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3209 Test 1

Intro to Prof Nursing Chapters 1, 2, 3 (table 3-1), 6, 8, 9, 29, 31

As a science, nursing is based on what? A body of knowledge that is continually changing with new discoveries an innovations.
What is the center of nursing practice? The client.
Who gives nurses their standards of practice? American Nurses Association (ANA).
Nurses sometimes provide home visits to high-risk mothers. Who are considered high-risk mothers? Adolesent, poorly educated mothers, or medically underserved.
What is expert clinical nursing? A commitment to the application of knowledge and clinical experience.
What is defined as "the protection, promotion, and optimization of health and abilities, prevention of illness and injury, alleviation of suffering through the diagnosis and treatment of human response,a nd advocacy in the care of individuals, families,co Nursing, as defined by the ANA.
What kind of skills are essential to nursing? Critical thinking skills.
When you provide nursing care, you must clinical judgments about your patients' healthcare needs based on what 3 things? Fact, experience, and standards of care.
What 3 things do we, as nurses gain through the continual process of critical thinking and reflection? Knowledge, expertise, and lifelong learning.
Providing home visits to high-risk mothers has what 3 results? Fewer emergency room visits, fewer newborn infections, and reduced infant mortality.
What did Florence Nightingale study and implement methods to improve? Battlefield sanitation, which reduced illness, infection, and mortality.
Today, nurses are active in determining the best practices for what processes? Skin care management, pain control, nutritional management, and care of older adults.
What was the name of Florence Nightingale's first philosophy based on health maintenance and restoration? "Notes on Nursing: What It Is and What It Is Not."
The A.N.A. defines nursing as: The protection, promotion and optimization of what? Health and abilities.
The A.N.A. defines nursing as: Prevention of what? Illness and injury.
The A.N.A. defines nursing as: Alleviation of suffering through what? The diagnosis and treatment of human response.
The A.N.A. defines nursing as: Advocacy in the care of whom? Individuals, families, communities, and populations.
Nightingale saw the role of nursing as having "charge of somebody's health" based on the knowledge of what? "How to put the body in such a state to be free of disease or to recover from disease."
How does nursing react to new challenges? Responds and adapts.
What year was the Nightingale Training School for Nurses established? 1860.
Where was the Nightingale Training School for Nurses established? St. Thomas' Hospital in London, England.
T/F: The Nightingale School was the 1st organized program for nurses. True.
When and where was the 1st training school in Canada founded? 1874, in St. Catherine's, Ontario.
Who founded the American Red Cross? Clara Barton.
Who directed the Toronto General Hospital and began to form what later became the Canadian Nurses Association? Mary Agnes Snively
What does NAAUSC stand for? Nurses' Associated Alumni of the United States and Canada.
What did the NAAUSC later become? American Nurses Association.
Who was the first practicing nurse epidemiologist? Florence Nightingale.
Nightingale connected poor sanitation to what 2 specific diseases? Cholera and dysentery.
In 1853, Nightingale went to Paris to study with the Sisters of Charity and was later appointed superintendent of what? English General Hospitals in Turkey.
Nightingale broght about major reforms in what 3 areas? Hygiene, sanitation, and nursing practice?
What was NIghtingale's nickname? The "Lady with the Lamp".
During what war did Nightingale volunteer? The Crimean War.
What event stimulated the growth of nursing in the United States? The Civil War.
Who was the first professionally-trained African American nurse? Mary Mahoney.
How long did it take Congress to ratify the American Red Cross? 10 years.
Who was the superintendent of female nurses in the Union Army? Dorothea Dix.
What did Dix do, as a job description? Organized hospitals, appointed nurses, and oversaw and regulated supplies to the troops.
Who organized abulance services, supervised nurses, and walked abandoned battlefields at night, looking for wounded soldiers? Mother Bickerdyke.
Who was active in the Underground Railroad and assisted in leading over 300 slaves to freedom? Harriet Tubman.
