Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever

Username is available taken
show password

Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.

Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
Didn't know it?
click below
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how


Step 1 prep

What are the 3 groups of Gram positive cocci Streptococcus, Staphylococcus and Enterococcus
What's the genus of Gram positive, catalase positive cocci? Staphylococcus
Which Gram +, catalase + cocci are also coagulase +? Staphylococcus aureus
Which Gram +, catalase + cocci are coagulase -? Staphylococcus Sapprophyticus and Staphylococcus epidermidis
What's a Gram +, catalase +, coagulase - coccus that is sensitive to novobiocin and produces a biofilm? Staphylococcus epidermidis
What's a Gram + catalase +, coagulase - coccus that is resistant to novobiocin? Staphylococcus sapprophyticus
What are the two genera of catalase negative, Gram + cocci? Streptococcus and Enterococcus
What's a Gram +, catalase -, beta hemolytic coccus that is sensitive to bacitracin? and what is the one that is resistant to bacitracin? sensitive: Streptococcus pyogenes, resistant: Streptococcus agalactiae
What's a Gram +, catalase -, alpha hemolytic coccus that is sensitive to optochin? and what's the one that is resistant to optochin? sensitive: Streptococcus pneumoniae, resistant: Streptococcus viridans
What's a Gram + coccus that is catalase negative and turns escualin agar black? Name genus and 2 species Enterococcus faecium and faecalis
What are the Gram + anaerobic rods (2 genera) and which one is branched? Actinomyces (branched) and Clostridium
What are Gram + aerobic rods (4 genera) and which one is branched? Nocardia (branched), Bacillus, Corynebacterium, Listeria
Name 7 capsulated organisms Some Beautiful Killers Have Pretty Nice Capsules (Strep. pneumoniae, Bordetella pertussis, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Neisseria meningitidis, Cryptococcus Neoformans)
Name 3 anaerobic bacteria and specify their Gram stain Gram positive: Actinomyces and Clostridium. Gram negative: Bacteroides
Name 2 endospore forming bacteria Clostridium and Bacillus
What are the three relevant Gram - spirochetes? Treponema, Leptospira and Borrelia
What are the 2 relevant Gram negative cocci and how you differentiate them based on morphology? Neisseria and Moraxella. Neisseria has flattened sides.
Name a Gram negative rod that is oxidase positive, strict aerobe, and produces pyocyanin Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Pt with diarrhea, Gram negative, oxidase positive rod with polar flagella that grows at 42ª C Campylobacter
Gram negative, oxidase +, urease + rod Helicobacter pylori
Gram - rod that grows on TCBS medium and is oxidase + Vibrio spp.
Name two genera of Gram negative, oxidase negative rods Gardnerella and Enterobacteriaceae
Which 4 Enterobacteriaceae look pink on McConkey and green on EMB and why? Citrobacter, Enterobacter, Escherichia and Klebsiella, because they ferment lactose
Two genera of Gram negative, oxidase negative rods that form colorless colonies on McConkey agar and produce H2S Salmonella, Proteus
Gram negative, oxidase negative, urease positive rods that spread all over the petri dish where they were cultured. Proteus
Gram negative rod, oxidase negative, colorless colonies on EMB that requires cold temperatures to grow Yersinia enterocolitica
Gram negative rods that look like safety pins (bipolar staining), oxidase negative, colorless colonies on McConkey Yersinia pestis
Gram negative, oxidase negative, non motile rods that form colorless colonies on EMB. Their pathogenesis involves polymerization of actin jet trails and invasion of M cells, as well as a protein synthesis inhibiting toxin. Shigella
Fastidious Gram negative rods that require factor X and NAD for growth Haemophilus
4 genera of fastidious Gram negative rods that require iron and cysteine for growth Francisella, Legionella, Pasteurella and Brucella
Toddler bitten by another kid at daycare develops infection with a Gram negative rod that smells like bleach Eikenella corrodens
Gram negative rod non visible on light microscopy but on dark field microscope shows terminal hooks Leptospira
Name a genus that is not stained by Gram stain and cannot synthetize ATP Chlamydiaceae
Name a genus that is not stained by Gram stain and can only synthetize limited amounts of ATP Rickettsia
Name a genus that is not stained by Gram stain and needs cholesterol for growth Mycoplasmataceae
Furuncle on face, name Causal Agent (CA) Staphylococcus aureus
