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REHS: All Categories

REHS Sample Questions

What is the most common mosquito borne disease in the USA today? Encephalitis
What is the primary vector and the infectious agent for Eastern Equine Encephalitis? Culiseta species mosquito; Viral
What is the primary vector for St. Louis Encephalitis, Western Equine Encephalitis, and West Nile Virus? Culex species mosquito
Name the disease caused by Borrelian burgdorferi, symptoms, the wound type, & incubation period. Lyme Disease(meningopolyneuritis);Wound: red spot or bump expanding annularly to ring/bulls eye pattern from tick bite(vector found on Deer, wild rodents); Incubation: 3 to 32 days; fever, fatigue, headache, chronic stiff/painful muscles & joints
What is the primary vector, reservoir & incubation period for Yellow Fever? Mode of transmission (vector):Aedes species mosquito; Rsvr: Humans, Aedes aegypti, monkeys; Incubation:3-6 Days.
What are the primary vectors for Endemic (Murine) Typhus, Epidemic Typhus, and Scrub Typhus? Endemic: Rat flea, Xenopsylla cheopis; Epidmemic: Body lice, Pediculus humanus; Scrub: bite of infected larval mites
Name the specific agent responsible for Endemic Typhus, Epidemic Typhus, and Scrub Typhus. Endemic: Rickettsia typhi (R. mouseri); Epidemic: Rickettsia prowazeki; Scrub: Rickettsia tsutsugamushi
Which vertebrates can transmit rabies to human? Which 2 species are the most important reservoir hosts? What is typical incubation in humans? Raccoon, skunks, bats, foxes, dogs, cats, coyotes; Primary reservoir host = bats (from bite or inhaling urine); Secondary reservoir host = skunks; 3-8 weeks
What is the bird dieases that affects man? Ornithosis
What does a positive blue ring test in milk indicate? Brucellosis
What disease is commonly contracted by veterinarians and workers who handle animal hides and animal hair/wool? Name the agent,it's characteristics, & othr resvr. Anthrax (bacillus anthracis); a spore-forming bacteria, spores do not survive thorough cooking but do survive dryness many years; also found in soil & invades bones of animals so in dry bone meal.
Name the protozoan parasites responsible for causing Malaria in humans. Which is more dangerous? Plasmodium falciparum (more dangerous), P. vivax, P. malariae, P. ovale
Name the spirochete responsible for causing Lyme Disease. What is the primary vector for this disease? Borrelia burgdorferi; Ixodes pacificus in californa(hard-bodied tick); Ixodes dammini in East & midwest U.S.
Name the spirochete responsible for causing Relapsing Fever. What is the primary vector for this disease? Borrelia hermsi; Ornithodoros hermsi (soft-bodied tick)
What part of the body does Typhoid Fever affect? Circulatory system
What disease is caused by water or food contaminated with rat urine or feces? Leptospirosis
How does the hookworm usually enter the body? Skin (e.g. walking barefoot)
What disease is caused by the black fly? Onchocerciasis (River blindness)
What are some fecal-oral transmitted diseases? Shigella, Cholera, Gastroenteritis, Giardia, Cryptosporidiosis, Typhoid Fever, Infectious Hepatitis, Leptospirosis, Amebiasis
What ionizing radiation is stopped by paper? Alpha Radiation
What non-ionizing radiation penetrates and heats internal body tissues? Microwave Radiation
What is used to raise the pH of swimming pools? Soda ash (NaCO3) or Caustic soda (NaOH).
What type of bonds do hydrocarbons consist of? Hydrogen and Carbon
What are 2 important factors of noise? Frequency and Duration
What are 2 treatments for rabies and how often must they be administered? DEV (Duck embryo vaccine), or RIG (Rabies Immune Globulin); An injection in the abdomen for 14 consecutive days.
What non-ionizing radiation penetrates and heats internal body tissue? Microwaves, but heat injuries from microwave radiation can only be caused by exposure to large amounts of microwave radiation, much more than you would get from a household microwave.