About what time did nursing in hospitals increase significantly? The late 19th century.
What year was the American Red Cross ratified? 1882.
When did nursing in teh community increase significantly? 1893, when the Henry Street Settlement was founded.
Lillian Wald and Mary Brewster founded what? The Henry Street Settlement.
What did the Henry Street Settlement do? Focused on the health needs of poor people who lived in tenements in New York City.
Nurses working in the Settlement were among the first to demonstrate what quality? Autonomy in practice.
When were the Army Nurse Corps and the Navy Nurse Corps established? Army, 1901, Navy, 1908.
Isabel Hampton Robb helped found what? The Nurses' Associated Alumnae of the United States and Canada in 1896.
When was the first university-affiliated nursing program established? 1901.
What is Sigma Theta Tau, and when was it formed? The National Honor Society of Nursing, 1922.
Who formed Sigma Theta Tau? 6 student nurses from Indiana University.
What report increased financial support to university-based schools of nursing? What year? Goldmark Report, 1923.
What school did the Rockefeller Foundation develop in 1923? Yale School of Nursing.
Who concluded that all nursing education programs should be affiliated with universities and have their own budgets? Dr. Esther Lucille Brown.
What did Dr. Esther Lucille Brown recommend within a university? A broad academic education within a university and 2 years nursing education focused on technical skills.
What did Dr. Mildred Montag establish? When? The first associate degree program, 1952.
What organization developed graduate nursing education? The National League for Nursing (NLN).
How did Yale University School of Nursing define nursing? A profession, interaction, and relationship between 2 human beings.
When was the Nursing Training Act passed? 1964.
How much moeny did the Nursing Training Act bring into nursing education? Almost $300 million.
When did Jerome Lysaught direct the National Commission on Nursing and Nursing Education Report? 1965.
What did the National Commission on Nursing and Nursing Education Report recommend? Nursing roles and responsibilities be clarified in realtion to other healthcare professionals.
What year was the health care reform? 1994.
What report looked at future nursing needs and shortages in 1996? The Pew Report.
Who established the Center for Ethics and Human Rights? When? The ANA, in 1990.
What provides a forum to address the complex ethical and human rights issues confronting nurses and designs activities and programs to increase ethical competence in nurses? The Center for Ethics and Human Rights.
What are 3 newer challenges facing nurses and the nursing profession? Bioterrorism, emerging infections, and disaster management.
Name 4 demographic changes affecting the population. Population shift to urbanization; the increased life span; the higher incidence of chronic, long-term illness; and the increased incidence of diseases such as alcoholism and lung cancer.
What kinds of equality do women now demand? Economic, political, occupational, and educational equality.
Name some emerging heathcare specialties dealing with the needs of women. well women's examinations; oncological subspecialties and management of menopause.
T/F: All of the medically underserved are poor and on Medicaid. False.
Besides the poor, what other populations are medically underserved? Part of the working poor that can't afford their own insurance, but make too much money to qualify for Medicaid; mentally-ill population without access to healthcare.
The human rights movement changed the way society viewed the rights of all its members, including who? Minorities, clients with terminal illness, pregnant women, and older adults.
What's the result of consumers becoming more knowledgeable about their health care? They are becoming more vocal in their desire for high-quality health care.
Name 4 examples of threats to client safety. Medication errors, improper client transfers, client falls, and incorrect procedures.
What is the caregiver at risk for? Musculoskeletal injuries during client transfers.
How do we reduce medication errors? Adhering to the 6 rights of medication administration and avoiding abbreviations on the "do not use" list.
Examples of EBP's for client transfers include what 2 practices (per the book)? Using the proper equipment for client transfer and the use of client lift teams.
Clients fall due to many factors. Name 5. Improper transfer techniques, client age, side effects of medication, impaired mobility, and confusion.
Programs that use what approach in designing fall prevention strategies have the greatest reduction in fall rates? A multidimensional approach.