Many inflamed follicles from neck down, CA Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Impetigo, honey crusted lesions, catalase negative S. pyogenes
Impetigo, honey-crusted lesions, bullae, catalase positive S. aureus
Granulomatous subcutaneous lesion in a guy that cleans fish tanks Mycobacterium marinum
Cellulitis in a saltwater fisherman Vibrio vulnificus
Single lesion on skin with swelling, pain in someone who used sphagnum moss to decorate Christmas tree Sporothrix schenckii
Sinus tract formation towards lymph node from swollen painful lesion in florist Sporothric schenckii
Subcutaneous swelling, not painful, shows sulfur granules on yellow exudate and is not acid fast Actinomyces
Subcutaneous abscess that drains yellow with sulfur granules, partial acid fast Gram + branching rods Nocardia
Kid with multiple cavities develops a draining abscess in jaw area that drains a yellow exudate with sulphur granules Actinomyces israelii
Shepherd develops a pustule that shows a black center with erythematous margin and painful regional lymphadenopathy Bacillus anthracis
Very ill patient in hospital develops multiple pustules with black eschar in the center, an attending physician mentioned Ecthyma gangrenosum. What's the agent and what's the site of infection? Pseudomonas in the blood (sepsis)
Burned patient producing green pus on a fruity odor lesion Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Skin is red, tender, edematous, hot and the lesion spreads quickly (disease and CA) Erysipela by Strep. pyogenes
Surgical wound from C section becomes red, painful and hot, most common CA Staph. aureus
Surgical wound from colon resection becomes infected while Pt. still in the hospital, name 3 CA/groups. Staph. aureus, Enterobacteriaceae, anaerobes
Lymphadenopathy and stellate granulomas in cat owner Bartonella henselae, cat scratch disease
A cat/dog bite that becomes infected, name CA and treatment Pasteurella multocida - amoxiclav
Severe ear pain in uncontrolled diabetic, disease is advancing pretty fast (disease and CA) malignant otitis externa by Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2 CA of otitis externa in non swimmers Staph aureus and candida
2 CA of otitis externa in swimmers Proteus and Pseudomonas
5 CA of AOM and sinusitis (3 bacteria, 2 viruses) Strep. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, RSV, Rhinovirus
Pt. develops sore mouth with white coating that shows tender red base underneath after taking broad spectrum antibiotics for 2 weeks Candida
What virulence factor is responsible for the rash in Scarlet fever and what's the CA Strep. pyogenes, erythrogenic exotoxin A
name disease and CA of Pt that develops a sore throat with fever and white papules with a red base on posterior palate and pharynx Herpangina from Coxsackie A virus
Teenager treated for Strep throat without having confirmed the diagnosis has severe fatigue, lymphadenopathy and develops a rash. You find Downey cells on blood smear. Name disease, 2 CA and how to differentiate between them. Mononucleosis, Epstein Barr Virus and CMV, former has + heterophile antibodies, later doesn't
Common cold during summer, name CA rhinovirus
Common cold during winter, name CA Coronavirus
Young female shows up with red eye, pus, scraping shows inclusion bodies in cytoplasm. What's the disease, CA and the serotypes that can cause it inclusion conjunctivitis, Chlamydia trachomatis, D-K
You go to Somalia and find a kid with inturned eyelashes, name disease, CA and serotypes trachoma, Chlamydia trachomatis, A-C
Retinopathy with keratitis in baby born to IV drug user, name CA and disease congenital syphilis, Treponema pallidum
Name 2 causes of chorioretinits in a neonate Toxoplasma / CMV
IV drug user shows up with sudden onset of chills, fever, arthralgia and a developing murmur. You find small, non-tender, red macular lesions on palms and soles. What's the name of those lesions and the most likely CA Janeway lesions, Staph. aureus (most common cause in both IV drug users and not IV drug users)
Insidious onset of fever, weakness, weight loss, night sweats, splinter hemorrhages and a murmur in someone that reports having had several dental procedures in the last couple of months and denies previous cardiopathy. Streptococcus viridans
Insidious onset of fever, weakness, weight loss, night sweats, splinter hemorrhages and a murmur. Blood cultures show Gram negative rods. Name group. HACEK
Insidious onset of fever, weakness, weight loss, night sweats, splinter hemorrhages and a murmur in 75 year old male who underwent kidney stone removal. Name CA Enterococcus faecalis.
