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3rd Quarter : 5
GU
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is a normal GFR? | >60 |
| What type of organs are the kidneys? | Retroperitoneal organs. |
| What is on the outside of the kidneys? | Several layers of fat & connective tissue. |
| What is the renal capsule? | The outside of the kidney. |
| How much urine is produced per day? | 1 - 1.5 L |
| What is the bare minimum urine output? | 30 mL/hour |
| What are the kidneys dependent upon? | Adequate cardiac output. |
| Where do the kidneys lay? | The costovertebral angle. |
| What is normal cardiac output? | 5 - 6 L |
| How much blood do the kidneys receive each hour? | 1.2 L |
| What hormonal activities do the kidneys play a role in? | Ertythropoietin, aldosterone, renin. |
| What is creatinine a normal waste product of? | Muscle metabolism. |
| What is reabsorbed in acidosis? | HCO3- |
| What is reabsorbed in alkalosis? | H+ |
| Where does the final activation of Vitamin D occur? | In the kidneys. |
| Why is Vitamin D important? | It is necessary for Ca++ absorption. |
| Name some things that the kidneys regulate. | Fluid balance. Electrolyte balance. Acid-base balance. |
| What is the functional unit of the kidney called? | The nephron. |
| Name two types of nephrons. | Cortical. Juxtamedullary. |
| How many nephrons are in each kidney. | 1.2 million |
| Where do the Cortical nephrons originate? | Superficial part of cortex. |
| Where do the Juxtamedullary nephrons originate? | Deeper in cortex. |
| How far do the loops of Henle penetrate the medulla in Cortical nephrons? | 85% |
| Describe the loop of Henle in a cortical nephron. | Short and thick. |
| How far do the loops of Henle penetrate the medulla in a Juxtamedullary nephron? | The entire length of the medulla. |
| Describe the loop of Henle in a juxtamedullary nephron. | Long and thin. |
| Which of the two types of nephrons is largely concerned with urine concentration? | The Juxtamedullary. |
| Which nephron is most active at night? | The Juxtamedullary. |
| Which type of nephron is more common? | The cortical nephron, making up 80 - 85% of nephrons. |
| What are the two major components of the nephron? | The vascular system and the tubular system. |
| How does blood enter the kidneys? | Via the renal artery. |
| Where does blood flow to from the Afferent arteriole? | Into the glomerulus. |
| Where does blood exit the glomerulus? | The Efferent arteriole. |
| What are the kidney's regulatory mechanisms? | Glomerular filtration. Tubular Reabsorption. Tubular Secretion. |
| How are the kidney's regulatory mechanisms accomplished? | Via diffusion, active transport, osmosis, and filtration. |
| Diffusion | Passive. From high concentration to low concentration. |
| Active transport requires what? | Energy |
| Active transport | Carrier molecule. From low concentration to high concentration. |
| Osmosis | Across semi-permeable membrane. Water moves to area of high solutes. |
| Filtration | From high to low. |
| Pressure in the glomerulus is... | 2 - 3 x higher than any other capillary system. |
| What is the initial process in the formation of urine? | Glomerular filtration. |
| Where do water, electrolytes, and solutes go once they are filtered across the glomerular membrane? | Into the Bowman's capsule. |
| How many capillaries are in a glomerulus? | 4 - 8 |
| What are the 3 layers of the the glomerulus? | Endothelium (inner), basement membrane (middle), and epitheleal layer (outer). |
| Which layer of the glomerulus is associated with Albumin? | The basement membrane. |
| What type of charge does Albumin carry? | A negative charge. |
| What 3 pressure systems are involved with glomerular filtration? | Hydrostatic pressure, colloid osmotic pressure, and hydrostatic fluid pressure. |
| What causes the hydrostatic pressure? | Blood flowing through the glomerulus. |
