aging |
| Pterygiun | Triangular opaque tissue on the nasal side of the conjunctivia that grows towards the center of the cornea |
| Ptosis | Drooping of upper eyelid over the iris |
| Strabismus | (squint, crossed eyed) |
| Xanthelasma | Soft raised yellow plaques occuring on the skin at the inner corners of the eyes |
| The palpebral fissure is | The open space between the eyelids |
| The corneal reflex is mediated by cranial nerves | V and VII |
| The retinal structures viewed through the ophthalmascope are | The optic disk, the retinal vessels, the general background, and the macula |
| The examinar records positive consensual light reflex. This is | The simultaneous constriction of the other pupil when one eye is exposed to bright light. |
| Several changes occur in the eye with the aging process. The thinckening and the yellowing of the lens is referred to as | Senile cataract |
| Be alert to symptoms that may constitute an eye emergency. Identify the symptoms that should be referred immediately. | Sudden onset of vision changes. |
| Visual acuity is assessed with | The snellen eye chart |
| The cover test is used to assess for | Muscle weakness |
| When using the ophthalmoscope, you would | remove your own glasses and approach the patient's left eye with your left eye |
| The 6 muscles that control eye movement are innervated by cranial nerves | II, III, V |
| Conjunctivitis is always associated with | absent red reflex |
| A pt has blurred periferal vision. You suspect glaucoma, and test the visual fields. A person with normal vision would see your moving finger temporarily at | 90 degrees |
| A person is known to be blind in the L eye what happens to the pupils when the R eye is illuminated by a penlight beam | No pupils constricts |
| Use of the ophthalmoscope: and interuption of the red reflex occurs when | there is an opacity in the cornea or lens |
| One cause of visual impairment in aging adult is | Glaucoma |
| Annulus | Outer fibrous rim encircling the eardrum |
| Atresia | Congenital absence or closure of ear canal |
| Cerumen | Earwax |
| Cochlea | Inner ear structure containing the central ear apparatus |
| Eustachian Tube | Connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx and allows passage of air |
| Helix | Superior, posterior free rim of the pinna |
| Malleus | "hammer" first of the 3 ossicles of the middle ear |
| Incus | "anvil" middle of the 3 ossicles of the middle ear |
| Mastoid | bony prominence of the skull located just behind the ear |
| Organ of Corti | Sensory organ of hearing |
| Otalgia | Pain in the ear |
| Otitis Externa | Inflammation of the outer ear and ear canal |
| Otitis Media | Inflammation of the middle ear and tympanic membrane |
| Otorrhea | Discharge from the ear |
| Pars Flaccida | Small, slack, superior section of tympanic membrane |
| Pars Tensa | Thick, taut central/inferior section of tympanic membrane |
| Pinna | outter ear |
| Stapes | "stirrup" inner of the 3 ossicles of the middle ear |
| Tinnitus | ringing in the ear |
| Tympanic Membrane | "eardrum" |
| Umbo | knob of the malleus that shows through the tympanic membrane |
| Using the otoscope the tympanic membrane is visualized. The color of a normal membrane is | Pearly gray |
| Sensorineural hearing loss may be related to | A gradual nerve degeneration |
| Prior to examining the ear with the otoscope, the _____ should be palpated for tenderness | Pinna tragus and mastoid process |
| During the otoscopic examnination of a child less than 3 years of age, the examiner | pulls the pinna down |
| while viewing with the otoscope, the examiner instructs the person to hold the nose and swallow. During this maneuver, the eardrum should | Flutter |
| To differntiate between air conduction and bone conduction hearing loss, the examiner would perform | The rinne test |
| In examining the ear of an adult, the cannal is straightened by pulling the auricle | Up and back |
| Darwins's tubercule is | a conjenital painless nodule at the helix |
| When the ear os being examined with an otoscope, the pt's head should be | tilted away from the examiner |
| The hearing receptors are located in the | Cochlea |
| The sensation of vertigo is the result of | Pathology in the semicircular canals |
| A common cause of a conductive hearing loss is | impacted cerumen |
| The rinne test, the 2-1 ratio referrs to | the lengths of time until the pt stops hearing the tone by air conduction and by bone conduction |