Insidious onset of fever, weakness, weight loss, night sweats, splinter hemorrhages and a murmur in IV drug user. Name 3 bacteria and 2 fungi Pseudomonas, Strep. viridans, Staph. apidermidis, Candida, Aspergillus
24 year old patient from Jujuy, Argentina shows up with what seems to be a dilated cardiomiopathy. Name CA and disease Chagas disease, Trypanosoma cruzii
Immigrant toddler can't breathe and is drooling, name disease and CA epiglotitis by Hib
Infant develops fever, barking cough, inspiratory stridor, name disease and CA Croup, Parainfluenzae
Most common cause of bronchiolitis in toddlers RSV
11 year old had common cold symptoms but has been coughing for 2 and a half weeks after the rest of the symptoms disappeared, he's afebrile, name CA Bordetella pertussis
Adult Pt with high fever, productive cough and diffuse infiltrates in one lung lobe, alcoholic. Name most likely CA Pneumococcus (#1 cause including alcoholics)
Patient with CF develops high fever, productive cough and diffuse infiltrates, name most likely CA Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Patient with medullary lesion develops high fever, productive cough with foul smelling sputum, what's your clinical suspicion? aspiration pneumonia by mixed anaerobes
Alcoholic Pt with high fever, productive cough and diffuse infiltrates develops pulmonary abscess and has currant jelly sputum Klebsiella pneumoniae
Patient was hospitalized with the flu requiring ventilation, develops high fever, a pulmonary abscess and salmon colored sputum that on Gram stain shows a Gram +, catalase + coccus Staph. aureus
19 year old patient reports low fever, dry cough, chest X ray shows diffuse infiltrates, patient says the cough won't let her sleep. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Most common cause of pneumonia in school aged children Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Heavy smoker and drinker, 60 year old that lives in hot climate develops atypical pneumoniae Legionella (air conditioning)
Person that works in a turkey farm develops atypical pneumonia and hepatitis Chlamydophila psitaci
AIDS patient develops dry cough and hypoxia, chest X-ray shows ground-glass pattern, bronchoalveolar lavage stained on H&E shows honeycomb looking exudate Pneumocystis jiroveci
Patient in Arizona that recently had rats at home develops cough, leg cramps, pulmonary edema and hypotension, dies in the hospital Hanta virus
Canadian from Toronto develops ARDS with hypoxia, patchy infiltrates on Xray SARS- Corona virus
Chronic cough, weight loss, night sweat and calcifying lesions in HIV Pt TB
Chronic cough, weight loss, night sweat and calcifying lesions in Missouri chicken farmer, sputum shows yeasts packed into macrophages Histoplasma capsulatum
Chronic cough, weight loss, night sweat and calcifying lesions in cave adventurous from the East Coast, sputum shows yeasts packed inside macrophages Histoplasma capsulatum
Chronic cough, weight loss, night sweat and calcifying lesions in patient from New Mexico, sputum shows spherules with endospores Coccidioides immitis
Chronic cough, weight loss, night sweat and calcifying lesions in patient from North Carolina, sputum shows broad based budding yeasts with double refractile cell wall, CA and where will it most likely disseminate Blastomyces dermatitidis, skin
Parasite that causes megaloblastic anemia D. latum
3 parasites that cause iron deficiency anemia Trichuris, Necator, Ancylostoma
Parasite that causes rings in RBC or banana-shaped figures Plasmodium falciparum
Child of hippie parents who don't believe in western medicine develops hypoglycemia, paroxysmal cough and lymphocytosis Bordetella pertussis
Top three agents of neonatal meningitis in order 1. Strep agalactiae, 2. E. coli, 3. Listeria monocytogenes
Top cause of meningitis in immigrant 6 month old Hib
Vaccinated teenager with meningitis and rash Neisseria meningitidis (vaccine not that effective)
Top cause of meningitis in renal transplant patient Cryptococcus neoformans
Patient with cough, weight loss, night sweats, develops nerve palsies, CSF shows low glucose TB meningitis
Prefrontal headache and smell disturbances in 25 year old male that loves to swim in warm springs Naegleria
Encephalitis with temporal lobe involvement, RBC in CSF Herpes simplex
Patient with bull's eye rash later develops systemic disease and Bell palsy Borrelia burgdorferi
Patient with respiratory symptoms develops Guillain-Barré Influenza
Patient with GI symptoms develops symmetrical ascending paralysis Campylobacter jejuni
Sandpaper rash CA Exotoxin A producing Strep. pyogenes
Acute onset of fever, myalgia, vomiting, rash with desquamation of hands and soles, later develops severe hypotension. Name disease, CA and toxin Toxic Shock Syndrome, Staph. aureus, TSST-1
Kid with an abscess develops perioral erythema, bullae, vesicles and desquamation that then spreads to trunk, neck and extremities. Disease and CA Scalded skin disease by Staph aureus
rash that begins in wrists and ankles and later spreads, including palms and soles, fever, headache, myalgias in patient from East Coast. Disease and CA Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever by Rickettsia rickettsii
Generalized copper colored rash involving palms and soles in sexually active individual. Disease and CA secondary Syphilis, Treponema pallidum
Amish child develops conjunctivitis, cough and coryza, then you find what looks like sand granules on red base in the mouth and then a rash that starts in head and then covers entire body. Name disease, CA family, acute complication and late complication Measles, Paramyxoviridae, pneumonia and Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
Target rash... disease and CA Lyme's disease, Borrelia burgdorferi
What's the mode of action of isoniazid inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
Nowadays catheters are covered with Teflon, so the only way an organism can attach to that is by producing... biofilm
Culture medium in which lactose fermenting bacteria appear green EMB
Culture medium that inhibits growth of Gram positives and lactose fermenter Gram negative appear pink while non-fermenters appear colorless McConkey
TCBS medium has a _________ pH alkaline