| What causes the hydrostatic fluid pressure? | The presence of fluid in the Bowman's capsule. |
| What two forces oppose glomerular filtration? | Plasma oncotic/colloidal pressure of the glomerulus & the pressure of filtrate in the Bowman's capsule. |
| What pressure must exceed the sum of 2 opposing pressures in order for filtrate to be formed? | Hydrostatic pressure. |
| How is glomerular filtrate formed? | Filtration of water and small solutes thru the filtration membrane. |
| During periods of severe blood loss, which nervous system overrides renal autoregulatory mechanisms to shunt blood to other critical areas? | The Sympathetic system. |
| What is needed to push water and solutes through all three layers, to form filtrate? | Positive hydrostatic pressure. |
| What are some common components of glomerular filtrate? | Glucose, amino acids, nitrogenous waste, urea, uric acid, creatinine, ions, sodium, potassium, chloride, water. |
| The concentration of substances in filtrate is similar to its concentration where? | Plasma |
| How much filtrate is reabsorbed? | 99% |
| Where are the majority of water and solutes reabsorbed? | Proximal convoluted tubule. |
| What part of the loop of henle is highly permeable to water? | The thin descending loop. |
| What part of the loop of henle is almost impermeable to water? | The thin ascending loop. |
| What part of the loop of henle is relatively impermeable to water? | The thick ascending loop. |
| What is the distal convoluted tubule's affinity for water? | It is relatively impermeable to water. |
| What hormones does the distal convoluted tubule react to? | ADH & Aldosterone. |
| Where is filtrate concentrated? | Descending loop of Henle. |
| Where is filtrate diluted? | Ascending loop of Henle. |
| The method in which substances move from the plasma into the tubular filtrate is called what? | Tubular secretion. |
| What 2 principle effects does tubular secretion have? | Helps control pH & rids body of certain substances. |
| What substances are secreted? | K+, H+, ammonium ions, creatinine, urea, some hormones, some drugs (penicillin). |
| How are K+ levels regulated? | Not much is reabsorbed, it is secreted. |
| What happens to excess H+? | Secreted by kidneys. |
| What process contributes to regeneration of HCO3-? | Tubular secretion. |
| What is counter transport? | The movement of a substance in one direction allows the movement of another substance in the opposite direction. |
| Late filtrate processing includes? | Reabsorption & secretion. |
| Aldosterone and ADH directly control the processing of what? | Na+, K+, H20 & urea. |
| What two hormones effect the composition of urine? | Aldosterone & ADH. |
| What action does ADH take on the DCT? | Increases it's permeability to water, enhancing reabsorption. |
| Where is ADH formed? | In the hypothalamus. |
| Where is ADH stored? | In the posterior pituitary. |
| Where is Aldosterone formed? | In the adrenal cortex. |
| Where is Aldosterone secreted? | The adrenal glands. |
| What action does Aldosterone take on membrane permeability? | It increases the permeability. |
| If Na+ is reabsorbed in the DCT what happens to water? | It follows the Na+. |
| What do prostaglandins facilitate in the GU system? | The regulation of glomerular filtration, vascular resistance, and renin production. |
| What do the prostaglandins act on? | The DCT and collecting tubule. |
| What do prostaglandins do in the DCT and collecting tubule? | Inhibit ADH, decrease permeability, promote sodium and water excretion. |
| Where is renin formed and released? | The kidney |
| What causes the release of renin from the kidneys? | Decrease in blood flow, decrease in blood volume, decrease in blood pressure, decrease in Na+. |
| What does the release of renin stimulate? | RAAS |
| What system auto regulates BP within the nephron as well as systemically? | RAAS |
