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RES 222

RES 222- Adult pathophysio

In fungal diseases of the lung, tactile, and vocal fremitus would more than likely be decreased FALSE
Which of the following are clinical manisfestations that may be associated with TB Dull precussion note, bronchial breath sounds, radiographic evidence of cavity formation
Clinical findings associated with lung abscess are Decreased FEVT and Foul smelling brown or gray sputum
When lung abscess is caused by methicillin-suseptible strains of Staph aureus, nafcillin or oxacillin may be used to treat it TRUE
In the wet drowning victim a normal chest radiograph in the first 24 hours rules out the possiblity of alveolar-capiliary deterioration FALSE
A positive tuberculin test begins with a wheal of what size 10mm or greater
In wet drowning, when fluid is initially inhaled, the bronchi ___________ in response to a _____________ reflex. constrict, parasympathetic-mediated
When a pulmonary embolus lodges itself in the pulmonary circulation there is an increase in blood flow distal to the obstruction1 FALSE
Which of the following is by far the most common source of pulmonary embolism Blood clot
Pulmonary edema is considered an obstructive pulmonary disorder False
All of following are considered major pathologic or structual changes associated with pulmonary edema frothy pink secretions throughout the tracheobroncial tree, alveolar atelectasis and intersitial edema
Because no carbon dioxide or oxygen exchange occurs beyond a pulmonary embolus, dead space and wasted ventilation increases TRUE
_______________ refers to infection from bacilli that escape from a tubercle and move to sites other than the lungs Disseminated tuberculosis and extrapulmonary tuberculosis
Major pathologic and structual changes occuring with wet drowning include frothy white and pink secretions t/o the tracheobroncial tree, intersitial edema, larngospasm and bronchospasm
TB bacilli are almost exculsively transmitted within aerosol droplets, produced by the coughing, sneezing, or laughing of an individual with active TB True
Graduated compression stockings used to prevent pulmonary embolism, help the veins and muscles move more blood more efficiently by squeezing the patient's arm false
What happens to alveolar surface tension in pulmonary edema it increases
which of the following may be pathologic or structual changes to the lungs associated with pulmonary embolism alveolar atelectasis, pulmonary infarction, blockage of the pulmonary vascular system, possible release of cellular mediators leading to bronchoconstriction
When a drowning victim with fixed and dilated pupils has been submerged in cold water for 30 minutes the prognosis is always poor. true or false? false
Which of the following are clinical findings associated with pulmonary embolism Increased density in infracted areas on radiograph, increased pulmonary artery pressure, decreased DO2
In QFT-G testing an elevated IFN-gamma level is diagnostic of TB, true or false? TRUE
Echinocandins is a relatively new class of antifungal agnets used to treat fungal infections from Aspergillus and Candida, True or False? TRUE
When is it necessary to intubate and mechanically ventilate a drowning victim? The patient is not breathing spontaneously or The patient is breathing spontaneously with a PaO2 <60 mmHg on an FIO2 0.40
Which of the following is the most common fungal infection in the United States? Histoplasmosis
Apena associated with near wet drowning is directly related to the length of time the victim is submerged (i.e. the longer the submersion the more likely the victim is w/o spontaneous respirations) TRUE
Pulmonary angiography is an extremly accurate test for determining the presence of pulmonary embolism? true or false TRUE
Chest assessment findings commonly show which of the following directly over a lung abscess? pleural friction rub, dull percussion note, bronchial breath sounds, dimished breath sounds
The most commonlyu used tuberculin skin test is the Mantoux test
Colloid osmotic pressure is called oncotic pressure TRUE
Which of the following is/are considered first-line agent(s) of tuberculosis for the entire 9 month protocol Isoniazid and Rifampid
H Capsulatum is commonly found in the soil that is near chicken houses, pigeon lofts, and barns TRUE
The chest radiograph for lung abscess will more than likely show decreased opacity, cavity formation and pleural effusion FALSE
A necrosis of lung tissue that, in severe cases leads to a localized air and fluid-filled cavity is the definition of Lung Abscess
During treatment the victim's body temperature may be increased using which of the following IV administration of heat solutions, heated lavage to peritoneal spaces, heating blankets, heating the victim's inspired air
During wet drowning cardiogenic pulmonary edema results from fluid in the pulmonary capillaries moving into the perivascular spaces FALSE
Vancomycin is commonly used to treat methcillin-resistant strains of S Aureus TRUE
What is considered tthe most common cause of pulmonary edema? increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
Risk factors associated with causing pulmonary embolism realted to venous stasis include Inactivity/prolong sitting, Excesive hip or abdominal operations
which of the following fungal infections are considered opportunistic pathogens seen in patients with HIV infection Cryptococcus and Aspergillius
Which of the following are considered common causes of cardiogenic pulmonary Excessive fluid administration, left ventricle failure, and mitral valve disease
Which of the following is considered a thrombolytic agent used in treating pulmonary embolism Streptokinase
Which of the following are clinical findings that may be associated with pulmonary edema Decreased pH and increased PaCO2 in severe edema, Decreased cardio outout, Increased shunting
At onset, those portions of the lungs affected by pulmonary embolism will have a _______ High V/Q ratio
Medications and procedures used to help manage pulmonary edema include Positive inotropic agents, diuretic agents, ACE inhibitors
The following are pathologic or structural changes associated with lung abscess Atelectasis, cavity formation, tissue necrosis, fibrosis and calcification of the lung parenchyma
Which of the following anatomic alterations of the lungs are associated with lung abscess Cavity formation, alveolar consolidation, Bronchopleural fistula, Atelectasis, excessive airway secretions
