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Microbiology Exam #3

Chapters 13-16

TermDefinition
Infections transmitted by arthropod biological vectors use which of the following portals of entry? SKin
Which portal is used by the greatest number of pathogens Respiratory tract
All agents that use a portal of entry to initiate an infection are called exogenous agents. T/F False
Nervous system diseases must always use the respiratory tract as a portal of entry because of its proximity to the brain. T/F False
Non adhesion leads to lack of persistence and lack of growth
No virulence factors and lack of persistence and growth leads to no disease, no pathogenesis, and no illness
Enzymes, Toxins, and hypersensitivity leads to disease, illness, and pathogenesis
Properties of exotoxins are made of protein that are synthesized and secreted by a living cell do not usually cause a fever unless TNF production is stimulated
properties of endotoxins are comprised of lipopolysaccharide found in the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria is a pyrogen that routinely causes a fever
Koch's Postulates order 1-microbe found in every case of disease 2-pure culture of suspected agent made 3-inoculate healthy subject with isolated microbe 4-Reisolate microbe from infected host
Neisseria gonorrhoeae multiplying in the urogenital tract would demonstrate Infection
Staphylococcus aureus residing in the nasal cavity would demonstrate Colonization
Antibiotic-associated colitis due to toxin production by Clostridium difficile would demonstrate Infectious disease
Colonization of a body tissue by microbes most often results in the establishment of disease. T/F False
Infection that persists over a long period of time (ex: HIV) Chronic infection
An example is influenza complicated by pneumonia secondary infection
Infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids and may travel via nerves and CSF Systemic infection
Several microbes establish themselves simultaneously at the infection site Mixed infection
Microbes enter the body and remain confined to a specific tissue localized Infection
The infectious agent spreads to other tissues from a local site Focal Infection
Infection comes on rapidly with severe but short-lived effects acute infection
The initial infection Primary infection
The earliest notable symptoms of most infections appear during a short period known as the __________ stage prodromal
One must note that _______________ of a microbe during these four phases varies for every person transmissibility
There are _______ distinct phases of infection and disease four
During the period of ____________ , the infectious agent multiplies at high levels, becomes well established in its target tissue, and signs/symptoms reach their peak. invasion
As the symptoms of the infection decline, the patient enters a period of recovery called the ____________ period. convalescent
The ____________ period is the first phase, and this period is the time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of the first symptoms. incubation
Influenza virus is most likely to leave a host through which exit route? Sneezing
What are the characteristics of epidemiology? -The CDC is primarily responsible for the tracking of infectious disease in the U.S. -Applies concepts of microbiology, physiology, medicine, sociology, and many more -Study the frequency and distribution of disease within a population
Resident microbiota can cause disease in some individuals if they gain access to the correct portal of entry. T/F True
Characteristics of microorganism that enable it to establish infection and cause disease virulence factors
Reservoirs are always humans or other animals. T/F False
During 2007, there were 3.6 new cases of pertusis per 100k susceptible ind. in the U.S. part of steady inc. that has been occurring since the 1980s. Term that describes the statistic Incidence
The best descriptive term for the resident biota is mutualists
Resident biota are probably absent from the heart
Virulence factors include toxins enzymes capsules
The specific action of hemolysins is to damage red blood cells
The _________ is the time that lapses between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms. period of incubation
A short period early in a disease that may manifest with general malaise and achiness is the prodome
A/an _________ is a passive animal transporter of pathogens. mechanical vector
An example of a noncommunicable infection is tetanus
A positive antibody test for HIV would be a _______of infection sign
An outbreak caused by a batch of bad potato salad at a picnic is a ____________ outbreak. point-source
The presence of a few bacteria in the blood is called septicemia. T/F False, bacteremia
Resident microbiota are commonly found in the kidney. T/F False. not common
A subclinical infection is one that is acquired in a hospital or medical facility. T/F False. Health associated infection
The Global Disease Detection service provides a rapid response when epidemics arise around the world. T/F True
The index case is the first case found in an epidemiological investigation. T/F True
Examples of second line defense interferon fever complement inflammation
Examples of PAMPs Lipopolysaccharide peptidoglycan
Fever and inflammation are normal body responses to injury or infection, and it may be best to withhold treatment in some cases. T/F True
The membrane attack complex is a part of the ___________system. complement
What element is essential for microbes and can restrict the growth of pathogens when bound by antimicrobial proteins? Iron
First line of defense surface protection composed of anatomical and physiological barriers that keep microbes from penetrating sterile body compartments
Second line defense a cellular and chemical system that comes immediately into play if infectious agents make it past the surface defenses
third line defense includes specific host defenses that must be developed uniquely for each microbe through the action of specialized wbc. This immunity is usually long term and has memory.