| What connects the renal pelvis to the urinary bladder? | Ureter |
| Where is the urinary bladder located? | Behind the pubis symphysis. |
| What functions does the bladder have? | Store urine and enable voiding. |
| Micturition | Voiding |
| Voiding is under control of the ______ nervous system. | Parasympathetic |
| Secretions of the bladder lining resist what? | Bacteria |
| The bladder senses that is getting full when it holds how much urine? | 250 - 400 mL. |
| Continence is controlled by the ______ nervous system. | Sympathetic |
| How long is the urethra in a man? | 6 - 8 inches |
| How long is the urethra in a woman? | 1 - 1.5 inches |
| The passage of urine through the urethra promotes what? | The removal of bacteria. |
| What happens to kidneys as we age? | They shrink and function declines. |
| What causes damage to the glomerulus as we age? | HTN and collagen deposits. |
| When is the ideal time to collect urine for urinalysis? | First thing in the morning. |
| Why is first morning urine best for urinalysis? | It is most concentrated. |
| pH of urine | 5.5 - 6 normally |
| Urinalysis components | Creatinine, urea, sediment, casts, bacteria, WBCs, glucose, protein, blood, color/clarity, odor, volume, specific gravity. |
| Casts (urinalysis) | None - occasional. |
| Bacteria (urinalysis) | None |
| WBCs (urinalysis) | None - Very few |
| Glucose (urinalysis) | None - <15 mg/dL |
| Ketones (urinalysis) | None |
| Protein (urinalysis) | None - no> 2 - 8 mg/dL |
| Hgb in urine is usually r/t conditions where? | Outside the urinary tract. |
| Hematuria | Intact RBCs in urine. |
| Specific Gravity of urine. | 1.010 - 1.025 |
| BUN | 10.0 - 20.0 mg/dL |
| Blood urea nitrogen is excreted entirely by? | The kidneys |
| Increased BUN d/t | Dehydration, GIB, increased protein intake. |
| Creatinine | 0.5 - 1.2 |
| Creatinine excreted entirely by? | The kidneys |
| Formation & release of creatinine into the blood is directly proportional to what? | Muscle mass |
| Which test is more specific to kidneys? | Creatinine. Increased level = decrease function. |
| What do BUN and creatinine measure? | The ability of the kidneys to eliminate metabolic waste products. |
| Sodium | 136 - 145 |
| Chloride | 98 - 106 |
| Potassium | 3.5 - 5 |
| Carbon Dioxide | 23 - 30 |
| Calcium | 9.0 - 10.5 |
| Where is calcium excreted? | Mostly in stool, small quantities in urine. |
| Uric acid is formed from the breakdown of? | Nucleic Acids such as purine. |
| How much uric acid is excreted in the urine? | 75% |
| pH | 7.35 - 7.45 |
| Kidneys regulate reabsorption of HCO3- and rid the body of excess what? | H+ |
| GFR/min | 125 mL |
| What test is performed if UA shows bacteria present? | C & S (culture and sensitivity) |
| 24 hour urine collection is used to calculate what? | The clearance of a particular substance, such as creatinine or protein. |
| GFR indicates what? | The amount of blood filtered by the glomerulus. |
| What is used to gauge overall renal function? | GFR |
| Cytoscopy, ureteroscopy, ureteroenocopy, nephroscopy. | Direct visualization of urethra, bladder, ureters & renal pelvis. |
| Which diagnostic test is easiest to tolerate? | US |
| Extracorporeal ultrasonic sound wave lithotripsy (ESWL), Percutaneous US lithotripsy. | Application of sound waves per cytoscopy or nephrostomy |
| Renal angiogram/arteriogram | Used to assess renal blood flow to the kidneys. |
| Intravenous pyelography/pyelogram (IVP) or Excretory urography | IV dye used to visualize and show outline of kidneys, renal pelvis, ureters & bladder. |
| Nephrolithotomy | Incision into renal calyx |
| Pyelolithotomy | Incision into renal pelvis. |
| Cystitis | Lower Urinary Tract infection (bladder). |
| Pyelonephritis | Upper urinary tract infection (renal pelvis). |
| What is the second most common type of bacterial infection? | UTI |
| What maintains the sterility of the bladder/urine? | Physical barrier of the urethra. Urine flow. Mucin lining the bladder. |
