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The thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity
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An example of a flat bone
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ch 11 12 & 13
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity | endosteum |
| An example of a flat bone | sternum |
| The shaft of the long bone | Diaphysis |
| An example of the long bone | Femur |
| The thin layer the cushions jolts and blows | Articular cartilage |
| An example of a sesamoid bone | Patella |
| an attachment for muscle fibers | Periosteum |
| an example of a short bone | carpal |
| the end of a long bone | epiphysis |
| the tube-like, hollow space in the diaphysis of long bones | medullary cavity |
| an example of an irregular bone | vertebra |
| what are three components of bone matrix? | inorganic salts, organic matrix, and collagenous fibers |
| small spaces in which bone cells lie are called: | lacunae |
| the basic structural unit of compact bone is: | osteon |
| the cells that produce the organic matrix in bone are: | osteoblasts |
| the bones in an adult that contain red marrow include: | ribs, pelvis, and femur |
| low blood calcium evokes a response from: | parathyroid hormone |
| the primary ossification center is located at the: | diaphysis |
| the primary purpose of the epiphyseal plate is: | lengthening the long bones |
| the epiphyseal plate is composed mostly of: | chondrocytes |
| bone loss normally begins to exceed bone gain between the ages of: | 35 and 40 years |
| the first step to healing a bone fracture is: | fracture hematoma formation |
| the fibrous covering of cartilage is: | perichondrium |
| The external ear, epiglottis, and the auditory tube are composed of: | elastic cartilage |
| vitamin D deficiency can result in: | rickets |
| _____ is the most common primary malignant tumor of skeletal tissue | osteosarcoma |
| _____ is a common bone disease often occurring in postmenopausal woman and manifesting symptoms of porous, brittle, and fragile bones | osteoporosis |
| _____ is also known as osteitis deformans | pagets diesase |
| _____is a bacterial infection of the bone and marrow tissue | osteomyelitis |
| ch 12. what division of the skeleton is the coccyx | Axial skeleton |
| what division of the skeleton are the 80 bones | Axial Skeleton |
| what division of the skeleton are the 126 bones | Appedendicular Skeleton |
| what division of the skeleton are the vertebral columns | Axial Skeleton |
| what division of the skeleton are the carpals | Appendicular Skeleton |
| what division of the skeleton is the scapula | Appendicular Skeleton |
| what division of the skeleton are the auditory ossicles (ear bones) | Axial Skeleton |
| what division of the skeleton is the shoulder girdle | Appednicular Skeleton |
| what division of the skeleton is the skull | Axial Skeleton |
| what division of the skeleton are the clavicles | Appendicular Skeleton |
| the squamous structure connects which two bones? | temporal and sphenoid |
| the mastoid sinuses are found in which bone? | temporal |
| the skull bone that articulates with the first cervical vertebrae is the: | occipital |
| the meatus can be described as a: | tubelike opening or channel |
| separation of the nasal and cranial cavities is achieved by the: | cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone |
| what are three bones of the orbit? | ehmoid, lacrimal and frontal |
| what are markings on facial bones? | mental foraman, sinus, and cornoid process |
| the palatine process: | forms part of the hard palate |
| the foundation of keystone in the architecture of the face is the: | maxillae |
| the shape of the nose is formed by the nasal bones and the: | septal cartilage |
| what three markings appear on the mandible? | condylar process, ramus, and alveolar |
| lamina is a posterior portion of the: | vertabra |
| What are three parts of the vertebral column? | cervical, thoracic, and lumbar |
| the dens projects from the body of the: | second vetebra |
| the veretbral column is curved: | to increase the carrying strength of the column |
| the first cervical vertebra is known as the: | atlas |
| _____ first seven pairs of ribs that attach directly to the sternum | true ribs |
| _____ eleventh and twelth ribs, which have no attachment to the sternum | floating ribs |
| _____ middle part of the sternum | body |
| most superior part of the sternum | manubrium kyphosis |
| the blunt, cartilaginous, lower tip of the sternum | xiphoid process |
| _____ the five pairs of ribs that do not attach directly to the sternum | false ribs |
| _____tissue that attaches ribs directly or indirectly to the sternum | costal cartilage |
| another name for "hunchback" is: | kyphosis |
| what abnromal curvatures can interfere with breathing, posture, and other vital functions | scoliosis, lordosis, and kyphosis |
| Mastoidditis involves the: | temporal bone |
| otits media is usually treated with: | antibiotics |
| ch 13. Name two parts of the shoulder girdle | clavical, and scapula |
| the coronoid fossa is a: | depression on the humerus |
| the arm socket is the: | glednoid cavity |
| the bone on the thumb side of the forearm is the: | radius |
| of the 5 metacarpal bones, which forms the most freely movable joint with the carpal bones? | thumb |
| which two bones compose the should gridle? | clavical and scapula |
| what is not a bone of the pelvic gridle | acetabululm |
| the greater trochanter is a bony landmark of the: | femur |
| during childbirth the infant passes through an imanginary plane called the: | pelivic outlet |
| what are three tarsal bones? | talus, cuneiform, and navicular |
| the strongest and lowermost portion of the coxal bones is the: | ischium |
| _____ elongated forehead for appropriate gender | female skeleton |
| _____ small pelvic inlet for appropriate gender | male skeleton |
| _____ subpubic pelvic inlet appropriate gender | male skeleton |
| _____ more massive muscle attachement sites appropriate gender | male skeleton |
| _____ more moveable coccyx appropriate gender | female skeleton |
Created by:
alucero