CYE or BCYE agar is selective for Legionella
Culture medium selective for Mycobacteria Löwenstein - Jensen
What do you call a blood agar that has been heated so that non-hemolytic bacteria can access blood components? and what's the name if you add antibiotics to inhibit normal flora? Chocolate Agar and Thayer Martin
Culture medium where pathogenic Neisseria grows but not normal flora Neisseria Thayer Martin
Name the only acid fast bacteria and the only partially acid fast bacteria Mycobacteria and Nocardia respectively
What do you conclude if a colony produces bubbles when you add H2O2 it is catalase positive
Gas gangrene, stormy fermentation in milk media Clostridium perfringens
Elek test documents toxin production (what differentiates pathogenic from nonpathogenic forms) of what bacterium? Corynebacterium diphteriae
Sulfatides is the main virulence factor of what agent, what does it grant it and how? Mycobacterium tuberculosis, allows it to be facultative intracellular by producing sulfuric acid that inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion
What serotype of Neisseria meningitidis capsule is the least immunogenic, allowing for disease cases even in vaccinated individuals? B
What is the most common bacterial urethritis? and second? How do you differentiate clinically? Chlamydia trachomatis #1, Neisseria gonorrhoeae #2 (exudate is more purulent)
What do you suspect in male patient with urethritis, you examine exudate under microscope and you see multiple pink small diplococci inside PMN cells? Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Patient with undulant fever and super profuse sweating Brucella
Brucella abortus is carried by what animal? cattle
Brucella melitensis is carried by what animal and is usually seen in what kind of Brucella infections? goats, chronic
Brucella suis carried by what animal? pigs
What's the most common bacterial infectious gastroenteritis? Campylobacter
Most common CA of food poisoning? Staph aureus preformed toxin
Most commonly seen serotype in cholera epidemics El Tor
Most common Enterohemorrhagic E. Coli associated with clinical disease in US O157H7
What are the toxins that increase cAMP? (mnemonic CAΣP) Cholera, Anthrax, E. coli LT, Pertussis
What is it that Treponema pallidum causes that manifests as aortic aneurysms in latent syphilis? endarteritis
Atherosclerosis predisposes to abscesses in lower body with what kind of bacteria? anaerobes
buffered charcoal yeast agar, weak Gram negative stain, smoker patient Legionella
where is botulinum toxin produced in infant botulism, and what did the baby ingest? Toxin produced in vivo, baby ingested endospore
What is the reservoir for Salmonella typhi? and for the non-typhi species? Typhi: humans. Non-typhi: animals (think poultry)
In the lab, how do you differentiate Neisseria meningitidis from gonorrhoeae? Meningitidis ferments maltose, whereas gonorrhoeae doesn't
Gram positive endocarditis in a prosthetic valve patient Staph epidermidis
Gram positive bacteria don't have ____________ membrane outer
Constipation + splenomegaly + rose-colored spots Salmonella typhii
What causes Bordetella pertussis to elicit hypoglycemia, lymphocytosis and histamine hypersensitivity? adenylate cyclase activating Pertussis toxin
Two bacteria linked to HUS EHEC and Shigella
What causes shock in Gram negative sepsis? LPS (endotoxin)
Main serotype of Strep. pyogenes associated with postreptococcal glomerulonephritis M12
Mechanism of action of Pertussis toxin ADP ribosylation of Gi protein --> Gi stops working --> continuous stimulation of adenylate cyclase
Mechanism of action of Pseudomonas exotoxin A and diphtheria toxin ADP ribosylation of eEF-2 --> inhibition of protein synthesis
Mechanism of action of Cholera enterotoxin and E. coli LT ADP ribosylation of Gs protein --> continuous stimulation of adenylate cyclase
Mechanism of action of E. coli Verotoxin and Shiga toxin interfere with 60S ribosomal subunit blocking protein synthesis
Mechanism of action of botulinum toxin blocking of ACh release
What protects Gram + bacteria from osmotic damage peptidoglycan
Bacteria that reduces nitrates, ferments lactose and causes cystitis E. coli
What does it mean for a bacteria to have a low oxidation-reduction requirement? it's an anaerobe
Whiff test aids in the diagnosis of Gardnerella vaginalis
CA of disease caused by inhalation of endospores that causes mediastinal widening and hemoptysis Bacillus anthracis
Bacteria that can cause renal calculi Proteus and Ureaplasma
What are the two body forms (and their functions) of Chlamydia? Elementary body (infectious, enters the cell), Reticular (replicates inside the cell)
Plasmid mediated mechanism of resistance to Penicillins and cephalosporins Production of Beta lactamases that cleave Beta lactam rings
Plasmid mediated mechanism of resistance to vancomycin Ligase that produces cell wall pentapeptides that terminate in D-alanine-D-lactate to which drug can't bind
Extrachromosomal genetic elements of bacteria that are non essential for life Plasmids
Bacteriophages can elicit two types of infections in a prokaryotic cell, what are them? lytic or lysogenic (aka temperate)
Name the two available processes to stabilize newly acquired DNA in a bacterial cell homologous and site specific recombination
Type of recombination that incorporates DNA into the bacterial chromosome and requires sequence homology and Recombinase A to produce a one - to - one exchange of DNA Homologous recombination
Type of recombination used to integrate circular pieces of DNA (temperate phage, transposons, plasmids) into the bacterial chromosome, that requires restriction endonucleases Site specific Recombination
Name the three mechanisms by which a bacterium can "import" DNA conjugation, transformation and transduction
DNA uptake mechanism that involves a competent bacterial cell taking naked free DNA from the environment and posterior homologous recombination Transformation
DNA acquisition mechanism that involves gene transfer from a donor cell (F+ or Hfr cell) to a recipient (F- cell), controlled by fertility factors and that results in ssDNA transfer Conjugation
Where is the tra operon in a F+ cell and in a Hfr cell? F+: plasmid. Hfr: chromosome.