| Where do bacteria that cause UTI come from? | Vagina, urethra, perineal area. |
| Urethrovesical reflux | Urine moves up from the urethra to the bladder. |
| Activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure cause this type of reflux. | Urethrovesical |
| Vesicoureteral reflux | Urine moves up from the bladder into the ureters. |
| Vesicoureteral reflux see in: | Children with UTIs. Congenital defects. Adults with obstruction to bladder outflow. |
| Narcotics and general anesthesia cause what to urine outflow? | Retention |
| Contributing UTI factors | Advancing age, catheter, female, pregnancy, hormones, sexual activity, urethritis. |
| What effect does progesterone have on GU system? | Decreased peristalsis of ureters. |
| Prevention of UTI | Long urethra, good hygiene, washout, peristalsis of ureters. |
| Cystitis manifestations | Frequency & urgency, lower abdominal discomfort, burning & pain on urination, F and malaise. |
| Cystitis causes | E. Coli, Klebsiella, enterobacter, proteus. Herpes simplex. Candidasis. Trichomonas vaginalis. |
| Cystitis prevention | VOID AS SOON AS FEEL URGE. Increase fluid intake (2 - 4L)/chronic 4 - 5L. |
| Cystitis treatment | Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin), Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole (TMP), Bactrim, Septra, Augmentin (Amoxicillin + Clavulanate), Ceftin, Keflex, Flagyl PO, Phenazopyridine (Pyridium). |
| Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) | Urinary tract antiseptic. Prophylaxis. Give with food. Can change color of urine. |
| Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole(TMP) Bactrim or Septra | Broad spectrum antimicrobial. Inhibit folate production. Excreted entirely by kidneys, need adequate hydration. |
| Augmentin (Amoxicillin + Clavulanate) | Broad spectrum antibiotics. Weakens cell wall. Prevent amoxicillin destruction. |
| Ceftin & Keflex (Cephalasporins) | Used if allergic/sensitive to PCN or sulfa |
| Flagyl PO | Treats trichomoniasis |
| Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) | Treats symptoms of UTI. Relaxes bladder. Analgesic. Orange urine. |
| What color may urine be if taking Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)? | Orange/brown. |
| Pyelonephritis | Infection within kidney and renal pelvis. |
| Acute pyelonephritis infections occur how? | Via bloodstream or ascending from bladder. |
| What is the main cause of acute pyelonephritis? | Vesicoureteral reflux |
| Symptoms of acute pyelonephritis | Chills, F, back pain/flank pain, dysuria, frequency, urgency. Pyuria. |
| Tests for acute pyelonephritis | Immunofluorescence test, KUB, Urine C&S |
| Chronic pyelonephritis is the result of what? | Infection in addition to obstruction. |
| Symptoms of chronic pyelonephritis | All the same as acute plus polyuria & nocturia. Proteinuria. |
| Oliguria | <400 mL/day |
| Tests for chronic pyelonephritis: | Urine C & S, KUB, Intravenous pyelography (IVP) or excretory urography. |
| Hydroureter | Dilated ureter |
| Hydronephrosis | Renal pelvis swells. |
| Treatment for acute pyelonephritis | Increase fluids. Trimethoprim & Sulfa-methoxazole (Bactrim/Septra). Ciproflaxin/Cipro (quinolone/fluoroquinolone). Pyridium, MS, dilaudid. |
| You should avoid MOM, amphogel, sucralfate & milk when taking what? | Ciprolaxin/Cipro (quinolone/fluoroquinolone) |
| Treatment for chronic pyelonephritis | Treat HTN. Supportive treatment. |
| Which type of pyelonephritis tends to be more painful? | Acute |
| Systemic manifestations of UTI | F, n/v, confusion |
| Contributing factors for renal calculi. | High concentrations of certain substances, pH of urine, urinary stasis, urine concentration. |
| What substances contribute to renal calculi? | Calcium, oxalate, uric acid, and (rarely) cystine. |
| Magnesium & citrate do what? | Help to inhibit stone formation. |