| Upon examination of the tympanic membrane, visualization of which of the following findings indicates infection of acute purulent otitis media | absent light reflex, reddened drum, buldging drum |
| In examining a young adult woman, you observe her tympanic membrane to be yellow in color. You suspect she has | Serum in the middle ear |
| Risk reduction for acute otitis media includes | eliminating smoking in the house and car |
| Aphyhous Ulcers | "canker sores"--small, painful round ulcers in the oral mucosa of unknown cause |
| Buccal | CHEEK |
| Candidiasis | Wite, cheesy, curdlike patch on bucall mucosa due to superficial fungal infection |
| Caries | Decay in the teeth |
| Crypts | Indentations on surface of tonsils |
| Cheilitis | red, scaling, shallow, painful fissures at corners of mouth |
| Choanal atresia | closure of nasal cavity due to congenital septum between nasal cavity and pharynx |
| Epistaxis | nosebleed |
| Epulis | fibrous nodule of the gum |
| Fordyce's granules | white/yellow papules on oral mucosa |
| Herpes simplex | "Cold sores"--clear vesicles with red base that evolve into pustules, usually at lip-skin junction. |
| Koplik's spot | early sign of measles |
| Leukoplakia | white, thich raised patch on sides of tongue; precancerous |
| Malocclusion | upper/lower dental arches out of alignment |
| parotid glands | pair of salivary glands in the cheeks in front of the ears |
| pharyngitis | inflamation on the throat |
| Plaque | debris on teeth |
| Polyp | smooth, pale gray nodules in the nasal cavity due to chronic allergic rhinitis |
| Rhinitis | red swollen inflamation of nasal mucosa |
| Thrush | oral candidiasis in the newborn |
| Turbinate | one of 3 bony projections into nasal cavity |
| Uvula | Free projection hanging down from the middle of the soft palate |
| The most common site of nosebleeds is | Kiesselbach's Plexus |
| THe sinuses that are accessible to exam are | Frontal and maxillary |
| The frenulum is | The midline fold of tissue that connects the tongue to the floor of the mouth |
| The largest salivary gland is located | within the cheeks in front of the ear |
| A 70 yr old woman complains of dry mouth. The most frequent cause of this problem is | Related to medications she maybe taking |
| Because of a HX if HA, the examiner uses rtransillumination to assess for an inflamed sinus. The findings in a healthy individual would be | A diffuse red glow |
| During an inspection of the nares, a deviated septum is noted. The best action is to | Document the deviation in the medical record in case the pt needs 2 be suctioned |
| Oral malignancies are most likely to develop | Under the tongue |
| In a medical record, the tonsils are grades as 3+. The tonsils would be | Touching the uvula |
| The friction of the nasal turbinates is to | Warm the inhaled air |
| The opening of an adult's parotid gland (stensen's duct) is oposite the | Upper 2nd molar |
| A nasal polyp may be distinguished from the nasal turbinates for 3 reason, which is false | The polyp is highly vascular |
| An abdomen that is bulging and stretched in appearance is described as | Protuberant |
| The term hepatomegaly refers to | enlarged liver |
| The examiner tests for rebound tenderness by | Slowly pushing on an area of the abdomen then lifting up wuickly |
| The incidence of lactose intolerance is higher in adults of whcih ethnic group | Blacks |
| Why is it important to ask a person what meds they are taking when doing a nutritional assessment | Certain drugs affect the metabolism of nutrients |
| Optimal nutritional status is best defined as | Sufficient nutrients to provide for daily body requirements as well as for increased metabolic demands |
| Deep palpation is used to determine | Organomegaly |
| Whcih of the following factors is most likely to affect the nutritional status of an 82-year old female | Living alone on a fixed income |
| Of the following people who is at greatest risk for undernutrition | A 5-month old infant |
| The main reason auscultation preceeds percussion and palpation of the abdomen is | To prevent distortion of bowel sounds that might occur after percussion and palpation |
| The 2 major neck muscles are_______ and are innervated by cranial nerve________ | Sternomastoid & Trapezius---------XI spinal accessory |
