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UAB Patho Final Exam
UABSON Pathophysiology Final Exam
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The damage observed and resulting from a disease process is known as | injury |
| What type of necrosis is discolored, clearly defined and caused by hypoxic (low oxygen) injury? | coagulative necrosis |
| 5 classical signs associated with inflammation | Heat, Pain, Swelling, Loss of Function and Redness |
| What adaptation occurs from overuse or excessive work demand? | Hypertrophy and/or Hyperplasia |
| What neural center is directly responsible for the activation of fight or flight stress reflexes? | hypothalamic brain |
| Which WBC if rapidly lost or fails to be produced will result in a severe form of Combinational Immunodeficiency? | helper T-lymphocyte |
| 3 cell structures commonly injured | Proteins, genetic material, plasma membrane |
| What blood proteins work with IgG antibodies to lyse cell membranes and bacterial walls? | complement |
| Chronic stress produces sustained high blood pressure. What organs are most likely being damaged by this excessive pressure? | Blood vessels, heart, and kidney organs |
| 7 chemical signals controlling the stress physiology? | CRH, ACTH, Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, Cortisol, Vasopressin, Aldosterone |
| The human major histocompatability complex (MHC) is found in two forms, Type I and Type II. Which MHC type is an "alarm-battle flag" signal that the body has a foreign invader? | type II |
| Denaturation and proteolytic injury can damage: | membrane transport and exchange, genetic organization and gene coding, enzymes and control over metabolic processes, tissue organization and stable attachment |
| Cell conversions are common with chronic irritation. What are the negative conversions seen with irritating stress? | Metaplasia - Dysplasia - Neoplasia |
| What gangrene type occurs with severe hypothermia or arterial blockages? | dry gangrene |
| What is acute injury? | Acute injury has a rapid rise in intensity, activates immune processes, and must be resolved or death occurs |
| What are the early physiological changes in acute stress that become detrimental in chronic stress? | Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and immunosuppression |
| Accumulations of lipid and cholesterol is a mechanism of injury to the: | cell membranes |
| What chemical is released from mast and macrophage cells (phagocytes) in response to tissue injury, resulting in the vascular changes observed with inflammation? | histamine |
| What kind of cyclical, feedback loop occurs with disease processes? | positive feedback loop |
| A disease's pathogenesis identifies the: | detrimental process occurring over time |
| What events are required for full B-lymphocyte activation and a humoral immune response? | Antibody-Antigen complex and T-helper cytokine signals |
| Which immune defense protects from the specific threat created out of self cells loosing self identity? | cell mediated defense (cytotoxic T-lymphocyte) |
| Which is a powerful initiator of the apoptotic death program? | DNA fragmentation injury |
| Diseases grouped because they all limit movement are being compared by their common: | manifestation |
| Some viruses, radiation, free radicals, or inherited defects disrupt or damage the | genetic programming |
| Wellness is achievable by continual, physiological maintenance required to maintain: | homeostasis |
| Major characteristics of an autosomal dominant genetic disorder are: | affected individuals usually have an affected parent |
| An example of an autosomal recessive disorder is | cystic fibrosis |
| Sex-linked disorders are due to a mutation of: | X-chromosome |
| What are early signs and/or symptoms associated with an HIV infection? | flu-like symptoms |
| A positive TB test reaction on the skin is an example of which type of a hypersensitivity reaction? | type IV |
| A hyperacute graft reaction is what type of hypersensitivity reaction? | type II |
| Heat thermotherapy should be used: | 72 hours after injury |
| The normal human genome consists of 23 pairs of chromosomes, 22 of which are: | autosomes |
| Familial hypercholesterolemia has which mode of inheritance | autosomal dominant |
| one of two or more alternative forms of a gene located at the same site of a homologous chromosome | alleles |