Role of resident microbiota in the first line of defense microbial antagonism contributes to the first line defense since resident microbiota compete for nutrients and oxygen, limiting availability for pathogens beneficial effects of the microbiota are evidence following broad spectrum antimicrobial therapy
Normal biota appear to contribute to the first line of defense mechanisms through ________ microbial antagonism
Carries red and white blood cells, many different chemicals produced by the liver and antibodies bloodstream
support network of connective tissue fibers that provide a passageway within and between tissues and organs Mononuclear phagocyte system
Compartmentalized network of vessels, cells, and specialized accessory organs that house aggregates of lymphocytes Lymphatic system
Fluid that fills the spaces surrounding tissue cells extracellular fluid
Inflammatory process injury/immediate reactions vascular reactions edema and pus formation resolution/scar formation
Injury and immediate reactions bacteria in wound mast cells release chemical mediators vasoconstriction
vascular reactions clot bacteria neutrophil plasma and migration of wbc out of blood vessels vasodilation
edema and pus formation scab neutrophils pus fibrous exudate
resolution and scar formation scar lymphocytes macrophage
fever enhances metabolism and protective mechanisms in the host
PAMPs molecules present only on microorganisms and they serve as signal molecules for pathogen recognition
PRRs present at all times on phagocytic cells and even lymphocytes, regardless of whatever they have encountered their corresponding PAMP
Similar to macrophages, _________ cells are products of the monocytic cell line that reside throughout the tissues and present antigen to lymphocytes. dendritic
Characteristics of B lymphocytes involved in specific immunity mature in bone marrow move freely among lymphoid tissues and connective tissue form specialized plasma cells that produce antibodies
Characteristics of T lymphocytes involved in specific immunity mature in the thymus move freely among lymphoid tissues and connective tissue responsible for cell-mediated immunity
main phagocytes in circulation neutrophils
Parallel eosinophil function by being involved in inflammation and allergic reactions basophils
phagocytic cells that leave circulation and differentiate into macrophages monocytes
display no antigen specificity but are active against tumor and virally infected cells natural killer cells
An example of a non specific chemical barrier to infection is lysozyme in saliva
Which nonspecific host defense is associated with the trachea? ciliary lining
Which of the following blood cells function primarily as phagocytes? neutrophils
which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue? thyroid gland
What is included in GALT? Peyer's patches
monocytes are ________ leukocytes that develop into ________ agranular macrophages
An example of an exogenous pyrogen is _________ endotoxin
Which of the following is antimicrobial protein that has a much greater role in the third line of defense than in the second line of defense? antibody
Which substance is not produced by phagocytes to destroy engulfed microorganisms? bradykinin
Which is the end product of the complement system? membrane attack complex
the liquid component of clotted blood is called plasma. T/F False, unclotted
Pyogenic bacteria are commonly associated with fever. T/F False, Pyrogenic
Communication between cells of the immune system is accomplished using chemical signals. T/F True
Lysozyme is an enzyme found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls. T/F True
The immune system uses DNA content to distinguish self from nonself. T/F False, markers on the surface of cells to distinguish self from nonself
host defenses innate immunity and adaptive immunity
innate immunity includes inflammation, phagocytosis, and fever
adaptive immunity includes passive and active immunity, it provides anamnestic response of memory, humoral immunity of antibody secretion, and cell mediated immunity of activated Tc and Th cells
passive immunity is artificial immunity, example: tetanus immune globulin and natural immunity, example: IgA in breastmilk
active immunity is artificial immunity via vaccines and natural immunity, ex: IgG after having chickenpox
T cell activation begins when an _______ presents an antigen fragment in association with an MHC-II molecule to a ______ helper T cell. APC CD4
Once activated, helper T cells can differentiate into T helper 1 cells which will activate ____________ cells and secretes IL-2 to help activate cell mediated immunity. phagocytic
CD4 helper T cells may also differentiate into T helper __ cells for B cell activation, or T helper ____ or T regulatory cells for modulation of the _________ response. 2 17 inflammatory
An APC may also activate a CD8 T cell when the antigen is complexed with ______. These CD8 cells are called _________ T cells. MHC-I cytotoxic
Activated CD8 cells will mount a direct attack on target cells through the action of _______, which punch holes in membranes, and ___________, which then enter through these passageways. perforins granzymes
Properties of B cells mature in bone marrow immunoglobulin surface markers located in the cortex of lymphatic organs do not require antigen presented with MHC production of antibodies