Type of cross where one strand of the entire plasmid is transferred, results in a sex change in the recipient bacterium and involves a sex pilus F+ X F- cross
Type of cross where chromosomal genes closest to oriT are transferred, these genes MUST be stabilized by homologous recombination and there is no transfer of the tra operon, so there is no sex change in recipient bacterium? F- X Hfr cross
Transfer of bacterial DNA via a phage vector transduction
type of transduction generated by an error of a lytic phage life cycle Generalized transduction
Type of transduction generated by an error of a temperate phage life cycle Specialized transduction
Type of transduction where all genes have an equal chance of being transduced and takes place when a replicating (lytic) phage is assembling its parts to form a new phage and accidentally grabs bacterial DNA instead of phage DNA Generalized transduction
Type of transduction where only genes near the virus insertion site can be transferred, requires a temperate phage and lysogeny, as well as an error in excision, where transferred genes must undergo homologous recombination Specialized transduction
State of stable association of bacterial and phage DNA that may impart new characteristics to bacterial cells by expression of phage DNA and continues for as long as the repressor gene is functional Lysogeny
Virulence factors acquired through lysogenic conversion (COBEDS mnemonic... when 2 people share a bed, someone gets pregnant with a phage) Cholera toxin, O antigen of Salmonella, Botulinum toxin, Erythrogenic exotoxins of Strep. pyogenes, Diphtheria toxin, Shiga toxin
2 minimal requirements for a genetic element to be transposed Have sequences of indirect repeats on each end and have a gene coding for a transposase
How are multidrug resistance plasmids created? By adding up multiple transpositional recombination events in the same plasmid
What is a prophage? phage that remains stable and inserted in bacterial chromosome (temperate or lysogenic cycle)
What do you need to interpret a Kirby-Bauer agar disc diffusion test? Key
What step in viral replication is inhibited by antibodies? Attachment
What receptor and coreceptors are used by HIV? receptor: CD4, coreceptor in macrophages (early infection) CCR5, in T cells (late infection) CXCR4
Receptor used by EBV to invade B cells CD21
Receptor used by rabies to invade neurons ACh receptor
Receptor used by rhinovirus to enter epithelial cells in respiratory tract ICAM-1
What type of viral RNA is equivalent to mRNA, and thus doesn't need a RNA pol to start protein synthesis + RNA
What DNA virus uses a reverse transcriptase to replicate its genome? Hepatitis B
What are the two antiviral interferons? alpha and beta
What substance produced by virus infected cells temporarily shuts down protein synthesis in healthy cells to avoid viral replication? IF alpha and beta
What are the two naked hepatitis viruses? HepA and HepE
What viral hepatitis is super evil in pregnant women with a high mortality rate? Hepatitis E
What hepatitis virus can only infect HepB-infected cells? HepD
What serologic marker indicates chronic HepB infection if present for more than 6 months? HBsAg
Serologic marker that indicates immunity against HepB HBsAb
First Ab to appear in HepB infection, important for screening HBcAb
Serologic marker that indicates active HepB (and thus high infectivity) HBeAg
Serologic marker associated with low risk of transmission in chronic HepB patients HBeAb
Hepatitis virus that shows highest mortality of all Hepatitis D (Delta agent)
When can you find negative HBsAb and HBsAg in HepB infection? Window period
What are the DNA viruses? (Pardon Papa As He Has Pox) Parvovirus, Papilloma and Polyomavirus, Adenovirus, Hepadnavirus (Hep B), Herpes virus (HSV, VZV, EBV, CMV, HHV6, and HHV8), and Poxvirus (Variola, Vaccinia, Molluscum contagiosum)
What's the shape of the DNA viruses? Icosahedral except poxvirus, which is complex
Where do DNA viruses replicate? In the nucleus, except Poxvirus that can replicate in cytoplasm
What's the function of the papillomavirus E6 and E7 proteins? Inhibit p53 and Rb tumor suppressor genes, respectively
HPV serotypes associated with common warts 2 and 4
HPV serotype associated with plantar warts 1
HPV serotypes associated with condylomata acuminata 6 and 11
HPV serotypes associated with cervicouterine cancer 16 and 18 (31 and 35 too)
What are the 2 recombinant viral vaccines? Gardasil and HepB
Name 3 infectious diseases and their agent that cause slow degeneration of the CNS 1. Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy - JC virus 2. Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis - defective measles virus 3. Creutzfeld - Jakob Disease - prion 4. AIDS dementia - HIV
CA of acute hemorrhagic cystitis seen in boys 5-15 with only dysuria and hematuria Adenovirus