| The sternomastoid muscle arises from_________and extends diagonally across the neck to ________ | Sternum and middle clavicle---------------Mastoid process |
| The sternomastoid muscle accomplishes | head rotation and flexion |
| The trapezius | move the shoulders and extend and turn the neck |
| The anterior angle | infront of sternomastoid muscle; at the body's midline |
| The posterior angle | Behind the sternomastoid muscle and infront of the trapezius muscle. |
| The thyroid gland is | rich in blood supply and synthesizes the hormones triiodothyronine and thyroxine whcuh stimulate the rate of cellular metabolism |
| The 2 lobes of the thyroid gland lye | over the 2nd and 3rd tracheal rings |
| The cricoid cartilage is AKA | upper tracheal ring |
| Name of the 3rd occasional lobe of thyroid gland | pyramidal lobe |
| The palpable notch of the thyroid cartilage is AKA | The adam's apple |
| The highest bone in the neck | Hyoid bone |
| Atrophy of the lymph nodes in children begin | at age 10-11 |
| Are the lymph nodes in children under 10 normally palpable without signs of illness | yes |
| The greatest supply of lymph nodes are located in | Head and neck |
| Which lymph nodes in the body are accessible to exam | head and neck, arms, axillae and inguinal region |
| The posterior triangle shaped fontanel in the neonate closes at | 1-2 months of age |
| The anterior diamond shaped fontanel in the neonate closes at | 9months-2 years |
| The most appropriate question to use when gathereing HA HX is | any unusually frequent or unusually frequent headaches? |
| alveoli | smaller structure of mammary gland |
| Areola | Darkened area surrounding the nipple |
| Colostrum | Thin, yellow fluid, percursor of milk, secreted for a few days after birth |
| Cooper's ligaments | Suspensory ligament, fibrous bands extending from the inner breast surface to the chest wall muscles |
| Fibroadenoma | Benign breast mass |
| Gynecomastia | Excessive breast development in the male |
| Intraductal Papilloma | Serosanguineous nipple discharge |
| Inverted | Nipples that are depressed ot invaginated |
| Lactiferous | Conveying milk |
| Mastitis | Inflammation of the breast |
| Montgomery's Glands | Sebaceous glands in the areola, secrete protective lipid during lactation, also called tubercles of Montgomery |
| Paget's disease | intraductal carcinoma in the breast |
| Peau d'orange | orange-peel appearance of breast due to edema |
| Retraction | dimple or pucker on the skin |
| Supernumerary Nipple | minute extra nipple along the embryonic milk line |
| Tail of Spence | Extension of breast tissue into the axilla |
| The reservoirs for storing milk in the breast are | Lactiferous sinuses |
| The most common site of breast tumors is | Upper outer quadrants |
| During a visit for a school physical, the 13 year old girl being examined questions the asymmetry of her breast. The best response is | One breast may grow faster than the other during development |
| When teaching the breast self exam, you would inform the woman that the best time to conduct breast self examination is | On the 4th-7th day of the cycle |
| The examiner is going to inspect the breast for retraction. The best position for this part of the exam is | sitting with hand pushing onto hips |
| A bimanual technique maybe the preferred approach for a woman | With pendulous breasts |
| During the examination of a 70 year old man, you note gynecomastia. You would | Review the meds for drugs that have gynecomastia as a side effect |
| During a breast exam, you detect a mass, Identify the description that is most consistent with cancer rather than benign breast disease | Irreglar, poorly defined, fixed |
| During the exam of the breast of a pregnant woman, you would expect to find | A blue vascular pattern over both breasts |
| Which of the following should not be referred to a physican for further evaluation | A 25 yr old with asymmetrical breasts and inversion of nipples since adolescence |
| Breast asymmetry | Maybe normal |
| Gynecomastia is | enlargement of the male breast |
| Which is the 1st physicalchange associated with puberty in girls | Breast bud development |
| Chancre | Red round superficial ulcer with a yellowish serous discharge that is a sign of syphillis |
| Condylomata Acuminata | soft, pointed, fleshy papules that occur on the genitalia and are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV) |
| Cystitis | Inflammation of the urinary bladder |