Properties of T cells mature in the thymus CD molecules on surface located in the paracortical sites of lymphatic organs require antigen presentation with MHC assist other immune cells, mediated hypersensitivity, and synthesize cytokines
Assess the relationship between MHC molecules and cell surface receptors -Class II MHC glycoproteins are found only on antigen presenting cells: macrophages, dendritic cells and B lymphocytes -Viral epitopes within an infected liver cell are presented in MHC I molecules and bind to cytotoxic T cell receptors
The first stage of the specific immune response involves lymphocyte development and differentiation
Antigen presenting cells macrophages B cells
Helper T cells interact with target cells by recognizing antigen MHC protein complexes
Helper T cells secrete ________ to stimulate the proliferation of B cells. cytokines
Helper T cells interact with Class I major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins. T/F False
Plasma cells are B cells that produce antibodies. T/F True
What pertains to the principle of herd immunity? -immune individuals do not carry the agent of a particular communicable disease -mass immunization confers indirect protection of non-immunized members -low herd immunity means there are greater numbers of susceptible individuals
Steps of clonal selection and expansion 1-bone marrow stem cells differentiate--> lymphocytes 2-B ells mature in bone marrow + t cells mature in thymus 3-lymphocytes migrate to 2nd lymphoid tissues 4-specific lymphocyte stimulated by specific antigen 5-lymphocyte undergoes mitotic divisions
characteristics exhibited by effective vaccines -little or no adverse side effects -protect against exposure to wild-type, natural pathogens -relatively long shelf life
The primary B cell receptor is IgD
In humans, B cells mature in the _______, and T cells mature in the ____________. bone marrow thymus
Small, simple molecules are _________ antigens. poor
The cross-linkage of antigens by antibodies is known as agglutination
T cells assist in the functions of certain B cells and other __________T cells cytotoxic
Tc cells are important in controlling virus infections
Which of the following can serve as antigen presenting cells (APCs)? B cells macrophages dendritic cells
A vaccine that contains parts of viruses is called a subunit
Conjugated vaccines combine antigens and foreign proteins
Widespread immunity that protects the population from the spread of disease is called herd immunity
Cell surface markers are also often called receptors. T/F True
Antibodies are secreted by monocytes. T/F False, secreted by plasma cells
Vaccination could be described as artificial passive immunity. T/F False, artificial active immunity
IgE antibodies are found in body secretions. T/F False, IgA
The process of reducing the virulence of microbes so that they can be used in vaccines is called denaturation.T/F False, attenuation
Transfusion involves the transfer of ________ from a donor to a different recipient. Blood ( or blood products)
In this case, the patient died of an ____________. hemolytic transfusion reaction
Antigens on red blood cells include __________ Rh Mn Kell
To avoid transfusion complications, patient blood samples are now commonly labeled with a barcode. T/F True
Antigenic stimulation can result in the following pathological responses loss of immunity Hyposensitivities Hypersensitivities
Loss of immunity can lead to ________ cancer
Hyposensitivities can lead to AIDS
Types of hypersensitivities are Type I- allergy to pollen Type II- Mismatched blood transfusion Type III- immune complex reaction Type IV- reaction to poison ivy
No hypersensitivity reaction occurs when Type O, or universal donor, blood is given to a type AB patient An Rh+ mother is carrying her first Rh+ fetus
Type II hypersensitivity will happen when -Type AB, or universal recipient, blood is given to a Type O pt -Anti-A antibodies in donated type B blood now circulate in a patient w/type A blood after a transfusion -An Rh- mother, making anti-Rh antibodies, is carrying her second Rh+ fetus
Type III hypersensitivity will happen when -A rxn involves IgG and IgM mediated rxns to soluble antigens -immune complexes are deposited in basement mem leading to neutrophil-mediated destruction of tissue -Arthus rxn involving localized dermal injury at antigen inj site
Sensitization/IgE Production 1-sensitizing dose of allergen enters 2-lymph carries allergen to lymph node 3-B cell recognizes allergen 4-B cell proliferates into a plasma cell 5-Synthesis of IgE
Subsequent exposure to allergen 6-IgE binds to mast cell surface receptor 7-Allergen is encountered again 8-Allergen binds IgE triggers degranulation 9-Systemic distribution of mediators
Differences between host rejection of graft and graft vs. host disease (GVHD) -effects of GVHD are localized to bone marrow and are observed almost immediately upon receipt of the bone marrow transplant -Graft vs host occurs when immunocompetent cells in the donated marrow cells see recipient's cells as foreign + mount a response
Type I, II, and III hypersensitivity reactions mainly involve T cell responses while type IV reactions are B cell immunoglobulin responses. T/F False
Isograft a graft of tissue between two individuals who are genetically identical (i.e. monozygotic twins).