| 80 - 90% of stones are composed of? | Calcium |
| Excess Ca++ from: | Vitamin D, Calcium supplements, inactivity, hyperparathyroidism, breast, lung & prostate cancer. |
| What is the most common metastatic site? | Bone |
| Types of stones: | Calcium, Uric acid, struvite, cystine. |
| Uric acid stones form more readily in: | acidic urine, high protein diet. |
| Purines breakdown to: | Form uric acid |
| Stones from struvite are almost always present with what? | Infection |
| What causes struvite stones? | Bacteria splitting apart urea to form ammonia, which then combines with Magnesium and Phosphate. |
| Struvite stones form more readily in: | Alkaline urine. |
| What stones are characteristically large with a stag-horn shape? | Struvite stones. |
| Gout causes an increase in what? | Uric acid. |
| What causes cystine crystals? | Genetic abnormality. Kidneys excrete excess amounts of cystine. |
| Stone manifestations | Intense colicky flank pain. Increased BP & HR, anxiety, pallor, hematuria. May see: N/V, urgency, frequency, anuria. Hydroureter, hydronephrosis. |
| Hydroureter & hydronephrosis are manifestations of what? | Stones |
| Most common diagnostic tool for stones. | Cytoscopy, ureteroscopy, ureterorenoscopy, nephroscopy. |
| Pain management of stones | IV narcotics, NSAID, then PO if tolerated. |
| Fluids in treatment of stones | 3 - 5 L/day |
| Probanthine or Ditropan | Antispasmodics that relax smooth muscles in urinary tract by inhibiting acetylcholine. |
| Treatment for uric acid stones | Allopurinol to reduce urid acid level. Potassium salts to increase urine pH. |
| Potassium or sodium citrate are used to treat? | Stones (drink lemonade) |
| Treatment of calcium stones | Thiazide diuretic to promote Ca++ reabsorption. |
| If pain is controlled and there is no infection, how long should you wait to see if a stone will pass on it's own? | 48 hours |
| Cytoscopy or ureteroscopy are used for? | Mid-low ureteral, bladder, or urethral stones. |
| Nephrolithotomy or pyelolithotomy are used for? | Stones in kidney or upper ureter, larger staghorn stones. |
| Stone prevention | Increase fluids. |
| Calcium oxalate stone prevention: | Avoid dark leafy green veggies, pecans, chocolate. |
| Calcium phosphate stone prevention: | Decrease dietary calcium |
| Uric acid stone prevention: | Reduce purine foods: organ meats, boned fish, fried fatty foods, red wine. |
| Struvite stone prevention: | Limit dairy products, red meats (foods high in phospate) |
| Cystine stone prevention: | Avoid citrus fruits, milk products |
| Medication to prevent Ca++ stones: | Thiazide diuretic to promote Ca++ reabsorption |
| Medication to prevent uric acid stones: | Allopurinol & potassium salts. |
| Allopurinol | Reduces uric acid levels. |
| Potassium salts | Make urine more alkaline. |
| Medications for struvite stones: | Antibiotics, long term, small dose. |
| Bladder cancer is highest among? | White men > 50 |
| Environmental risk factors for bladder cancer. | Cigarette smoking, previous chemotherapy, chronic UTI. |
| What is the #1 risk factor for bladder cancer? | Cigarette smoking |
| Initial presentation of bladder cancer? | Painless hematuria |
| What procedure will need to be drained several times a day? | Kock pouch |
| 80 - 90% of kidney cancer is this type. | Adenocarcinoma |
| Where does the adenocarcinoma type of kidney cancer begin? | The renal cortex. |
| The remainder of kidney cancers are this type: | Squamous or transitional of the renal pelvis. |
| Kidney cancer accounts for ____ % of all cancers. | 2% |
| Possible causes of kidney cancer. | Chronic irritation d/t stones & smoking. Exposure to lead & cadmium. Obesity. Genetics. |
| Kidney cancer initially presents with: | Painless, renal enlargement. |
| Excess secretion of renin & erythropoeitin are common with? | Kidney cancer |
| Kidney cancer metastasizes to: | lungs, mediastinum, lymphatics & bone. |