What disease may result if small particles are inhaled from grindings? Silicosis
In regards to USTs, what is the purpose of interstitial monitoring? To detect the presence of fluid between the primary and secondary containment
In regards to USTs, how long does the local agency have to notify the tank owner that a red tag has been issued? 24 hours
An automatic shut-off device must stop the flow into the UST when _____ The tank is filled to no more than 95% capacity
All UST facilities in the state of CA were required to identify in writing a Designated Operator by what date? January 1, 2005
For USTs, under dispenser containment was required at the time of installation for all systems installed after what date? December 31, 2003
Define "Underground Storage Tank" Underground storage tank, connected piping, ancillary equipment, and containment systems (if any). An UST is a tank and any underground piping connected to the tank that has at least 10 percent of its combined volume underground.
How do microwave ovens work? By producing electromag. radiation of a specific wavelength to excite water molec. When water molec become excited, they heat up. Since most of our food contains a fair amount of water, we can heat up our food by heating up the water inside the food.
Per Cal Code, lighting in the food prep area is required to have a minimum of ____ . 10 foot candles
Per Cal Code, lighting for cleaning activities is required at a minimum of ____. 20 foot candles
What does good visibility depend on? The contrast between the objects and the background. Good contrast is any ratio between 60% and 80%.
Define specular reflection. Too much specular reflection causes what? Reflection from a smooth surface, in which the light ray leaves at the same angle at which it came in. A light source that causes too much specular reflection results in a GLARE.
Shadows Sharp, dense shadows produced by light from a strong direct source (e.g. sun).
Diffused light Light, such as reflected light from a light colored wall, which produces soft shadows.
Highly diffused light Light, such as an overcast or cloudy day, which produces little to no shadows.
Direct lighting Lighting that distributes 90 to 100 percent of the emitted light in the general direction of the surface to be illuminated.
Direct-Indirect lighting Lighting that is mixed from direct sources and indirect reflection. Light is distributed equally in all directions.
Indirect lighting 90% to 100% of the light is directed towards the ceiling and upper side walls. The light is reflected to all parts of the room.
Semi-indirect lighting 60% to 90% of the light is directed to the ceiling and the upper walls, while dense diffusing glass allows some of the light to pass through indirectly downwards.
What type of lighting is best for studying purposes? Direct-Indirect lighting
What type of lighting is best for the work environment? A combination of diffused and direct light.
How does fluorescent light work? A high voltage electric current goes through a mercury vapor and produces an arc. The arcing produces UV light from the mercury vapor and the UV light excites the fluorescent chemicals which coat the inside of the tube producing the light.
How do fluorescent lights benefit the air quality? They provide the air with negative ions, which tend to bind to particle pollutants in the air, causing them to fall out. Negative ions are usually formed in high sunlit areas, such as beaches and mountains.
What is the leading cause of accidental death? Automobile accidents
What is the leading cause of accidental death in homes? Falls
What is the leading cause of accidental death in the workplace? Fire and Explosion
Windchill can cause what health effects? Cold Stress, Frostbite, and Hypothermia
Define high altitude. Any elevation above 5,280 ft (or 1mi high)above sea level. 5280 ft = 40% to 45% less oxygen. The higher the elevation, the lower the oxygen level.
Heat stroke The result of long, extreme exposure to the sun, in which a person does not sweat enough to lower body temperature.
Heat cramps The result of prolonged exercise in the heat without salt replacement. Musclar pains or spasms due to loss of salt from the body via sweating or due to inadequate intake of salt.
Heat exhaustion A response to heat due to inadequate intake of water to compensate for loss of fluids via sweating.
What is the minimum distance downstream from a sewage out fall? 500 feet
It is okay to swim if you are a minimum of ____ feet upstream from a river or stream sewage out fall. 200 feet
What condition is caused by too much pool disinfectant (e.g. chlorine) in the water? Conjunctivitis (aka. red eye or pink eye)
What diseases are associated with poor sanitary conditions at a bathing place? GI Disturbances, Typhoid, Dysentery, Leptospirosis, Giardia, Crypto, Ringworm, Schistosomiasis, and URIs.
What is the most important factor to consider at a bathing beach? The coliform count or the possible sewage contamination of the bathing waters.
How often should a public pool's filtration system recirculate the water in the pool? Turnover rate of 6 hours (which equals 4 times per day in a 24 hr period)
What is the most common pool filtration element used today? Diatomaceous earth (DE), which is made up of microscopic diatoms.
What is the best chlorine for pools? Hypochlorous chlorine (HOCl); measured as free residual chlorine.
CA State Law requires all public pools to maintain a minimum chlorine residual level of ____ ppm. 1.0 ppm (or greater)
In reality, the residual chlorination levels of a pool should be maintained between ___ to ___ ppm of free residual chlorine. 0.4 to 1.0 ppm
What could happen if the residual chlorine falls below 0.4 ppm? This could result in the production of chloramines.