Autograft a graft of tissue from one point to another of the same individual's body
Allograft a tissue graft from a donor of the same species as the recipient but not genetically identical
Xenograft a tissue graft or organ transplant from a donor of a different species from the recipient
Autoimmunity that suggests that autoreactive B and T cells are left behind due to a failure in the process of tolerance Forbidden clone theory
The most recognized infection-induced secondary immunodeficiency today is __________ AIDS
Phrase that does not describe the anaphylactic response to test your understanding of systemic anaphylaxis allergen route of entry is always due to inhalation
What accurately characterizes autoimmune diseases -Myasthenia gravis is due to a type III hypersensitivity and the action of autoantibodies -MS involves tissue destruction by both T cells and autoantibodies -all autoimmunities are systemic in nature, attacking all parts of the body equally
if one chain is removed from the infectious disease cycle, what happens ? transmission is prevented
where does a pathogen usually reproduce in vector transmission ? in vector, but depends on vector for transmission
what happens during the incubation period ? what does the host look like? pathogen reproduces & host is asymptomatic (shows no symptoms) waiting; bacteria is growing but you do not know you are about to be sick
anything _______ can cause disease; what does it do ? pathogenic; it overruns the immune system
What are the 3 primary functions of innate immunity? 1. Provides a physical-chemical barrier to pathogens. 2. Provides an initial and immediate host defense response to a pathogen. 3. It initiates and regulates the development of the adaptive immune response.
What recognizes PAMPs? PAMPs are recognized by PRRs, pattern recognition receptors
Where are PRR's found? What is their general binding structure? Phagocytes (macrophages, dendritic cells, and neutrophils) They form homo or heterodimers
How are TLRs distributed? TLRs are widely distributed on all leukocytes (e.g. monocytes/macrophages, neutrophil), dendritic cells, and stromal cells (e.g. epithelial cells).
Where are Nucleotide-binding oliogmerization domain like receptors (NLR) found? NLRs are found within the cytoplasm of phagocytes.
What are NOD-1&2 proteins? They are part of the NLR group that recognize bacterial cell components
2 cytokines essential for type 1 hypersensitivity IL-4, IL-13 cause class-switching to IgE
good indicator of inhalation allergy in clinic Presence of a large number of eosinophils in an area is a good indication that there has been an allergic reaction (e.g. nasal swab for an inhaled allergen)
importance of Major Basic Protein, released by what type of cell Major basic protein, which is released from eosinophils, is very critical in the fight against parasites (not from mast cells! from eosinophils b/c related to parasite defenses)
cells critical in mediation of immunological tolerance how it works? regulatory T cells are the mediators of immunological tolerance normally activated by gut microbiota Most likely by releasing chemical signals that dampen inflammation and promote regulatory T cell activation
why are immune complexes deposited in the kidneys and synovia? Because these are sites of ultrafiltration of plasma under high hydrostatic pressure.
Your gut biota can partially determine your mood and mental health. T/F True
How do species of the microbiota become pathogenic? seesaw
Babies born by C-section are colonized by the same biota as babies born vaginally. T/F False
A skewing of the microbiota populations in the body that leads to disease is called ________. dysbiosis
What are sites in the body that are known to have microbiota? Sites where we suspect there is,but detection is difficult?