| Metastasis is often present at the time of diagnosis of this type of cancer: | Kidney |
| Symptoms of kidney cancer | Hematuria, flank pain, palpable mass. |
| Glomerulonephritis | Immunological response. Antigen-antibody complexes form, circulate, and get deposited in glomeruli structures. |
| Acute glomerulonephritis is frequently preceded by? | Strep throat |
| Symptoms of acute glomerulonephritis | Oliguria, COLA urine, edema (hands & face), HTN, proteinuria & hematuria. |
| Diuril (hydrochlorothiazide) | treat acute glomerulonephritis |
| If a patient does not have resolution of acute glomerulonephritis within 2 years, what will happen? | The patient will never have resolution. |
| Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis is characterized by: | Severe glomerular injury. |
| A 50% decrease in GFR can be seen when in rapidly progressve glomerulonephritis? | Within 3 months |
| Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis may result from: | Diabetes, systemic lupus, Goodpasture's syndrome. |
| The inflammatory process does what to bowman's capsule in rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis? | Obliterates it. |
| Scarring, sclerosis, & tubular atrophy of the glomerulus are seen in: | Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. |
| What symptom is unique to Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis? | WBC casts |
| What treatments are used for Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis? | Diuretics, anti-hypertensives, immunosuppressants, plasmapheresis. |
| Chronic glomerulonephritis leads to renal deterioration over: | 20 - 30 years |
| Chronic glomerulonephritis is often seen in patients who survive? | Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis |
| Sclerosed glomeruli, atrophied kidney tissue, eventual failure characterize this: | Chronic glomerulonephritis |
| Initial symptom of chronic glomerulonephritis | Very dilute urine |
| Oliguria progresses to anuria in: | Chronic glomerulonephritis |
| Treatment of chronic glomerulonephritis | Restrict protein, K+ & fluid |
| What type of disorder is more common in nephrotic syndrome? | Secondary |
| Nephrotic syndrome (secondary) | Autoimmune disease. Often from RPGN or CGN. |
| Nephrotic syndrome characterizations | Massive Proteinuria. Hypoalbuminia. Edema, hyperlipidema, increased coagulation, infection. |
| Symptoms of nephrotic syndrome | HTN, CHF, DVT, PE, Anasarca |
| Treatment of nephrotic syndrome | Prevent thrombosis. Increase protein intake. Volume expanders: albumin & dextran. Diuretics to treat edema. |
| Diuretics for nephrotic syndrome | Lasix or Furosemide, Spironolactone or Aldactone, Mannitol or Osmitrol |
| Lasix or Furosemide | Loop diuretic. PO & IV, works fast. Ototoxicity, hyperglycemia, hyperuricemia. |
| Spironolcatone or Aldactone | Aldosterone antagonist, K+ sparing. PO. |
| Mannitol or Osmitrol | Increase osmotic P. Poorly metabolized sugar. Promotes rapid diureses in 30-60 min. IV |
| Do not eat what with diuretics? | Black licorice |
| Black licorice causes: | Salt retention & excess K+ loss |
| Most diuretics promote the excretion of: | Na+ |
| The excretion of Na+ can result in the loss of: | K+ |
| What is the prostate gland? | A gland of the male reproductive system. |
| Where is the prostate located? | Base of the bladder & above external urethral sphincter. |
| What is the prostatic urethra? | Portion of the urethra surrounded by the prostate. |
| What is the prostate made of? | 30% muscle tissue and the rest glandular tissue. |
| What is the main function of the prostate? | To produce prostatic fluid for semen. |
| BPH symptoms | Urgency & frequency, difficutly initiating urination, urinary retention, recurrent UTI. |
| Early detection is key to: | BPH |
| BPH drugs | Flomax, Hytrin, Cardura, Proscar. |
| Flomax, Hytrin, Cardura | Alpha adrenegic receptor antagonists |