Why do healthcare costs affect nursing? Because we are responsible for providing the client with the best-quality care in an efficient and econiomically-sound manner.
In what year did the ANA review and completely update "Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice"? 2004.
What are the 6 Standards of Practice identical to? The nursing process.
Primary Characteristics of a Profession: It requires an extended _(A)_ of its members, as well as a basic _(B)_ foundation. A) educationB) liberal
Primary Characteristics of a Profession: It has a theoretical body of knowledge, leading to defined (3 things). Skills, abilities, and norms.
Primary Characteristics of a Profession: A profession provides a specific what? Service.
Primary Characteristics of a Profession: Members of a profession have autonomy is what 2 things? Decision-making and practice.
Primary Characteristics of a Profession: The profession as a whole has a what for practice? Code of ethics.
The "Nursing: Scope and Standards of Practice" document are the standards of what 2 things? The Standards of Practice and the Standards of Professional Performance.
What do we call the philosophical ideals of right and wrong that define the principles we will use to provide care to our clients? The code of ethics.
What describe a competent level of begavior in the professional role? The nine ANA Standards of Professional Performance.
List the 9 ANA Standards of Professional Nursing. (QEPCCERRL) 1) Quality of Practice. 2) Education. 3) Professional Practice Evaluation. 4) Collegiality. 5) Collaboration. 6) Ethics. 7) Research. 8) Resource Utilization. 9) Leadership.
A master's degree in nursing is valuable for what roles? Nurse educator, nurse administrator, or advanced practice nurse.
T/F: Graduates of both associate degree and baccalaureate degree programs are qualified to take the NCLEX exam. True.
T/F: The NCLEX exam is dlightly different for graduates of associates degrees and baccalaureate degrees. False. It's exactly the same.
What regulate the scope of nursing practice and protect public health, safety, and welfare? The Nurse Practice Acts (NPAs).
The protection yielded by NPAs shields the public from what kind of nurses? Unqualified and unsafe nurses.
According to Benner, an expert nurse passes through 5 levels of proficiencies when acquiring and developing generalist or specialized nursing skills. What are the 5 levels? 1) Novice. 2) Advanced Beginner. 3) Competent. 4) Proficient. 5) Expert.
Which level of proficiency is this: Any nurse entering situation where there is no previous level of experience. Novice.
Which level of proficiency is this: A nurse who has had some level of experience with the situation. Advanced beginner.
T/F: For a nurse to be an advanced beginner, the experience only has to be observational in nature. True.
Which level of proficiency is this: A nurse who has beenin the same clinical situation for 2-3 years. Competent.
Which level of proficiency is this: The nurse has usually had experience with all types of psychomotor skills required by this specific group of clients. Comeptent.
Which level of proficiency is this: A nurse with greater than 2-3 years of experience in the same clinical setting. Proficient.
Which level of proficiency is this: The nurse perceives a client's situation as a whole, is able to assess an entire situation, and can readily transfer knowledge gained from multiple experiences to a situation. Proficient.
Which level of proficiency is this: The nurse focuses on managing care, as opposed to managing and performing skills. Proficient.
Which level of proficiency is this: A nurse with diverse experience who has an intuitive grasp of an existing or potential clinical problem. Expert.
Which level of proficiency is this: This nurse is able to zero in on the problem and focus on multiple dimensions of the situation. Expert.
The nurse is skilled at identifying client-centered problems, as well as problems related to the health care system, or perhaps the needs of the novice nurse. Expert.
Which level of proficiency is this: Beginning nursing student. Novice.
Which level of proficiency is this: An experienced operating room nurse who now chooses to practice in home health. Novice.
The learner learns via a specific set of rules or procedures, which are usually stepwise and linear. Novice.
What kind of nurse works primarily in schools of nursing, staff development departments of healthcare agencies, and client education departments? A nurse educator.
