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General 7

Q bank: Randomly Generated 7

What antiarrhythmics are contraindicated in patients w/ long QT syndrome? Class 1A sodium channel blockers (Quinidine and procainamide, list these two so I can remind you they also cause lupus like reaction)
The Trendelenburg test involves asking a patient to stand on one leg. If the fall to the opposite side then it is considered a "positive Trendelenberg sign". What muscle or muscles does this test? Gluteus medius and minimus; positive sign seen in some polio victims, and patients with hip dislocations, femur fractures, or other deformaties
In what form is the majority of circulating testosterone in the body? Testosterone bound to sex-steroid-binding-protein
Pseudohemaphrodite w/ a 46 XY karyotype. Is this a male pseudohemaphrodite or female pseudohemaphrodite? Male pseudohemaphrodite; naming matches w/ karyotype, despite phenotypia
A patient on coumadin has a gastric ulcer, which agent would be contraindicated: Cimetidine, ranitidine, or nizatidine? Cimetidine; unlike the other H2 receptor antagonists, it is a potent inhibitor of hepatic P450 which would lead to the warfarin interaction leading to hematuria and easy bruisability from decreased metabolism of the drug
This type of amyloid is associated with hemodialysis with a preferance for musculoskeletal system. Beta-2 microglobulin
3 day old infant with crusted infection around the umbilical stump, that progresses to reddened patches which spread produce painful skin erythema. Next day, large, flaccid blisters appear that easily rupture. Diagnosis? Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome; toxic epidermal necrolysis may present in a similar fashion but is associated with older patients starting a new medication
What is the mechanism of action of acyclovir? Viral DNA polymerase inhibitor
What type of hallucination occurs on waking? What type occurs before going to sleep? Hypnopompic occurs on waking; Hypnagogic occurs before going to sleep
CML and polycythemia vera are two myeloproliferative disorders which are characterized by hypercellular bone marrow producing all 3 cell lines. Over years the bone marrow may burn out and this disorder may occur. Myeloid metaplasia with myelofibrosis (MMM); MMM is movement of hematopoiesis (including neooplastic cells) to extramedullary sites, predominantly the spleen and liver
Superantigenss trigger the release of what factors from T-helper cells to cause system-wide and life threatening effects? IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha
Increased density of parietal cells in the body of the stomach is often found secondary to what condition? Zollinger-Ellison; gastrin has trophic effect on parietal cells
Right upper quadrantanopia (loss of vision in right upper field) often accompanies which aphasia: Wernicke's or Broca's? Wernicke's or fluent aphasia,
What feature common to septic shock is unique among the various forms of shock? DIC; rapid onset of MI, hypotension, DIC, and coma, may describe cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock if not for the presence of DIC mediated by endotoxin
Ochronosis is just another name for what disorder? Alkaptonuria; homogenistic acid oxidase deficiency
An alcoholic with pneumonia caused by a gram negative bacillus. Is it oxidase positive or negative? What if the patient had CF instead of an alcoholic? Alcoholic with pneumonia, most likely kliebsella, so would be oxidase negative; if CF patient, most likely p aeruginosa which is oxidase positive bacillus
Exquisitely painful lesion of the oral mucosa appearing as lesions with thin erythematous border surrounding a shallow ulcerated lesion. Aphthous ulcer
Which of the following drugs should not be used in patients with osteoporosis: Alendronate, estrogens, cortisone, hydrochlorothiazide, risedronate? Cortisone; alters calcium metabolism by decreasing absorption in kidney and GI; Alendronate and risedronate decrease bone resorption to treat osteoporosis, and hydrochlorothiazide (unlike furosemide) increases blood calcium
What is Baclofen? A spasmolytic
A patient presents with tall, peaked, T waves, prolongation of the PR interval, and progressive widening of the QRS complex so that it appears to merge with the T wave. What is causing this? Hyperkalemia; succinylcholine, a depolarizing muscle relaxant can release substantial amounts of potassium and cause this
Autoimmune mediated difficulty in swallowing can only mean two things? If dry foods like crackers and bread, probably Sjogren's (Dry mouth, dry eyes, arthritis); If solids and foods probably CREST (Calcinosis, Raynauds, Esophageal dysmotility, Scleroderma, Telangiectasia)
What is the difference between a benign and malignant nevus? Nevus is a type of melanocyte; Benign nevus or common nevus is a mole; Malignant nevus is a feature of malignant melanoma
Raised, irregular, yellow papules in the skin of the soft tissue below the eyes of a patient with hyperlipidemia would have what cells on biopsy? Lesions are xanthomas; multinucleated giant cells containing cholesterol and lipids (Touton giant cells) w/ clustered nuclei and foamy cytoplasm