| Two weeks after a kidney transplant your patient rejects their new kidney. This reactions was likely because of a(n): | type II hypersensitivity |
| A positive HIV antibody test indicates that the individual is: | infected with HIV and likely so for life. |
| Systemic manifestations that a HIV positive person's immune system has failed may reveal opportunistic infections of the skin by: | Kaposi Sarcoma |
| Damage in systemic lupus erythematous (SLE) results from the formation of antigen/antibody complexes mediated by: | the humoral immune system and complement |
| Gate theory proposes that information flowing down descending inhibitory pathways from higher brain centers closes the gate. True or false. | True |
| Medications used to manage patients with HIV/AIDS are aimed at: | delaying the progression and reducing resistance |
| Which are the three cardinal symptoms of Parkinson's Disease (PD)? | Resting tremor, Bradykinesia and Muscle rigidity |
| When counseling a family member who is serving as a caregiver for a patient diagnosed with Parkinson's disease (PD) the nurse should? | Advise the family to cut food in small pieces due to the common difficulty in chewing. |
| WHERE DOES THE PROBLEM IN GRAVE’S DISEASE EXIST? | Thyroid gland |
| COLD NODULES ON A RADIOACTIVE IODINE SCAN ARE INDICATIVE OF? | Hashimoto’s |
| WHICH HORMONE LIST IS REGULATING BLOOD PRESSURE? | Epinephrine, Vasopressin, Aldosterone, Angiotensin II |
| THYROID STORM IS A MEDICAL EMERGENY B/C IT CAN LEAD TO | Cardiac dysrhythmias |
| ELEVATED PITUITARY TSH PUFFINESS AROUND THE EYES, HOARSNESS IN THE VOICE AND PIN IN THE NECK WOULD INDICATE | Hypothyroidism (not enough t3, t4) |
| ENDOCRINE ORGAN THAT FAILS TO PRODUCE ACTIVE HORMONE MANIFEST AS | Hyposecretory pathology |
| GOITER IS MOST ASSOCIATED WITH | Thyroid dysfunction |
| WHICH THYROID PATHOLOGY IS SYMPTOMATIC OF PATIENTS WITH HEAT INTOLERANCE | Grave’s disease |
| FUNCTIONS OF THE KIDNEY INCLUDE: | Fluid volume and BP regulation, Plasma filtration, nutrient reabsoption, waste secretion, RBC and urine production, Acid-Base/Electrolyte Balance |
| ACTIVATION OF THE RENIN-ANGIOTENSIN SYSTEM WILL | Increase GFR |
| WHAT ION IS MOST IMPORTANT FOR REABSORPTION WORK IN THE PROXIMAL TUBULE? | Sodium |
| AT WHAT PERCENTAGE OF NEPHRITIC DMAGE DOES RENAL SUFFICIENCY OCCUR? | 75-90% nephritic loss |
| A RAPID INCREASE IN BUN VALUE (GREATER THAN 20) WOULD INDICATE | Reduced GFR |
| WHAT IS THE MOST IMPORTANT MEASUREMENT FOR STAGING CHRONIC RENAL FAILURE | Glomerular Filtration Rate |
| WHAT DOES ALDOSTERONE HORMONE CAUSE THE KIDNEY TO DO? | Reabsorb more sodium |
| 60-65% OF ALL BODILY WATER IS FOUND IN THE | Intracellular compartment |
| HYPOTENSION, RAPID WEIGHT LOSS, AND THE POSSIBILITY OF HYPOVOLEMIC SHOCK ARE COMMON MANIFESTATIONS OF | Fluid volume deficiency |
| WHICH TISSUES ARE MOST AFFECTED BY AN IMBALANCE OF POTASSIUM? | Muscle tissue and nervous tissues |
| A HYPEROSMOTIC CONDITION CAN BE CAUSED FROM | Restricted water intake |
| HYPONATREMIC CONDITION WILL MANIFEST AS | Hydrophobic swelling of the cells, diffuse edema, central nervous system dysfunction, dilute urine output |
| IRRADIATION OF THE THYROID OR SURGICAL REMOVAL WOULD PRODUCE A SECONDARY ELECTROLYTE DEFICIENCY FOR | Calcium |
| WHICH CONDITION WILL CAUSE FLUIDS TO MOVE INTO THE VASCULAR COMPARTMENT | Hyperproteinemia |
| HYPERTRIGLYCERIDEMIA MAY PREDISPOSE A PATIENT TO WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING | Acute pancreatitis |
| WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CLINICAL FINDINGS IS NOT USUALLY ASSOCIATED WITH TYPE 2 DIABETES MELLITUS | Ketones |
| A SERUM SODIUM OF 149 MG/DL IS: | Excessive |
| Measurement of C-peptide protein is a test to determine beta cells ability to produce: | Insulin |
| Ketoacidosis is associated with: | Starvation |
| The process of glucose production in the liver from a non-carbohydrate source is known as: | Gluconeogenesis |
| Which individual would be labeled as having diabetes mellitus according to ADA criteria: | 50 year old asymptomatic male with fasting glucose levels of 138 mg and 146 mg |
| What are clinical symptoms of metabolic syndrome: | Hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and central obesity |
| Glycosylated hemoglobin A1C is a: | Repeat blood glucose concentration test within a defined time period. |
| Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is commonly caused by: | Obesity |