| Epididymis | congenital defect in which urethra opens on the dorsal side of the penis instead of at the tip |
| Hernia | weak spot in abdominal muscle wall through which a loop of bowel may protrude |
| Herpes genitalis | A sexually transmitted disease characterized by clusters of small painful vesicles, caused by a virus |
| Hydrocele | cystic fluid in turnica vaginalis surrounding testis |
| Hypospadias | Congenital defect in which urethra opens on the ventral (under) side of the penis rather than at the tip |
| Orchitis | acute inflammation of testis usually associated with mumps |
| Paraphimosis | foreskin is retracted and fixed behind the glans penis |
| Peyronie's disease | nontender, hard plaques on the surface of the penis assoiciated with painful bending of penis erection |
| Phumosis | Foreskin is advanced and tightly fixed over the glans penis |
| Prepuce | (foreskin) the hood ot flap of skin over the glans penis that often is surgically removed after birth by circumcision |
| Pirapism | Prolonged painful erection of penis w/o sexual desire |
| Spermatocele | retension cyst in epididymis filled with milky fluid that contains sperm |
| Torsion | sudden tortuous varicose veins in the spermatic cord |
| Varicocele | Dialated tortuous varicose veins in the spermatic cord |
| Vas deferens | duct carring sperm from the epididymis through the abdomen and then into the urethra |
| The examiner is going to inspect and palpate for a hernia. During this exam, the man is instructed to | Bear down when the examiner's finger is at the inguinal canal |
| during exam of the scrotum a normal finding would be | The left testicle hangs lower than the right |
| H.T. has come to the clinic for a f/u visit. 6months ago he was started on a new med. The class of med is most likely to cause impotence as a side effect; therefore, med classes explored by the nurse is | antihypertensives |
| Prostatic hypertrophy occurs frequently in older men, the symptoms that may indicate this problem are | straining, loss of force, and sense of residual urine |
| A 64 year old man has come for a health exam. a normal age related change in the scrotum would be | pendulous scrotum |
| During palpation of the testes the normal finding would be | firm, rubbery, and smooth |
| A 29-yr-old man has indicated that he does not perform testicular self-exam. One of the facts that should be shared with him is that teste cancer, though rate does occur in men aged | 15-34 |
| During the exam of a full-term newborn male a finding requiring investigation would be | absent testes |
| how sensitive to pressure are normal testes | somewhat |
| the congenital displacement of the urethral meatus to the inferior surface of the penis is | hypospadias |
| an adhesion of the prepuce to the head of the penis making it impossible to retract is | phumosis |
| the 1st physical sign associated with puberty in boys is | testes enlargement |
| Fissure | painful longditudinal tear in tissue |
| hemorrhoid | flabby papules of skin or mucus membrane in the anal region caused by a varicose vein of the hemorrhoidal plexus |
| Melena | blood in the stool |
| Pruitus | itching or burning sensation in the skin |
| Steatorrhea | exxcessive fat in the stool as in gastrintestinal malabsorption of fat |
| valves of houston | ine of 3 semilunar trasverse folds that cross one half of the circumference of the rectal lumen |
| The gastrocolic reflex is | a peristaltic wave |
| the incidence of benign prostatic hypertrophy is highest among | African American |
| select the best description of the anal canal | a 3.8 cm long outlet of the gastrointestinal tract |
| while good nutrition is important for everyone foods believed to help reduce risk of colon cancer are | high in fiber |
| which finding in the prostate gland suggests prostate cancer | diffuse hardness |
| the bulbourethral gland is assessed | during the exam of a male pt |
| inspection of stool is an important part of the rectal exam normal stool is | brown in color and solid in consistency |
| which symptom suggest benign prostatic hypertrophy | diff initiating urination and weak stream |
| a false positive may occur on fecal occult blood test of the stool if the person has injested significant amt of | red meat |
| Adnexa | accessory organs of the uterus i.e. ovaries and ft |
| amenorrhea | absence of menstruation |