What are current possible treatments that adjust the microbiota? pro and prebiotics
A condition in which pathogenic microorganisms penetrate host defenses, enter the tissues, and multiply is an __________. infection
The minimum number of microbes required to cause diseases is the ___________. infectious dose
If a virus causing a respiratory disease is ingested, it will not cause disease. T/F True
BActerial _______ are toxic in minute amounts. endotoxins
__________ toxins are those that have 2 units or parts. They are considered Endo/Exo toxins
Come up with a list of all virulence factors we've covered so far
A _________ is objective evidence of disease. sign
During the period of ________, a pathogen exhibits its greatest virulence. illness
The etiology of all infectious diseases can be determined by Kock's Postulates. T/F False
Which HAI's are the most common? CAUTI bloodstream infection surgical site infection pneumonia
An _________ carrier is one that is in the early stage of infection, but shows no outward signs of disease. incubating
What is an HAI? Hospital acquired infection
Which HAI cause the most death? septicemia respiratory
The number of new cases of disease over a certain time period is the ________. incidence of disease
The ________ rate is the number of persons afflicted with infectious disease morbidity
A(n) _______ disease is seen at a steady frequency over a long period of time in a particular location. epidemic
A _______ is an epidemic occurring over multiple continents pandemic
________ diseases are caused by newly identified microbes emerging
The skin produces ________ to create a waterproof barrier to microbes. keratin
A thick layer of ________ in the nasal and respiratory passages traps bacteria mucus
Tears and saliva contain ________ that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan of bacterial cell walls. lysozyme
The low pH in the _______ and _______ prevents the growth of microbes. stomach vaginaskin
True/False: Some pathogens are able to circumvent the physical and chemical barriers of the first line of defense. True
Describe the three responsibilities of a healthy immune system surveillance of the body recognition of foreign material destruction of entities deemed to be foreign
True/False: Cells marked as “self” are not marked for destruction by the immune system True
Markers are composed of _______ or _______ or both. proteins sugars
True/False: Nonself cells such as food or commensal organisms are always attacked by the immune system. False
_____________ is a secondary lymphatic organ that also filters blood. lymph nodes
_____________ is a primary immune organ that allows for maturation of T cells thymus
_____________ is the site of development for all lymphocytes (B and T cells) lymphocytes
______________ is the secondary lymphatic tissue found in the gut mucosa. GALT (gut associated lymphoid tissue)
Secondary lymphatic tissues are often found at ____________ ___ _______. lymph nodes spleen lymphatic nodules
_____________ are ‘first responders’ to a site of infection, and are the WBC in highest concentration in the blood. neutrophils
_____________ are innate cells that are important in parasitic infections eosinophils
____________ can develop into macrophages or dendritic cells. monocytes
_____________ are adaptive cells critical for the cell-mediated response. lymphocytes
Leukocytes secrete ______________ as messenger signals to other cells. cytokines
List and describe the basic steps of phagocytosis 1- Chemotaxis 2-adherence 3-ingestion 4-phagolysosome formation 5-killing 6-elimination
What are the five symptoms of inflammation? heat pain edema redness loss of function
________ is the tendency of white blood cells to migrate in response to a specific chemical stimulus. chemotaxis
True/False: Fever should always be treated. False
Interferon is produced in response to infection by a ________. virus
The three ways complement is activated are known as the ________, ________, and ________ pathways. classic lectin alternative
The structure that is formed by complement that can lyse cells is called ___. MAC
Name the immune functions of antibodies neutralization agglutination precipitate activate complex pathogen
When antibodies coat a pathogen to assist in phagocytosis, it is called ______. opsonization
Maturation of B cells occurs in the _______ and maturation of T cells occurs in the _______. bone marrow thymus
MHC markers are found on all cell types except ________. blood cells
Type ____ MHC are found on antigen presenting cells only. II
True/False: T-cells produce antibodies False
True/False: When activated, both T and B cells produce memory cells. True
T cells display the CD3 marker and either the _______ or _______ coreceptor CD4 CD8
The B-cell receptor is a(n) ________ molecule. immunoglobulin
True/False: T-cell receptors are specific for only one antigen. True
What are antigens? molecule of a complex composition
The ______ is the molecular fragment against which an immune response is directed. epitope
Dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells all serve as ______ _______ _______. antigen presenting cells
APCs use ______________ molecules to ‘talk’ to lymphocytes and incite an adaptive immune response. MHC molecules
Bacteria are usually considered ___________ antigens, while viruses are usually considered __________ antigens. exogenous endogenous