What kind of nourse manages client care and the delivery of specific nursing services within a healthcare agency? A nurse administrator.
Nursing administration begins with positions like what? Assistant nurse manager.
What kind of degree do nurse manager positions usually require? At least a baccalaureate degree in nursing.
What kind of degree do director and executive positions usually require? A master's.
Chief nurse executive and vice president positions in large healthcare organizations usually require what degrees? A doctoral degree.
What kind of nurse investigates problems to improve nursing care and to further define and expand the scope of nursing? The nurse researcher.
In North America, what are the major professional nursing organizations? The National League for Nursing (NLN) and the American Nurses Association (ANA).
Which professional nursing organization is part of the International Council of Nurses (ICN)? The ANA.
The ANA has lobbied to legislatures to restrict the length of overtime for nurses. When nurses' shifts last longer than what, both the client's safety and the nurse's safety are at risk. 12-16 hours.
List 5 of the multiple roles and functions of the nurse. 1) Caregiver. 2) Client advocate. 3) Manager. 4) Communicator. 5) Educator.
Who is the biggest consumer of health care? The federal government.
Who paid for Medicare and Medicaid? The federal government.
The federal government created what to review the quality, quantity, and cost of hospital care? Professional standards review organizations (PSROs).
Medicare-qualified hospitals had physician-supervise utilization review (UR) committees to review what 3 services provided by physicians who cared for clients receiving Medicare? Admissions, diagnostic testing, and treatments.
What was the intent of URs? To identify and eliminate the overuse of diagnostic and treatment services.
T/F: One of the most significant factors that influenced payment for healthcare was the prospective payment system (PPS). True.
When was the PPS established by Congress? 1983.
What did the PPS eliminate? Cost-based reimbursement.
What was the effect of PPS? Hospitals serving clients who received Medicare benefits were no longer able to charge whatever the client's care cost.
The PPS grouped inpatient hospital services for Medicare clients into 468 what? Diagnosis-related groups (DRGs).
What term means the providers received a fixed amount per client or enrollee of a health care paln? Capitation.
What's the aim of capitation? To build a payment plan for select diagnoses or surgical procedures that consists of the best standards of care, including essential diagnostic and treatment procedures at the lowest cost.
In what care settings are DRGs commonly used? Rehabilitation settings.
In what care settings are resource utilization groups (RUGs) used? Long-term care settings.
What term describes health care systems in which there is administrative control over primary health care services for a defined client population? Managed care.
Systems of managed care focus on what 3 things? 1) Containing or reducing costs. 2) Increasing client satisfaction. 3) Improving the health or functional status of the individual.
T/F: Since the goal of managed care is to increase access to health care while decreasing costs, health care spending is gradually delining. False. Health care spending continues to rise.
Name 4 factors that increase health care spending. 1) Increases in health care wages. 2) Increases in the costs of prescription drugs. 3) Higher insurance premiums for employers. 4) Increased consumers' demand for improved technology.
List the levels of the Health Services Pyramid, developed by the Core Functions Project, from bottom to top. Population-based health care services --> Clinical preventiev services --> Primary health care --> Secondary health care --> Tertiary health care.
The improvement in mortality rates has been credited to advancements in what areas? Sanitation and infectious diseases, client teaching, and injury prevention programs.
What are activities that protect people from becoming ill because of actual or potential health threats? Disease prevention.
What are activities that develop human attitudes and behaviors to maintain or enhance well-being? Health promotion.
What is an organization that provides or contracts for specific health care services (liek hospital care, prescription medication)? Managed care organization.
What is the provision of integrated, accessible health care services by health care professionals who address a majority of personal care needs, develop partnerships with clients, and care for families and communities? Primary care.
What is a combination of primary and public health care that is accessible to individuals and families in a community and provided at an affordable cost? Primary health care.
What is health-promoting behaviors or activities that reduce the occurrence of an illness? Primary prevention.