NH4 excretion nearly equals excretion of what substance? H+
Patients with primary biliary cirrhosis will most likely express what antibodies? antimitochondrial antibody
2 yro girl presents with high fever, splenomegaly, general lymphadenopathy. Next day has swelling of knees and elbows bilaterally with rubor. Diagnosis? Still disease, or juvenile rheumatoid arthritis; usually negative for rheumatoid factor, but if positive, is poorer prognosis
How is drug resistance conveyed for the following: methicillin, ampicillin, beta-lactamase, vancomycin, and penicillin? Meth (s. aureus): is transduction; :mp (H. influenzae): is plasmid; Beta (N. gonorrhoeae): is plasmid; Van(s.aureus) is plasmid; Pen (S. pneumo): is transformation
This drug which inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis and is used for immediate relief of gouty arthritis. Colchicine, reduces inflammation caused by urate crystals
What would be the difference in PT and bleeding time in vitamin C versus vitamin K deficiency? Vitamin K deficiency: increased PT, normal bleeding time; Vitamin C deficiency: normal PT, increased bleeding time
Electrical conduction through gap junctions transmits membrane depolarization from one cell to another at what structure? Intercalated cells
In this disorder there is a deficiency of gpIIb/IIIa inhibiting fibrinogen bridging, and bleeding time is significantly prolonged. Glanzmann's thrombasthenia; this is a similar mechanism to the drug abciximab which is a monoclonal antibody against gpIIb/IIIa
Which muscular dystrophy is worse, Duchenne's or Becker's, and why? Duchenne's is worse because it involves a frameshift mutation resulting in less than 5% normal dystrophin levels; Becker's is a point mutation that permits residual function of 30-80% normal dystrophin; Both X-linked recessive
What is anti-self IgG a marker for? This is rheumatoid factor, marker for rheumatoid arthritis
In Goodpasture syndrome there is anti-GBM antibodies, but what component of the GBM are these antibodies attacking? type IV collagen; anti-type IV collagen
How is phosphate reabsorbed in the nephron? Na-phosphate cotransport in the proximal tubule
This drug is a centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxant structurally and pharmacologically similar to tricyclic antidepressants. Cyclobenzaprine
What is pseudocyesis? False belief of being pregnatn
What is the difference between somatoform pain disorder and somatization disorder? Somatoform: is prolonged pain not explained by underlying illness; Somatization: Complaints of multiple organ systems w/out underlying illness
What is the difference between schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder? Schizoaffective disorder is schizophrenia and a mood disorder
What is hydrocele? serous accumulation in the tunica vaginalis producing a readily apparent scrotal mass
This organism is a common cause of hot tub folliculitis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa; You know the mnemonic PSEUDO (Pneumonia, Sepsis, External otitis (swimmer's ear), UTI, Diabetic/Drug Osteomyelitis); I'm changing it to "PSEUD-OH yeah don't forget hot tub folliculitis!" (and burn patients)
Gram negative rod, lactose non-fermenter, oxidase negative. What are the 3? lactose non-fermenter excludes Kliebsella, E. Coli, and Enterobacter (Lactose is KEE), oxidase negative excludes P. aeruginosa, so that means Proteus, Shigella, and Salmonella
A patient seeks medical attention because he keeps on setting off the metal detector at the airport, despite removing his watch, belt buckle, and every other obvious source of metal. What disease might cause this phenomenon? Hemochromatosis
What type of cancer affects the brain in HIV patients? Primary central nervous system lymphoma
In muscle contraction what changes occur in the length of the I-band and A-band? A-band is length of myosin, doesn't change; I band is the length of actin filaments between adjacent myosin heads, this would get shorter
What does the fact that a disease has male-to-male transmission say about its mode of inheritance? That it is autosomal (because X chromosome comes from mother in boys, so dad couldn't pass on an X-linked disorder to his son)
Which plate, basal or alar, becomes the dorsal (posterior part) of the spinal cord? Alar plate; becomes sensory or afferent portion of the cord, basal forms the ventral part and becomes the motor, or efferent portion of the spinal cord
What is the most toxic part of LPS? Lipid A
What is the difference in treatment of fingernail vs. toenail fungal infection? Fingernails: imidazole (Fluconazole, ketoconazole, itraconazole); Toenails: Terbinafine
C1, C4, and C2 have what action in the classic complement pathway? Splitting of C3 to C3b and C3a
What is the effect of arsenic on glycolysis? Converts glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate to 3 phosphoglycerate bypassing generation of ATP; this results in a net O ATP generation by glycolysis having a profound effect on erythrocytes
Created by: rahjohnson



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