| bartholin's glands | vestibular glands located on either side of the vaginal orifice that secrete a clear lubricating mucus during intercourse |
| bloody show | dislodging of thick cervical mucus plug at end of pregnancy which is a sign of the begining of labor |
| caruncle | small, deep red mass protruding from urethral meatus, usually due to urethritis |
| Chadwick's sign | bluish discoloration of cervix that occurs normally in pregnancy at 6-8 wks gestation |
| Chancre | red, round, superficial ulcer with a yellowish serous discharge that is a sign of syphilis |
| Cystocele | prolapse of urinary bladder and its vaginal mucosa into the vagina with straining or standing |
| Dysmenorrhea | abdominal cramping and pain associated with menstration |
| Dyspareunia | painful intercourse |
| Dysuria | Painful urination |
| Endometriosis | aberrant growths of endometrial tissue scattered throughout pelvis |
| fibroid | (myoma) hard painless nodules in uterine wall that cause uterine enlargement |
| Gonorrhea | std charaterized by purulent vaginal discharge or may have no symptoms |
| hegar's sign | softening of cervix that is a sign of pregnancy occuring at 10-12 wks gestation |
| hematuria | red tinged or bloddy urination |
| hymen | menmbranous fold of tissue partly closing vaginal orifice |
| Leukorrhea | whitish or yellowish discharge from vaginal orifice |
| Menopause | cessation of the menses usually occuring around 48-51 |
| Menorrhagia | excessively heavy menstral flow |
| Multipara | condition of having two or more pregnancies |
| Nullipara | condidtion of first pregnancy |
| Papanicolalu test | painless test used to detect cervical cancer |
| Rectouterine Pouch | (CUL-DE-AC of douglas) deep recess formed by the peritoneum between the rectum and the cervix. |
| Rectocele | prolapse of rectum and it's vaginal mucosa into vagina with straining or standing |
| Salpingitis | inflammation of fallopian tubes |
| Skene's glands | paraurethral glands |
| Vaginitis | inflammtion of the vagina |
| Vulva | external genetalia of female |
| Vaginal lubrication is provided during intercourse by | Bartholin's glands |
| A woman who has not had any children would have a cervix that appears | smooth and circular |
| A woman has come for an exam because of a missed period and a positive preg test. Exam reveals a cervix that appears scyanotic. This is | Chadwick's Sign |
| During the exam of the genetalia of a 70 year old woman, a normal finding would be | thin and sparse pubic hair |
| For a woman, history of her mother's health during preg is important. A med that requires frequent f/u is | Diethylstillbestrol |
| A woman is complaining of a thick, white, discharge with intense itching. These symptoms suggest | Candidiasis |
| To prepare the vaginal speculum for insertion, the examiner | Lubricates it with warm water |
| To insert the speculum as comfortably as possible, the examiner | Presses the introitus down with one hand and inserts the blades obliquely with the other. |
| Before withdrawing the speculum, the examiner swabs the cervix with a swab soaked in acetic acid. This examination is done to assess for | human papillomavirus |
| Select the best description of the uterus | pear shaped, thick walled organ flattened anteroposteriorly |
| In placing a finger on either side of the cervix and moving it side to side, you are assessing | Cervical motion tenderness |
| Whhich of the following is normal common finding on inspection and palpation of the vulva and perineum | Labia Majora that are wide apart and gaping |
| Which of the following is the most common bacterial STD in the U.S. | Chlamydia |
| You are performing a eye assessment on an 80-yr-old patient. Which of the following findings is considered abnormal | Unequal pupillary constriction in response to light |
| The 2 pairs of salivary glands that are accessible to exam on the face | parotid and submandibular |
| Which of the following would be true regarding the otoscopic exam of the newborn | the normal membrane may appear thich and opaque |
| You are going to auscultate the thyroid for the presence of a bruit. A bruit is a | soft whooshing pulsatile shound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope |
| Which of the following is considered objective data | Yellow sclera |
| The nuscles in the neck that are innervated by CN XI are the | sternomastoid and trapezius |