| At the time of diagnosis beta cell function related to Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is: | 90% reduced and leading to a diminished response to hyperglycemia. |
| Which lab value raises suspicion of Diabetes Mellitus: | Fasting lab values > 126, Random glucose level >200, 2 hours glucose tolerance test of 200 |
| What precipitates the development of Diabetic Ketoacidosis: | Illness or infection |
| ABG: ph - 7, pO2 – 59, pCO2 – 86, HCO3 – 14 | Metabolic and respiratory acidosis with hypoxemia |
| What clinical finding is associated with hypoglycemia: | Tremors |
| What is a common manifestation of liver disease: | Jaundice |
| Esophageal varices present in liver disease are attributed to: | Portal Hypertension |
| Hepatitis B is transmitted via: | Blood and Semen |
| Increased blood ammonia levels due to liver disease are attributed to: | Hepatic Encephalopathy |
| Kernicterus is defined as: | Brain injury secondary to high serum bilirubin |
| Coffee ground like emesis is associated with: | Gastric GI bleeding |
| An early indicator of colon cancer includes: | Change in bowel habits |
| Chronic pancreatitis can cause: | Diabetes Mellitus |
| ABG: ph – 7.28, pO2 – 43, pCO2 – 88, HCO3 – 20 | Uncompensated metabolic acidosis |
| ABG: ph – 7.46, pO2 – 42, pCO2 – 86, HCO3 – 29 | Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis |
| Which test would a nurse anticipate for anemia: | Stool for occult blood |
| History of burning epigastric pain relieved by meals is indicative of: | Peptic ulcer |
| Acute right lower quadrant pain is indicative of: | Appendicitis |
| Chancre painless single ulcer < 1cm | T. Pallidum (Syphillis) |
| Acute pyelonephritis would be associated with: | Flank pain |
| Which organism is commonly associated with acute pyelonephritis: | E. Coli |
| Which sign is consistent with a diagnosis of chronic kidney disease: | Proteinuria |
| Mildy, but elevated BUN & Creatine indicates: | Renal insufficiency |
| The most likely cause of anemia in patient with chronic renal failure: | Insufficient erythropoietin |
| Painful sores on a genital region, grouped fluid-filled vesicles < 1cm: | Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV 2) |
| Common sexually transmitted disease related to pelvic inflammatory disease: | Gonorrhea |
| Women under the age of 25 are at greatest risk for: | Chlamydia |
| A hypersensitivity reaction that occurs within minutes of exposure to an antigen is a: | type I |
| What are 2 examples of a type II autoimmune disease? | Grave's disease and myasthenia gravis |
| In the treatment of HIV, these drugs prevent viral maturation: | protease inhibitors |
| A loss of self-tolerance that leads to production of antibodies or T-cells that react against one’s own antigens is: | autoimmune disease |
| Males and females are affected equally by autosomal dominant gene disorders. True or False. | true |
| A TB test, poison ivy, metals, and latex can all cause a: | type IV reaction |
| Mutants that are resistant to HIV infection include(s): | CXCR4 and CCR5 |
| The primary difference between HIV and AIDS is: | HIV is a disease and AIDS is a syndrome |
| The process of HIV by which viral RNA is converted into DNA is called: | reverse transcription |
| When antigens combine with IgE antibodies, it is a: | type I reaction |
| Hemolytic disease of newborns occurs when: | fetal cells are destroyed by maternal anti-Rh antibodies that cross the placenta |
| Histamine, prostaglandin, leukotriene are examples of mediators released for: | type I reaction |
| A delayed hypersensitivity by one or more days due to migration of macrophages and T-cells to the site of foreign antigens is a: | type IV reaction |
| An immune complex reaction that involves reactions against soluble antigens circulating in serum is a: | type III reaction |
| Increasing the level of ________ in the CNS in order to slow the progression of the disease and manage the symptoms is the mainstay goal of Parkinson’s disease. | dopamine |
| A failure of muscular coordination that causes disturbances in posture and gait in Parkinson’s disease is: | ataxia |
| A cell-mediated hypersensitivity reaction is a: | type IV |
| Genotype refers to a specific set of gene alleles an individual possesses. True or false. | true |
| An ABO blood transfusion reaction is an example of a: | type II reaction |
| When antigens combine with IgA antibodies and antigen-antibody immune complexes are deposited in organs, activate complement, and cause inflammatory damage, it is a: | type III reaction |