CA of Burkitt lymphoma and Hodgkin lymphoma EBV
Congenital infection characterized by CNS damage, jaundice, hepatosplenomegaly and thrombocytic purpura CMV
Toddler presents afebrile with a body rash. Mother reports high fever over the past 4 days. Name disease and CA Roseola or exanthema subitum by HHV6
CA whose pathogenesis is activation of Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor and name of the disease it causes HHV8 - Kaposi sarcoma
CA of bacillary angiomatosis Bartonella henseslae
Site of latency of HHV6 and CMV mononuclear cells
Site of latency of EBV B cells
Name the positive RNA viruses (Call Henry, Pico, Flavio To Come Retro) Calicivirus, Hepevirus, Picornavirus, Flavivirus, Togavirus, Coronavirus, Retrovirus
Name the Picornaviruses (PEE Co Rn A) Polio, Enterovirus, ECHO, Coxsackie, Rhinovirus, Hepatitis A
Most common cause of common cold, likes cold weather Rhinovirus
Most common cause of myocarditis in a healthy, young individual Coxsackie B
Name the only Flavivirus that is not an arbovirus Hepatitis C
If you see a patient with jaundice and black vomit you think... Yellow fever
Infant presents febrile with a rash that started in the forehead and then spread to entire body, mother says baby has been eating and sleeping well, you find marked retroauricular and cervical lymphadenopathy, Diagnosis? Rubella
Infant presents febrile with rash covering entire body, mother states it started in the neck after a few days with what seemed to be a common cold, baby has not been eating well, has trouble sleeping. Diagnosis? Measles
Neonate born with cataracts and evoked auditory potentials results show deafness. You call the pediatric cardiologist for assessment. What infection did the mother likely acquire during pregnancy and to what family it belongs? Rubella - Togavirus
What are the first Ab to be detected in early HIV infection? Ab vs p24
HIV surface protein that binds to CD4 and coreceptors gp120
HIV protein that serves as fusion protein gp41
In what HIV gene will you find a mutation if an HIV positive patient never develops AIDS in spite of never having taken antiretrovirals? If the HIV virus shows no mutation, then what mutation does the patient have? HIV- Nef gene Patient- CCR5 gene
In what HIV gene is the protein p24 coded? Gag
In what HIV gene are the proteins responsible for attachment and fusion coded? Env
CD4 count diagnostic for AIDS in HIV positive patient 200
What cytokine is directly responsible for HIV wasting syndrome? TNF alpha
HIV pt at risk of toxoplasma when CD4 falls below what number? 100
Name the negative RNA viruses (Pain Results From Our Bunions Always) Paramyxovirus, Rhabdovirus, Filovirus, Orthomyxovirus, Bunyavirus, Arenavirus
Viral family whose genome is linear and divided in 8 segments Orthomyxovirus
Name the Paramyxoviruses Parainfluenza, Measles, Mumps, RSV
Name 2 viruses that cause rashes and form syncytia, so you can see giant cell pneumonia as a complication measles and VZV
Main CA of croup Parainfluenza
main reservoir of rabies in the US raccoons
What family of viruses destroy endothelial cells, causing a hemorrhagic fever? what's the most important member in the family? Filovirus - Ebola
What type of influenza virus affects animals too? Influenza A
Pathogenesis of both influenza viruses that is responsible for epidemics where even vaccinated individuals can get ill Antigenic drift
Envelope protein of influenza virus that mediates entry into the host cell Hemagglutinin
Envelope protein of influenza virus that mediates exit from host cell Neuraminidase
Pathogenic factor of Influenza A virus that is responsible for pandemics Antigenic shift
What kind of vaccine is the influenza vaccine? killed virus
What's the only family of double-stranded RNA viruses and it's most relevant member? Reovirus - rotavirus
What kind of vaccine is the rotavirus vaccine? Live attenuated oral
What does EBV require to cause Burkitt Lymphoma? coinfection with malaria
What are the two viruses linked to primary hepatocellular carcinoma? Hep B and Hep C
Virus that can cause Th cell leukemia/lymphoma? HTLV-1
CA of hairy cell leukemia? HTLV-2
What did a child with sore throat and conjunctivitis likely do in the days prior to the disease? swim in a community pool
Patient presents with fever and a lacy body rash that started in the face. What's the CA? Parvovirus B19
Gene that carries code for reverse transcriptase in HIV Pol gene
Renal transplant patient presents with interstitial pneumonia, name most likely CA CMV
Diarrhea causing virus in the calicivirus family Norwalk virus
Virus responsible of orchitis and sterility as complication mumps
Chronic viral infection that undergoes genetic drift as one of its pathogenetic factors, complicating immune response HIV
Main viral cause of death in BM transplant patients CMV