| Which of the following is true in relation to a newborn | The maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only ones present at birth |
| What is the best way to palpate lymph nodes in the neck | using gentle pressure, palpate with noth hands to compare the 2 sides |
| Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for conducting nerve impulses to the brain from the organ of corti | CN VIII |
| Accomotation refers to | Pupillary constriction when looking at a near object |
| Which of the following is objective data regarding the abdomen | Symmetrical abdominal contour |
| Optimal nutritional status is best defined as | Sufficient nutrients to provide for daily body requirements as well as for increased metabolic demands |
| It would be normal to elict a_____percussion note in the 7th right intercostal space at the midclavicular line because this is the location of the_____ | dull, liver |
| Which structire is located in the LUQ of the abdomen | Spleen |
| Why is it important to ask a pt what meds they are taking when doing a nutritional assessment | Certain drugs can affect the metabolism of nutrients |
| eep palpation is used to determine | organomegaly |
| Which of the following is the cause of ascites | Fluid |
| Which structure is located in the LLQ of the abdomen | Sigmoid colon |
| Which of the following would you expect to find when examining the eyes of an African-American pt | A dark retinal background |
| The middle ear functions to | conduct vibrations of sounds to the inner ear |
| Which of the following statements regarding the outter layer of the eye is true | The outer layer of the eye is very sensitive to touch |
| Which of the following is a risk factor for ear infections in young children | Second-hand cigarette smoke |
| Which of the following statements concerning the eustachian tube is true | It helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane |
| At what age can the infant fixate on a single image with both eyes simultaneously | 3-4 months |
| The portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage skin is called | auricle |
| Which of the following statements is true concerning air conduction | it is the most efficent pathway for hearing |
| Which of the following is objective data regarding the abdomen | Symmetrical abdominal contour |
| Optimal nutritional status is best defined as | Sufficient nutrients to provide for daily body requirements as well as for increased metabolic demands |
| It would be normal to elict a_____percussion note in the 7th right intercostal space at the midclavicular line because this is the location of the_____ | dull, liver |
| Which structire is located in the LUQ of the abdomen | Spleen |
| Why is it important to ask a pt what meds they are taking when doing a nutritional assessment | Certain drugs can affect the metabolism of nutrients |
| eep palpation is used to determine | organomegaly |
| Which of the following is the cause of ascites | Fluid |
| Which structure is located in the LLQ of the abdomen | Sigmoid colon |
| Which of the following would you expect to find when examining the eyes of an African-American pt | A dark retinal background |
| The middle ear functions to | conduct vibrations of sounds to the inner ear |
| Which of the following statements regarding the outter layer of the eye is true | The outer layer of the eye is very sensitive to touch |
| Which of the following is a risk factor for ear infections in young children | Second-hand cigarette smoke |
| Which of the following statements concerning the eustachian tube is true | It helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane |
| At what age can the infant fixate on a single image with both eyes simultaneously | 3-4 months |
| The portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage skin is called | auricle |
| Which of the following statements is true concerning air conduction | it is the most efficent pathway for hearing |
| The most common site of nose bleeds is | Kiesselbach's Plexus |
| Which cranial nerve do the receptors for smell merge into | Olfactory nerve, CN I |
| What a a major function of the paranasal sinus | Lighten the weight of the skull bones. |
| Name the 2 sinuses acessable to exam relative to the nose. | Frontal (in frontal bone) and maxillary (cheekbone). |
| Which 2 sinuses are the only ones present at birth | maxillary and ethmoid |
Created by:
tsjohn3
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