| All but which one of the following processes injure genetic material: | compression |
| Frameshift mutation usually causes single base pair substitution. True or false. | false |
| An Rh blood transfusion reaction is an example of a: | type II reaction |
| All but which one of the following are processes that injure proteins: | emulsification |
| Crowding/accumulation is an injurious mechanism on | membranes |
| Prostaglandins cause the contraction of smooth muscle of the respiratory system and increased mucus secretion. True or false. | true |
| A cytotoxic reaction is a: | type II reaction |
| Systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis are both examples of: | type III autoimmune disorder |
| Coreceptors are required for HIV infection. True or false. | true |
| The “on-off” phenomenon of levodopa drug therapy in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is: | when the action of the drug completely stops and the patient is left with a sudden onset of symptoms |
| Polygenic disorders follow predictable patterns of inheritance. True or false. | false |
| Turner syndrome and Klinefelter syndrome are examples of sex chromosome disorders. True or false. | true |
| The level of neuronal degeneration that has already occurred once symptoms of Parkinson’s disease appear is: | 75-80% |
| A codon is a series of four nucleotides that code for an amino acid. True or false. | false |
| The absence of Y-chromosome results in a female phenotype. True or false. | true |
| Fast pain that travels on myelinated AB fibers is the result of what kind of stimuli: | mechanical |
| Skin itching, redness, swelling, and pain is most likely to occur as the result of a: | type IV reaction |
| There are 20 amino acids in a protein. True or false. | true |
| DNA sequences of homologous chromosomes are identical. True or false. | false |
| The type of hypersensitivity associated with organ rejection is: | type II |
| Type I diabetes is a: | type IV reaction |
| All but which one of the following are processes that injure membranes: | mutation |
| The human genome has 46 chromosomes. True or false. | true |
| Slow pain signals that travel on unmyelinated C-fibers are the result of what kind of stimulus: | mechanical, thermal, and chemical |
| DNA nucleotide bases are C, G, T, and U. True or false. | false |
| In a type I hypersensitivity, IgE antibody binds to what in order to cause degranulation and the release of several mediators: | mast cells and basophils |
| An allele is a gene mutation. True or false. | false |
| In which disease do antibodies attach to receptors on the thyroid gland and stimulate production of thyroid hormone: | Grave's disease |
| Which type of hypersensitivity involves Td memory cells in which the first contact with an antigen sensitizes the person and subsequent exposure elicits a response: | type IV reaction |
| A disease characterized by progressive muscle weakness due to antibodies blocking acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular synapse is: | myasthenia gravis |
| A disease in which autoantibodies react against DNA, blood cells, neurons, and other tissues causing inflammation that interferes with normal function and often results in death due to kidney damage is: | SLE |
| A hypersensitivity reaction that causes the activation of complement by IgG or IgM binding to an antigenic cell and causing the antigenic cell to be lysed is a: | type II reaction |
| Nausea and hypotension are common side effects of Parkinson’s disease drug therapy due to: | the metabolism of levodopa into dopamine outside the CNS before it is converted to adrenaline then into nonadrenaline |
| Anaphylactic shock is a massive drop in blood pressure that can be fatal within minutes and is associated with what type(s) of hypersensitivity: | type I & IV reactions |
| Most illness and death in the later stages of AIDS are caused by: | GI disease |
| An autoimmune reaction that involves antibody reactions to cell surface molecules without cytotoxic destruction of cells is a: | type II reaction |
| normal or compensated pH | 7.35-7.45 |
| acidosis pH | less than 7.35 |
| alkalosis pH | greater than 7.45 |
| normal or compensated PaCO2 | 35-45 |
| alkalosis PaCO2 | less than 35 |
| acidosis PaCO2 | greater than 45 |
| normal HCO3 | 22-26 |
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