Major membrano sterol of fungi ergosterol
Form taken by dimorphic fungi in warm environments (body) yeast (mold in the cold, yeast in the heat)
Culture medium that kills bacteria allowing fungi to grow Sabouraud agar
Superficial skin fungus that causes no inflammatory response and needs lipids for survival. Disease seen in moist, warm environments. Name the disease too Malassezia furfur - pityriasis, tinea versicolor
Tissues infected by the genus Trichophyton Skin, hair, nails
tissues infected by the genus Epidermophyton nails, skin
Tissues infected by the genus Microsporum Skin, hair
CA of the tinea capiti that leads to permanent hair loss Tinea favosa
What genus of the three involved in tinea fluoresces bright yellow- green under Wood lamp? Microsporum
What fungus displays a cigar shaped yeast morphology? Sporothrix schenckii
Opportunistic fungus that is filamentous branching at 45ª Aspergillus
Nonseptate filamentous fungus branching at 90ª responsible for opportunistic infections that display black pus Mucor / Rhizopus
CD4 count expected in AIDS patient with Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia < 50
Fungus whose morphology is described as spaghetti and meatballs Malassezia furfur
Opportunistic fungus that causes infarction of tissues Aspergillus
AIDS patient with persistent watery diarrhea, stool shows nice round oocysts. Name most likely CA Cryptosporidium parvum
AIDS patient with persistent watery diarrhea, stool shows elliptical oocysts. Name most likely CA Isospora belli
CA associated with keratitis that in immunocompromised patients can progress to fatal granulomatous encephalitis, usually acquired through contaminated contact lense solution Acanthamoeba
Parasite associated with Schuffner's dots in red blood cells Plasmodium vivax
Parasite associated with oval-shaped RBC Plasmodium ovale
Two species of Plasmodium that can stay in liver as hypnozoites and cause 48-hour fever spikes Plasmodium vivax and ovale
Malaria species that is associated with 72-hour fever spikes Plasmodium malariae
Plasmodium species associated with irregular fever spikes and cerebral malaria in children Plasmodium falciparum
Parasite associated with bars and bands in RBC Plasmodium malariae
Drug that eradicates plasmodia in RBC stage chloroquine
Drug that eradicates plasmodia in liver stage primaquine
Plasmodium most highly associated with chloroquine resistance P. falciparum
What is Romaña sign and to what disease is it linked? Swelling around the eye, early sign of Chagas disease (Trypanosoma cruzi)
Disease spread by Reduviid or kissing bug Chagas
Patient presents with target rash and flu like illness, doxycycline started and after a few days patient still febrile with chills and tremors. You order a Giemsa stain of RBC and lab reports maltese crosses in RBC. What is the CA and treatment? Babesia - clindamycin and quinine
AIDS patient with focal CNS signs, headaches and CT scan reports ring enhancing lesions. CA? Toxoplasma
A 12 year old presents with progressive blindness. What did his mom likely ate in her late pregnancy? raw pork
Congenital infection that presents with chorioretinitis, intracerebral calcifications and microcephaly Toxoplasma gondii
Avid swimmer presents with liver granulomas. Stools show ova with subterminal spine Schistosoma mansoni
Rice field peasant presents with liver granulomas. Stools show ova with subterminal spine Schistosoma japonicum
Egyptian woman with hematuria has stools that show ova with terminal spine. Name CA and possible long-term complication Schistosoma haematobium - bladder cancer
Adult that had to walk barefoot in the Great Lakes presents with severe itching that resolved after a week, what did he become infected with? A non-human schistosome
Avid sushi eater presents with vasculitis, rash and fever. Stools show operculated eggs (like vases with a lid). What's the CA? Clonorchis sinensis
Patient with abdominal pain and mild diarrhea for 3 weeks brings stool sample that shows eggs that look like tires. What did he eat and what's the CA? raw beef, Taenia saginata
Parasite associated with megaloblastic anemia D. latum
Drug of choice for tapeworms Praziquantel
Scotch tape test showing ova bearing larva and having a flattened side is diagnostic for Enterobius vermicularis
Kid with intense perianal itching having trouble sleeping should be treated with mebendazole
Parasite associated with appendicitis, rectal prolapse and showing eggs shaped like a football with bipolar plugs trichuris trichuria
knobby eggs are associated with the most common helminth worldwide, which is: ascaris lumbricoides
Hookworm (necator americanus) is associated with what hematologic condition? how is it acquired? anemia - walking barefoot
cutaneous larva migrans is seen in infections with what parasite? Ancylostoma spp.