What is community and interdisciplinary care aimed at preventing disease and promoting health? Public health.
What is early diagnosis and treatment of illness (like screening for hypertension)? Secondary prevention.
What is care that prevents further progression of disease? Tertiary prevention.
The following are examples of what health care service: Prenatal care, well-baby care, nutrition counseling, family planning,a nd exercise classes? Primary care (Health Promotion).
The following are examples of what health care service: Blood pressure and cancer screening, immunizations, poison control information, mental health counseling and crisis prevention, community legislation (seat belts, air bags, bike helmets)? Preventive care.
The following are examples of what health care service: emergency care, acute medical-surgical care, radiological procedures? Secondary acute care.
The following are examples of what health care service: Intensive care, subacute care? Tertiary care.
The following are examples of what health care service: Cardiovascular and pulmonary rehabilitation, sports medicine, spinal cord injury programs, home care? Restorative care.
The following are examples of what health care service: Assisted living, psychiatric and older day care? Continuing care.
In what settings would a patient receive primary care? Schools, physician offices, occupational health clinics, and nursing centers.
What's the difference between "primary care" and "primary health care"? Primary care: focuses on health services provided on an individual basis.Primary Health Care: forcuses on improved health outcomes for an entire population.
What are the two most common services used (traditionally) in the health care delivery system? The diagnosis and treatment of illness.
Now, what is the most common and expensive service of the health delivery system? Disease management.
The acute and chronically represent about 20% of the people in the United States. ABout how much health care spending do they represent? 80%.
What is the fastest-growing age group of uninsured citizens? 19-29 (young adults).
Name some reasons why health care for the young adults is especially important. This age group has a high incidence of obesity, pregnancy, HIV, and are less likely to see a doctor on a regular basis and to follow up if they don't have insurance.
What are secondary and tertiary care also called? Acute care.
What type of service is this: Comprehensive programs that include health promotion principles throughout a school's curriculum. School health.
What type of service is this: A comprehensive program designed for health promotion and accident or illness prevention. Occupational health.
What type of service is this: It emphasizes program management, interdisciplinary collaboration, and community health principles. School health.
What type of service is this: The aim is to increase worker production productivity, decrease absenteeism, and reduce the use of expensive medical care. Occupational health.
What type of service is this: Provide primary care (diagnose and treatment). Many focus on health promotion practices. Physicians' offices.
What type of service is this: Nurse-managed clinics provide nursing services with a focus on health promotion and health education, chronic disease assessment management, and support for self-care and caregivers. Nursing centers.
Nurses living within a neighborhood provide services to older clients or those unable to leave their home. Fills in gaps not available in traditional health care system. Block and parish nursing.
What type of service is this: Outpatient clinics that provide primary care to a specific population (well-baby, mental health, diabetes) thatlives in a specific population. Often associated with a hospital, medical school, church, or other community org. Community centers.
What are the sites that provide secondary and tertiary levels of care? Hospital emergency depts, urgent care centers, critical care units, and inpatient medical-surgical units.
What becomes a priority ina busy, stressful location such as the inpatient nursing unit? Client satisfaction.
Because of managed care, the number of days clients can expect to be hospitalized is limited based on their what? DRGs (diagnosis-related groups) upon admission.
What does case management focus on, particularly? Discharge planning.
A case manager is usually one of two professions? Nurse or a social worker.
T/F: A case manager continues caring for clients after discharge from acute care facilities. True, in many settings.
When does discharge planning begin? The moment a client is admitted to a health care facility.
What is a centralized, coordinated, multidisciplinary process that ensures that the client has a plan for continuing care after leaving a health care agency? Discharge planning.
What is a multidisciplinary treatment plan that outlines the treatments or interventions clients need to have while in the hospital for a specific condition or procedure? A critical pathway.
These are examples of what home care service? Sterile dressing changes, debridement, irrigations, packing, and teaching. Wound care.