What are chloramines? Composed of waste product (e.g. ammonia or organic nitrogen); Formed when Cl combines w/ nitrogen or ammonia from urine, sweat, suntan oil, etc; Causes eye/skin irritation; The "Cl" smell is caused by chloramines; aka "combined available chlorine".
What is the ideal pH range for a pool? 7.2 to 7.8
What can you add to an acidic pool in order to raise the pH? Sodium Carbonate (aka. soda ash)
What can you add to a high alkaline pool in order to lower the pH? Hydrochloric acid (aka. muriatic acid); However, it is recommended that fresh water be added to adjust pool water.
What chemical is used to neutralize chlorine? Sodium Thiosulfate
When exposed to the UV rays of the sun, the free chlorine in the pool water will break down and escape.What chemical is used to stablize chlorine? Cyanuric Acid (weak acid)
There are two tests used to detect chlorine in water: 1. measures total residual chlorine (combined + free Cl) but is heat sensitive; 2. measures both combined and total chlorine (free chlorine by deduction)and not heat sensitive. 1. Ortho Test (orthotoluidene); 2. DPD Test (preferred), (diethylphenolindiamine)
What is the minimum pool "deck" area required between the pool and fence? 4 ft.
When using DE filters, what should be done when the pressure gauge reading at the inlet pipe exceeds a 10psi drop in value at the outlet pipe? The outlet pressure should not be reduced to more than a 10 psi difference. When this pressure difference is reached, the DE filter is clogged and backwashing is required to eliminate the residual waste collected on the filter.
Which form of chlorine is the most effective for killing bacteria and disinfecting the pool water? Free available chlorine
Define "Free Available Chlorine". Chlorine existing in water as HOCl (hypochlorous acid) and OCl- (hypochlorite ions). Free available chlorine is the supply of HOCl which remains free to oxidize and sanitize impurities that enter the pool water.
What happens when HOCl combines with impurities in the water? Once HOCl combines with impurities in the water, ammonia, and other organic substances, it is no longer free available chlorine but now forms chloramines.
Define "TDS". Total Dissolved Solids; the measure of the total amount of dissolved material in the water.
What factors could influence the TDS level in a pool? Chemicals added to adjust the pH, Chlorine, Water hardness, Alkalinity, Dust, Dirt, or Human waste.
You get report of a Crypto outbreak at a public pool, which resulted from a fecal accident. 44 people in 5 separate swimmin groups were infected. The Chlorine level is 2.0 ppm. What part of the pool system should you check and why? Since Crypto oocysts are resistant to normal Cl treatment, the filtration system must be capable of removing the oocyst. In this situation, the Crypto outbreak was most likely due to a clogged or broken filtration system (e.g. DE filter).
What does reddish-brown water in a swimming pool indicate? Iron
What does brownish-black water in a swimming pool indicate? Manganese. Brown water could also indicate algae growth.
What does blue-green water in a swimming pool indicate? Copper corrosion. Green water could also indicate algae growth.
Bottles used to sample chlorinated water must be treated with what chemical first? Samples of chlorinated water must be collected in Sodium thiosulfate treated bottles so as to dechlorinate the sample.
When is a lifeguard service required for a public swimming pool? Lifeguard service shall be provided for any public swimming pool that is of wholly artificial construction and for the use of which a direct fee is charged.
What is the maximum water depth for a public wading pool? 18 inches
What is the occupant capacity for a spa/jacuzzi? 1 bather for every 10 square feet of pool water surface area; Surface area of the spa/10.
What is the occupant capacity for a pool? 1 bather for every 20 square feet of pool water surface area; Surface area of the pool/20.
What is the occupant capacity for a wading pool? There is no occupant capacity required for a wading pool.
What is a surface skimmer? A device installed in the wall of a pool that is connected to the suction line of the pump. The suction pulls in water and floating contaminants.
Define "Breakpoint Chlorination". When shock treating, the goal is to reach a high enough level of free Cl to break apart all molecular bonds; specifically the chloramines. Adding enough Cl to achieve this is called breakpoint chlorination. Cl added after that point = free available Cl.
What methods are used to destroy chloramines? Shock treatment or superchlorination.