Hunter shows up with nail bed splinter hemorrhages, fever, and intense myalgia. He admits to having eaten bear meat. What's the CA? Trichinella spiralis
Sandflies are the vector for what parasitic infection? Leishmania
Anopheles mosquito is associated with what parasitic infection? Malaria
the ventral sucking disc of this parasite causes malabsorptive foul-smelling diarrhea Giardia lamblia
Parasite that causes bloody diarrhea, fever, and shows RBC inside Entamoeba hystolytica
Food poisoning associated with potato salad Heat stable enterotoxin of Staph. aureus
Vomit, abdominal cramps and diarrhea after eating rice Bacillus cereus' heat stable toxin intoxication
Hepatitis virus associated with higher percentage of chronicity Hepatitis C
Most common CA of osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia or splenectomized patients Salmonella
Most common CA of osteomyelitis Staph. aureus
Most common CA of osteomyelitis following trauma Pseudomonas
60 year old presents with pain and redness of knee, low-grade fever and reduced joint mobility, name CA Staph. aureus
32 year old presents with pain and redness of knee and elbow, low-grade fever and reduced joint mobility, name CA Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Arthritis of prosthetic joint, most common CA coagulase negative staph
Quellung reaction is used to typify what Gram + coccus? Streptococcus pneumoniae (also Gram - Hib, Klebsiella pneumoniae)
Bacterial meningitis causes low CSF sugar, high cellularity and _____ proteins high
2 most commonly involved bacteria (and what they are associated with) in endocarditis Strep. viridans (poor oral hygiene) and Enterococcus faecium (bowel surgery)
meningitis causing pleomorphic Gram negative rods Haemophilus influenzae
Drug of choice for most meningitis third generation cephalosporin
How does a conjugated vaccine work? capsular non-proteic antigen (hapten) of the bact is coupled with a protein carrier (usually diphtheria toxin) so that hapten stimulates B cells specific for it to produce Ab, and protein carrier stimulates TH cells to induce isotype switching in B cells
Child develops unilateral mucopurulent conjunctivitis at 10 days of age. When inoculated into tissue culture cells, iodine-staining inclusion bodies are seen. Why can't this bacterium survive extracellularly? Can't produce ATP
How does amantadine work? inhibits viral uncoating
How does oseltamivir work? inhibits neuraminidase
Plasmodium species found in Central America Vivax
What is the common way of describing intranuclear inclusions with perinuclear clearing on H&E stain, and what virus causes it? Owl's eyes - CMV
Calcium dipicolinate is important for Spore formation
What bacteria is seen as lancet shaped diplococci? Pneumococcus
What bacteria is seen as kidney or bean shaped diplococci? Neisseria
Virus that comes to mind when you see Negri bodies rabies
Guarnieri bodies are associated to what virus? Poxviruses
Cowdry bodies seen with what virus? Herpes simplex
Urease positive organisms (PUNCH) Proteus, Ureaplasma, Nocardia, Cryptococcus and Helicobacter
Catalase positive organisms cause infections in patients with Chronic Granulomatous Disease. Name 5 pathogens that are catalase positive Staphylococci, Candida, Pseudomonas, Aspergillus, Enterobacteriaceae
Name 2 coagulase positive bacteria Staph. aureus and Yersinia pestis
Mechanism of action of tetanus toxin Binds to ganglioside in synaptic membrane blocking release of glycine and GABA
Protein that makes Group A Streptococci resistant to phagocytosis M
Bacteria that shows pili with antigenic variation, favoring chronic infection and attachment to epithelium N. gonorrhoeae
Infections that cross the placenta (TORCH) Toxoplasma, Other (Syphilis), Rubella, CMV, HIV and Herpes
Mycoplasma require _________ to grow in culture medium cholesterol
Organisms that will grow on high salt media (2) Staph. aureus and Vibrio
Inactivated vaccines (RIP Always) Rabies Influenza Polio A (Hepatitis A)
Live attenuated vaccines (you can't give to pregnant or IC). Name 7 Measles, Mumps, Rubella, Rotavirus, Yellow fever, Varicella zoster, Sabin
Only live pathogenic virus vaccine Adenovirus
Waterhouse - Friderichsen Syndrome (hemorrhagic adrenalitis) seen in infections with what bacteria? Neisseria meningitidis
What is Jarisch -Herxheimer reaction and with what organisms is it seen? Seen in infections with spirochetes after antibiotic killing because of release of modified endotoxin (LPS). Fever, chills, hypotension, tachycardia, tachipnea. Usually self-limiting
Created by: nelagomez
Popular USMLE sets




Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
restart all cards