| Common after TURP | Bleeding |
| What is the most common cancer among american men? | Prostate cancer |
| Prostate cancer is _____ growing. | Slow |
| Risk factors for prostate cancer: | Family Hx, African-American men, high fat diet, environmental exposure to carcinogens (cadmium), low serum Vit D |
| Does metastasis of prostate cancer occur in a fairly predictable pattern? | Yes |
| What is the most common presenting symptom of prostate cancer? | Gross painless hematuria |
| Men should have rectal exams when? | Annually after 40 |
| PSA test for: | Men >50 |
| Estrogen may be given to men to counter the testosterone in this form of cancer: | Prostate cancer |
| Polyuria can be described as: | Voiding excess amounts of urine. |
| Dilution or concentration of urine is largely determined by: | ADH |
| A patient being discharged after urolithiasis should drink how much water a day? | 3 - 5 L |
| Do you include a first morning urine to start a 24 hour urine collection? | No |
| Coffee colored urine, fatigue, n/v, anorexia may indicate: | Acute glomerulonephritis |
| A client with nephrotic syndrome is being admitted to the unit. The nurse includes which of the following in planning the care for this client? | Interventions for client with generalized edema. |
| Bladder cancer etiologies: | Smoking, insulation installation. |
| The bacterial infiltration to the renal pelvis that causes inflammatory changes, F, flank pain and foul urine is: | Pyelonephritis |
| 24 hour creatinine clearance measures what? | GFR |
| Why would you have a rectal exam and your PSA done on different days? | Rectal exam causes elevation of PSA levels. 24 hours must pass after a rectal exam prior to drawing blood for PSA |
| BUN levels are increased with: | Dehydration |
| What position should you place a patient who has recieved dyes and is flushing in? | Trendelenburg |
| If a patient is allergic to iodinated dyes, what precautions need to be taken when giving them? | Give a diphenhydramine-prednisone preparation. |
| Bactericidal | Kills bacteria |
| Bacteriostatic | Inhibits growth/reproduction of bacteria |
| What type of ring do penicillin antibiotics have? | Beta lactam ring |
| Penicillins act to? | Weaken the cell wall. |
| Where are metabolites of Penicillin excreted? | The kidneys |
| Where is penicillin metabolized? | The liver. |
| Which medication is a major culprit of C-Diff? | Cephalasporins |
| What do sulfonamides prevent bacteria from doing? | Producing folate needed to produce & replicate their DNA & RNA. |
| What are sulfonamides primarily used for? | Treating UTI |
| When taking sulfonamides a patient needs to be: | Well hydrated |
| What do quinolones do? | Prevent gyrase from working. |
| Are quinolones bactericidal or bacteriostatic? | Bactericidal |
| Which medications are especially useful in treating upper UTI and recurrent UTI? | Quinolones |
| When taking this medication patients should avoid aluminum or magnesium containing antacids? | Quinolones |
| Why should you avoid aluminum or magnesium antacids when taking quinolones? | Interferes with absorption. |
| What can quinolones do to coumadin? | Increase it's effect. |
| When taking macrodantan your urine may turn this color: | dark orange or brownish |
| Macrodantan should be administerd on a(n) _____ stomach. | A full stomach |
| Which medication may damage the myelin sheath of nerve cells? | Macrodantan |
| Diuretics work by: | Promoting excretion of Na+ and Cl- by preventing their reabsorption. |
| Ototoxicity should be monitored when administering? | High ceiling loop diuretics (Lasix) |
| Which type of diuretic may decreatse the excretion of Lithium? | High ceiling loop diuretics |
| What portion of the tubule is effected by Potassium sparing diuretics? | The distal convoluted tubule. |
Created by:
NataschAnn
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