Define "TOTAL CHLORINE". The sum of combined and free available chlorine levels. With a DPD test kit, DPD1 determines free available chlorine and DPD3 shows total chlorine. The difference, if any, is the level of combined chlorine.
Define "FLOCCULATION". The combination, clumping, or coagulation of suspended particles so that they form small clumps or "lumps" (called floc).
Define "HARD WATER". Water that is high in calcium, magnesium or other salts, which makes it difficult for soap to lather. Hard water also has a tendency to form scale.
Define "ISOCYANURATES". (aka Stablized Cl); A group of chlorine pool sanitizers that contain stabilizer (cyanuric acid or isocyanuric acid) to protect the chlorine from the UV rays of the sun. The most common types are dichlor and trichlor.
What does "ORP" stand for? Oxidation-Reduction Potential; a measurement of the oxidizer's (e.g. chlorine) ability to oxidize contaminants versus the contaminants' (e.g. algae) ability to reduce the oxidizer. It's an indication of the level of free available oxidizer in the water.
What is an oxidizer? Any compound that removes or destroys organic waste and organic compounds in the water.
What is ozone and what is it used for? A molecule containing three atoms of oxygen. It is known to be a very powerful sanitizer. Ozone producing equipment create this molecule by UV radiation or corona discharge generators.
What is phenol red used for? It's a chemical reagent dye used to test pH.
Define "SEQUESTERING AGENT". Also called Chelating Agent. A chemical or compound that combines with dissolved metals or minerals in the water to prevent them from coming out of solution, thus coloring the water or causing stains.
Define "SHOCK TREATMENT". Adding large amounts of an oxidizer such as chlorine, hydrogen peroxide or potassium peroxymonosulfate, to the water to destroy ammonia and nitrogen compounds, chloramines and other contaminants.
Define "SOFT WATER". Water that has a low calcium and/or magnesium content. Soft water can result in the etching of the pool's surfaces, and should be increased with calcium chloride.
Define "SUPERCHLORINATION". Adding 7 - 10 times the normal dose of chlorine to the water to destroy ammonia, nitrogen, chloramines and other contaminants.
Define "TURBIDITY". The cloudy condition of the water due to the presence of extremely fine particles in suspension that are able to pass through the filter. Adding a flocculant or coagulant will clump the particles together so they can be trapped in the filter.
What is a WEIR? aka Skimmer Weir. The small floating door on the side of the skimmer over which water flows on its way to the skimmer. The weir prevents debris from floating back into the pool when the pump is off.
Who is Jacob Riis Veiller? He wrote the Model Housing Code.
Define "Existing UST". An underground storage tank installed prior to January 1, 1984.
Define "New UST". An underground storage tank which is not an existing underground storage tank.
Feces can enter the host digestive system through these most common routes of exposure. 1. Flies, 2. Hands/fingers, 3. Water (untreated/contaminated), 4. Food
Define "Epidemic". The occurrence of a disease, within a community or region, which is clearly more than the normal occurrence or expectancy of the particular disease (ie., depends on the disease itself and its known occurrence); "cluster" of occurrences of a disease
Define "Endemic". A disease or infectious agent in a geographical area (and/or in a particular population) within which the disease or infectious agent is expected to be around to some degree, e.g. the plague. This designation can change if an "outbreak" occurs.
Define "Pandemic". The occurrence of a disease such that it exists throughout a wide geographic area, such as across cities, countries or the world.
Define "Epizootic". Occurrence of disease in animals; humans practically never develop this class of disease.
Define "Zoonosis". Applies to a group of animal diseases that can be transmitted to humans; e.g., rabies.
Define "Epidemiology". The science of the distribution of diseases and the factors that influence the distribution; the discovery of facts about what causes or has caused disease.
Name four key links in preventing intestinal disease infections. Proper employee hygiene; approved food sources; safe food handling; use of good [potable] water.
Define "Infection" and list 4 types (of sources). Occurs when a causative "agent" invades an animal or human host's tissue. Types include: Bacterial (aerobic & anaerobic); Viral; Parasitic (protozoans & worms); Fungal.
Define "Symptom" (in context of a communicable disease). What is the term for diseased persons showing symptoms? a reaction that arises when an infectious agent takes control of a host's tissue and the reaction serves as an indication of a particular disease or disorder. Clinical Cases.