These are examples of what home care service? Oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, suctioning, and care of tracheotomies. Respiratory care.
These are examples of what home care service? Monitoring blood pressure and cardiopulmonary status; instructing clients and families in measurement. Vital signs.
These are examples of what home care service? Ostomy care, appliance application, skin care, and irrigation, insertion of urinary catheters, home dialysis. Elimination.
These are examples of what home care service? Admin. of tube feedings and enteral feedings, assessment of nutrition and hydration status, instructing families and clients on feedings. Nutrition.
These are examples of what home care service? Ambulation training, use of assistive devices, range-of-motion exercises, and instructing clients and families in transfer techniques. REhabilitation.
These are examples of what home care service? Monitoring compliance, administering injections, and instructing clients and families in drug information, medication preperation, and steps to take in the event of side effects. Medications.
These are examples of what home care service? Admin. of blood products, analgesic and chemo. agents, and long-term hydration, education on IV devices, steps to take in the event of disconnection of accidental fluid infusion, and side effects. Intravenous therapy.
These are examples of what home care service? Blood glucose monitoring (including client and family instruction) and drawing blood for specific diagnostic purposes. Laboratory studies.
List the 9 home care services, per the book. Wound care, respiratory care, vital signs, elimination, nutrition, rehabilitation, medications, intravenous therapy, laboratory studies.
What is the goal of restorative care? To help individuals regain maximal functional status and to enhance quality of life through promotion of independence and self-care.
What are nursing-sensitive outcomes? Client outcomes that are directly related to nursing care.
What is a service that provides short-term relief or time off for persons providing home care to an ill, disabled, or frail older adult? Respite care.
What provide a variety of health and social services to specific client populations who live alone or with family in the comunity? Adult day care centers.
What is a system of family-centered care that allows clients to live and remain at home with comfort, independence, and dignity while easing the pains of terminal illness? Hospice.
List the 7 dimensions of client-centered care. Respect values, preferences, and expressed needs.Coordination and integration of care.Information, communication, and education. Physical comfortEmotional support; relief of fear and anxietyInvolvement of family, friendsTransition & continuity
What are considered the vulnerable populations most threatened by urbanization? Children, women, and older adults.
What are stressors? Disruptive forces.
What do we call how people interpret the impact of stressors? Appraisal.
When stress overwhelems a person's existing coping mechanisms, what occurs? A crisis.
What do we call the reaction that prepares a person for action by increasing heart rate, diverting blood from GI tractto brain and striated muscles, and increasing BP, RR, and blood sugar levels? The fight-or-flight response.
What are the 3 structures that guide the neurophysiological response through negative feedback? Medulla oblongata, reticular formation, and pituitary gland.
What structure controls heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration? The medulla oblongata.
What structure, a small cluster of neurons in the brain stem and spinal cord, monitors the physiological status of the body through the sensory and motor tracts? The reticular formation.
What hormone does the pituitary gland produce? ACTH.
What does ACTH produce? Cortisol.
The pituitary gland also regulates the secretion of what 3 hormones? The thyroid, gonadal, and parathyroid hormones.
What are the 3 stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome? Alarm reaction, resistance stage, and exhaustion stage.
What are the components of the alarm reaction? An increase in blood volume, blood glucose levels, epinephrine and norepinephrine, heart rate blood flow to muscles, oxygen intake and mental alertness.
The pituitary gland also regulates the secretion of what 3 hormones? The thyroid, gonadal, and parathyroid hormones.
What are the 3 stages of the General Adaptation Syndrome? Alarm reaction, resistance stage, and exhaustion stage.
What are the components of the alarm reaction? An increase in blood volume, blood glucose levels, epinephrine and norepinephrine, heart rate blood flow to muscles, oxygen intake and mental alertness.
T?F: In the resistance stage, the body stabilizes and responds ina manner directly opposite to that of the alarm stage. True.