True/False: Bacteria are only extracellular, viruses are only intracellular. True
Stimulated T cells produce a large population of genetically identical ________ cells and ______ cells. T- helper T-cytotoxic
CD8 T cells are activated by binding with antigen on ________ molecules. MHC I
Describe function of TH1, TH2, cells. TH1- involved in pathogenesis of organ specific autoimmune disorders TH2- are responsible for atopic disorders in genetically susceptible individuals
Cells that regulate T cell activities are ________ cells. T-regulatory cells
TC cells use _______ and _______ to destroy virus infected cells. gransomes perterins
True/False: B cells can only be activated by T helper cells. False
Coating of pathogens with antibodies is known as ________. neutralization
Antibodies secreted in the tears, saliva, and mucous membranes are of the ______ class. IgA
The first class of antibodies to be secreted is _______. IgM
The most prevalent antibody class circulating in the body is ______. IgG
The ________ response of the immune system provides a large concentration of antibodies in a short amount of time. humerol
True/False: Lymphocyte specificity is preprogrammed True
True/False: B-cells and T-cells never react to self antigens. False
Breastfeeding is an example of ________ ________ immunity natural
Vaccination is an example of ________ ________ immunity artificial
How would you describe a ‘good’ immunization? What characteristics would it have? immunity?-long term Strength of immune response?-strong # of epitopes?-multiple Length of protection?-longest possible ,Boosters? -fever boosters, Adjuvants?-no adjuvants Mut?-no mutation, virulence? dec in virulence Cost?-low Admin?-easy
Vaccines are either _______-organism or part-of-organism preparations whole
Vaccines that provide the best protection (with some exceptions) are ____ ___________ vaccines. modified live
True/False: There are vaccines against all major infectious diseases False
When a large proportion of the population is vaccinated against a disease, and this prevents transmission to other people who are unvaccinated, or spread of that disease through a community, this is called ____ ___________. herd immunity
True/False: There is no link between the MMR vaccine and autism. True
The accepted average threshold for herd immunity to be effective is ______%. 80 %
Once herd immunity falls below this threshold in a community, _______________ of disease can occur. transmission
True/False: Continued spread of illness of diseases that have vaccines will eventually put the vaccinated population at risk for those illnesses as well. True
True/False: An unvaccinated newborn, if exposed to a child sick with a communicable (vaccine preventable) disease, will not become sick because they are being fed breast milk. False
To develop an allergy, first there is a ________ dose of allergen which triggers the production of _____.
The fastest-acting allergic mediator is ________. T-regulators
True/False: Inflammatory cytokines all have the same physiological effect False
Which of the following are not atopic diseases? Hay fever Food allergies Asthma Eczema food allergies
Anaphylaxis is treated with ________. epinephrine
The blood type of the universal donor is type _____. type O
The blood type of the universal acceptor is type _____. type AB
Describe the outcomes of transfusing the wrong type of blood coagulation, antibody bonding causing clumping
Hemolytic disease of the newborn can occur when the mother is Rh _____ and the fetus is Rh _____. Rh negative Rh positive
True/False: RBC antigens include only A, and B False
A person that is A+ can accept ____ blood. Type A+, A-, O+, and O-
True/False: In type III hypersensitivities, antigen–antibody complexes are attached to cells False
True/False: Unlike anaphylaxis, serum sickness and the Arthus reaction do not depend on IgE antibodies. True
Arthus reactions are ________, whereas serum sickness is _________. local systemic
Examples of Type III disorders are: rheumatoid arthritis
Characteristic symptoms of SLE include: fatigue flare ups butterfly rash
True/False: In type III hypersensitivities, antigen-antibody complexes are deposited in tissues. False
Type IV hypersensitivities are the result of the action of _______ (B/T) cells. B cells
When host T cells attack a mismatched grafted organ, this is ___________ rejection
Exposure to poison ivy can result in ________ ________. intense pruritus, erythema, and weeping on a patient's forearm Cytokine release by sensitized T cells
Which hypersensitivities are due to antibodies? Type II
A reaction to a blood transfusion is a type _____ hypersensitivity type II
An example of a type _____ is contact dermatitis. IV
Type _____ hypersensitivity includes hay fever and asthma. 1
Rheumatoid arthritis is a type _____ hypersensitivity. Type III
____________ is an autoimmune disease that attacks the joints Rheumatoid Arthritis
____________ is an autoimmune disease that destroys pancreatic islet cells. Type I Diabetes Mellitus (insulin dependent)
Autoimmune diseases happen more frequently to _________. women
True/False: Many autoimmune diseases begin as hypersensitivity disorders.
Immunodeficiencies that exist from birth are called ________, while those acquired later in life are called __________. primary secondary
Created by: vtlove116