What is the term for diseased hosts who are not yet showing the symptoms of the disease? Subclinical
Define "Carriers." Name types. A host that has been infected with (harbors)a disease but does not show any signs or symptoms (asymptomatic). "Temporary ____" only has the infection when the disease is viable. "Chronic ____" has infection/disease permanently.
Name the four common bacterial "shapes" and size range. Rods (bacillus); round/sphere (cocci); clumps (staph); spiral (spiro/spirali); 0.5 microns to 3 microns
Define "Fomite". A type of disease transmitter that is an inanimate object, e.g., an infected door knob, drinking glass, air, dust.
Name human channels of infection (a.k.a. "routes of infection) 1. Respiratory System (most common), 2. Oral/digestive system (fecal-oral)(2nd most common), 3. Skin (dermatitis), 4. Eyes, 5. Injections (accidental needlesticks, etc.)
Name the organisms that can enter the body by infecting the skin. Staphylococcus aureus; Streptococcus A., Fungi, Trematodes (schistosoma- blood fluke), Nematodes (Hookworms), poisonous plants/animals.
Define "Nosocomial Infections." Name 2 common types. Disease/infection contracted by a patient while under medical care (occurring within 72 hours of admittance to a hospital and not previously present). Examples are Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus infections.
Name 4 common infections by fecal oral route. Shigella, Cholera, Ascariasis, Amoebiasis
What is the function of nasal passages? Part of respiratory system that warms, humidifies, and filters/clears path from inhaling large particles.
What is the function of the windpipe (trachea) and bronchi? Part of respiratory system (upper lung)that contains cilia, which carries the mucous with contaminants up to the esophagus.
What is the function and location of bronchial tubes/bronchioles? Part of middle to lower lung, finally connecting to alveoli. Constricts when irritated and produces coughing or sneezing, which is a clearance mechanism for the human body.
What is the function and location of alveoli? What particle size can reach the alveoli? Air sacs of lower lung with capillaries that absorb O2 into blood. Alveolar macrophage(white cells)remove dust particles and other debris from alveolar spaces -defensive process called phagocytosis. Particles smaller than 0.5 microns can enter alveoli.
Define "Naturally acquired passive immunity." Resistance received from the antibodies of another person/source, in this case from mother to fetus through blood circulation (without additional human interference/external promotion & antibodies not generated by the fetus itself).
Define "Artificially acquired passive immunity." Resistance from an infectious agent gained by innoculation of antibodies from another person or animal serum. The antibodies are not generated by the body of the person to be innoculated.
Define "Artificially-acquired active immunity." Resistance to infection through the body's production of its own antibodies as a reaction to an innoculation of weak or killed infectious agents or its products, such as small pox vaccinations. Memory cells remain to resist future encounters w/same agent.
Define "Naturally acquired active immunity." Resistance to infection through the body's production of its own antibodies as a reaction to getting an infection, as in getting & recovering from the measles or chicken pox. Memory cells remain to resist future encounters w/same agent.
Define "Vaccine." A suspension of attenuated (weakened) or killed micro-organisms capable of inducing serious infection but produce active artificial immunity in this form.
Define "Intrinsic." List intrinsic factors to a host's susceptibility to infection/disease. Age; Gender/sex; Race; Genes/heredity; individual immunologic state. You have no control over these.
Define "Extrinsic." List extrinsic factors to a host's susceptibility to infection/disease (causation). Personal habits, nutrition, psychological stress, social environment. You or your body can have control over these.
List the important 'social environment' factors in disease causation. Religion, culture/customs, socio-economic status, social mobility, occupation, marital status, education, geographic mobility, place of residence.
Give example of a synergistic effect of an environmental factor of disease causation. Roach Router aerosol spray contains relatively non-toxic Pyrethrum, but is mixed with killing compound, piperonyl-butoxide, to make a pesticide compound w/overall greater killing power than each individually.
Define (a.)"Sclerosis" and (b.)"Scleroderma." Hardening of (a.) blood vessels (b.)skin, connective tissue and organs, by excessive growth of fibrous connective tissue, in reaction to chronic exposure to an irritant.
Define "Dermatitis." The most common occupational disease. Skin irritation/inflammation caused by common exposure to chemicals and pollutants.
Explain the difference between "isolation" & "quarantine." Physical separation of diseased person/animal when disease is known, to prevent its spread, vs. separating suspected persons/animals or items that are in question from the immediate environment when the cause of disease is not known & must be proved.