What are the effects of the resistance stage? Hormone levels, blood pressure, and cardiac output return to normal and the body begins to repair damage.
What happens during the exhaustion stage? The body is no longer able to resist the effects of stressor and the struggle to maintain adaptation drains all available energy.
How does the physiological response to stress include immunological responses? The immune system recognizes bacteria as a threat and attacks them.
The Geral Adaptation SYndrome (GAS) involves what 2 body systems? The autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system.
What effect do endorphin hormones have on the body? They act like morphine and opiates, which produce a sense of well-being.
Compensation, Conversion, Denial, Displacement, Identification, Dissociation, and REgression are all examples of what? Ego defense mechanisms.
What do we call motivating energy, such as happiness, hopefulness, and purposeful movement? Eustress.
What is an acute stress disorder that begins when a person experiences, witnesses or is confronted with a traumatic event? Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
What is distress? Damaging stress.
Where do situational factors of stress come from? Job changes, illnessm caregiver stress.
What is meant by maturational factors of stress? Types of stress vary across the lifespan.
What are sociocultural factors? Environmental and social stressors perceived by children, adolescents, and adults.
What is an essential part of the evaluation process? Collaborating with patients to determine if their goals have beenn met.
What is a specific type of brief psychotherapy with prescribed steps? Crisis intervention.
What is the basic approach to crisis intervention? Problem solving and focusing only on the problem presented by the crisis.
Primary, Secondary, or Tertiary Prevention? True prevention; preceded illness or dysfunction and is applied to clients considered physically and emotionally healthy. Primary.
Primary, Secondary, or Tertiary Prevention? It focuses on individuals who are experiencing health problems or illnesses and who are at risk for developing complications or worsening conditions. Secondary.
Primary, Secondary, or Tertiary Prevention? Activities are directed at diagnosis and prompt intervention, thereby reducing severity and enabling the client to return to a normal level of health as soon as possible. Secondary.
Primary, Secondary, or Tertiary Prevention? This occurs when a defect or disability is permanent and irreversible. It involves minimizing the effects of a long-term disease or disability by interventions aimed at preventing complications & deterioration. Tertiary.
What is the bottom level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? Physiological needs.
What does Maslow's physiological needs level include? Oxygen, Fluids, Nutrition, Body Temperature, Elimination, Shelter, Sex.
T/F: In all cases, an emergent physiological need takes precedence over a higher-level need on Maslow's hierarchy. True.
What level is just above the physiological needs on Maslow's hierarchy? Safety and security.
What does the Safety & Security tier on Maslow's hierarchy include? Physical safety and psychological safety.
On Maslow's hierarchy, what tier is just above the Safety & Security tier? Love & Belonging Needs.
On Maslow's hierarchy, what is just above the Love & Belonging Needs tier? Self-Esteem.
What is at the very top of Maslow's hierarchy of needs? Self-actualization.
Name Maslow's hierarchy of needs from the bottom up. Physiological. Safety & Security. Love and Belonging Needs. Self-Esteem. Self-Actualization.
Name two passive strategies of health promotion. Fluoridating the municipal water supply and the fortification of homogenized milk with vitamin D.
Would implementing a mandatory exercise program through the school be an example of passive strategy for health promotion? No; it would require effort, so it's not passive.
What do we call the tendency to hold one's own way of life as superior to others? Ethnocentrism.
What is the goal of transcultural nursing? Culturally congruent care, or care that fits the person's valued life patterns and set of meanings.
What is culturally competent care? The ability of the nurse to bridge cultural gaps in caring, work with cultural differences, and enable clients and families to achieve meaningful and supportive caring.
What is cultural imposition? Using the caretaker's own values and lifesyle as the absolute guide in dealing with clients and interpreting their behaviors.
What do personalistic practitioners believe causes health and illness? An external agent, which can be human (sorcerer), or nonhuman (ghosts, evil, deity).
Created by: freeflyrese
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