What is the primary vector, infectious agent, reservoir & incubation period for Colorado Tick Fever? Vector:Dermacentor andersoni (Wood Tick)residing on squirrels, chipmunks & wood rats (Reservoir); Virus causes dengue-like symptoms w/o rash; onset 4-5 days with recurring fever after 2-3 more days.
Approximately 70% of liver transplants are due to this disease. List type, common name, incubation & mode of transmission. Hepatitis C or Serum Hepatitis; bloodborne virus;incubation: 45-160 days.
The infectious agent of this disease attacks the liver and is most viable type. List type, common name, viability & mode of transmission. Hepatitis B or Serum Hepatitis; virus can live dry up to 7 days; incubation: 45-160 days; bloodborne
List common name, reservoir, mode of transmission and incubation period for Hepatitis. Infectious type of hepatitis; found in poop of man/primates; vehicle is contaminated food such as milk, cold meats, salads, raw or undercooked oysters/clams/mussels grown near sewage outfalls or from handling with improper hygiene/handwashing; 15-50 days
How is an animal checked for rabies infection? Animal's head is removed; Cross-sectional cut made through brain & spinal column; the presence of "hot heads", or negri bodies, indicates this virus.
What two viral disease types are associated with the symptom of jaundice? What is any easy difference? Hepatitis (A,B &C); and Yellow Fever(togavirus/flavivirus); one is transmitted by fecal-oral or blood, and the other by the Aedes mosquito.
Caused hemorragic fever of renal (kidney) system and death in southwestern Amer. Indian Reservations in early 1990's from reservoir of infected field rodents such as deer mice. Hantavirus
What is the mode of transmission, incubation, symptoms & control for Hantavirus? In aerosolized rodent feces/urine/saliva; incubation 5-42 days; abrupt fever, aches, anorexia/vomiting, kidney disorder; if breathed-fatal w/i 12 hrs; take respiratory dust protection, disinfect w/chlorine bleach for 10-15 min, wipe clean -never sweep.
What is the common name, type of agent, reservoir, primary transmission, incubation period & effect of Psittacosis (Chlamydia psittaci)? Aka -Parrot Fever or Ornithosis; bacteria; parakeets/parrots, pigeons, other birds; direct contact and aerosolized feces,nasal or eye discharges;4-15 days;fever,ache,chills, respiratory infection, can become encephalitic.
Name 3 types of infection? Incubation period for Bacillus anthracis (Anthrax)? Dermal - spores enter skin lesions & progresses into tissues, w/edema (body swells), 2-7 days; Spores can also be inhaled or ingested (gastro-intestinal), both highly fatal; fever, shock in 3-5 days, death shortly thereafter.
How is Bacillus anthracis (anthrax) controlled? Proper washing, disinfection/sterilization of hides, wool & brushes & dust control (heat to 110F, 4 hrs to germinate spores +10% formalin to ); Animal carcasses incinerated then buried w/anhydrous calcium oxide (quick lime).
Name differences between 1. Bubonic Plague and 2. Pneumonic Plague? 1.1st stage,lymph nodes swell(buboes),not very contagious human to human, w/i the body; 2.Adv. stage,now in lungs, very contagious, transmitted by respiratory discharge; called Black Plague from ruptured blood vessels, deadliest disease known to 'man'.
What is the infectious agent,reservoir, primary transmission, incubation period & control of Plague? Yersinia pestis bacteria, bite of infected oriental rat flea(Xenophylla cheopis) or airborne from infected human; rodent is vehicle; flea vomits into bite prior to bloodmeal;2-6 days; flea powder w/2%diazinon or 5% malathion dust then destroy rodent.
Per Cal Code, lighting for classroom activities is required at a minimum of ____. 50 foot candles
What organisms are Gram negative, aerobic, rod-shaped, non-spore forming, and ferments lactose (milk) sugars? Characteristics of coliform bacteria.
Name the causative agent of Weil's disease, from contact with urine of infected rodents & certain other animals. Leptospira (long-thin spiral-shaped bacteria)
What is a foot candle? Measure of the intensity of illumination -amount of light striking 1 sq. ft surface from 1 ft away(distance)
What does a Naphalometric device do? Measures TDS (total dissolved solids) in water.
How often should the filtration system recirculate the water in a spa? Turnover rate of every 1/2 hour.
How often should a wading pool's filtration system recirculate the water in the pool? Turnover rate of every 1 hour.
Created by: Hasti44
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