Which of the following should be done when treating a near drowning victim during transport? Administer the highest quality CPR possible, Conserve the victim's body heat, Administer 100% oxygen
Which of the following are clinical findings in near wet drowning victim Tachypnea, Decreased lung compliance, An increase in intra-pulmonary shunting
What is the normal hydrostatic pressure in the pulmonary capillaries that tends to move fluid out of the pulmonary capillaries 10-15 mm Hg
Which of the following factors favor a positive prognosis in cold-water near drowning?? The colder the water the better
The different types of drowing include: Wet drowning, near drowing, dry drowning
After being inhaled, fungal spores may reach the lungs where ________ and ________ engulf them. Macrophages and Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
Coccidioidmycosis is also known as Desert fever
Which of the following is considered the drug of choice for most fungal infections? IV Amphotercin B
Predisposing factors that frequently lead to the aspiration of gastrointestinal fluids (and anaerobes) are usually related to which of the following? General anesthesia, head trauma, cerebrovascular accident, seizure disorder, alcoholic abuse
Coughing and hemoptysis due to a pulmonary embolism can be the result of plasma moving across the alveolar capillary membrane into the alveolar spaces, increased pulmonary hydrostatic pressure, red blood cells moving across the alveolar capillary membrane
Which of the following may be implicated in causing ILD? Berylliosis, Silicosis, Goodpasture's syndrome, Coal dust, and Radiation therapy
Is pneumonthorax considered an obstructive disorder? NO
Kyphosis is a posterior curve of the spine
The main goal of managing interstitial lung disease is directed at controlling the inflammation associated with the various disorders TRUE
What term is used to describe the accumulation of gas (free air) in the pleural space Pneumothorax
In the most severe cases a chest tube is commonly used to treat a pneumothorax. since air rises the tube is normally placed posteriorly near the base of the lung FALSE
Squamous cell carcinoma originates from the basal cells of the bronchial epithelium
Surgical resection is usually an option for patients with NSCLC up to stage IIIA TRUE
In patients suffering from kyphoscoliosis oxygen therpay is used to; treat hypoxemia, decrease the work of breathing and decrease myocardial work. Hypoxemia caused by capillary shunting is often refractory to oxygen therapy TRUE
Which of the following are considered major pathological or structural changes associated with pleural effusion Compression of the great veins, Atelectasis, Decrease venous return of blood to the heart, lung compression
NONE of the following are clinical manifestations below that are normally assoicated with kyposcoliosis Decreased heart size seen on chest radiograph due to cor pulmonale, Increased FVC, Decreased pulmonary shunting, Hyperinflated areas seen on chest radiograph where lung compression is evident, decreased CVP and PA
Polycythemia and cor pulmonale are both late findings associated with kyphoscoliosis True
During the chronic stages of ILD the inflammatory state is charcterized by edema and the infiltration of a variety of RBCs in the alveolar walls FALSE
NONE of the of the following are considered clinical findings associated with pneumothorax Decreased VC, Decreased FRC, Increased CVP, and Decreased cardio output
Which of the following can be used in managing/ treating pleural effusion Chest tube drainage, pleurodesis, Hyperinflatio protocol, Thoracentesis, Oxygen therapy protocol
When gas (free air) enters the pleural space the visceral and parietal pleura bond together FALSE
Which of the following are also used to describe interstitial lung disease Pulmonary fibrosis and Pneumoconiosis
Because acute changes superimposed on chronic ventilatory failure are rarely seen in the patient with ILD the use of mechanical ventilation is never required FALSE
A mediastinal shift to the unaffected side may be associated with a pleural effusion TRUE
The following are considered major pathologic or structural changes associated with ILD Cavity formation, Honeycombing, and Bronchospasm
Identify the clinical manifestations that may be assciated with pleural effusion Increased pulmonary shunting, Increased CVP and Increased PVR, Blunting of the costophrenic angles and the pressence of a meniscus sign on chest radiograph, depressed diaphragm
A pnumothorax that is the result of a specific diagnostic or therapeutic procedure is referred to as a traumatic pneumothorax FALSE
Fail chest is considered a obstructive pulmonary disorder False
Trauma to the neck commonly causes which of the following Chylothorax
Systemic lupus erythematosus presents as a multisystem disorder mainly involving the skin and joints. However, the lungs are involved in about _______ of the cases 50% to 70%
Surgery is normally the best option for those patients who have NSCLC in both lungs up to an including stage IV disease FALSE
Thoracentesis may be useful both therapeutically and diagnostically in the management of pleural effusion TRUE
Systemic diseases associated with ILD include Scleroderma
Which of the following are considered causes of flail chest? Motor vehicle accident, Industrial accident, Direct compression by a heavy object
What value is used as a benchmark for not being able to view a pleural effusion on an upright chest x-ray? when the effusion is less than 300ml
The hypoxemia associated ILD is normally caused by Capillary shunting,Alveolar thickening, fibrosis
What type of radiographic technique should be used when a pleural effusion is difficult to determine because of the obliteration to one or both diaphragms by atelectasis and or pulmonary infiltrates Lateral decubitus view
Which of the following describes ILD It can be both a restrictive and an obstructive disorder
The clinical manifestations associated with Kyphoscoliosis are based on the clinical scenarios activated by which of the following Excessive bronchial secertions and Atelectasis
Which of the following seem to be possible causes of Kyposcoliosis Neuromuscular disorders, Hormonal imbalance, Tumors, Bone infections
A disorder where there are double fractures of at least three or more adjacent ribs causing the thoracic cage to become unstable is specifically referred to as____________ A Flail chest
The presence of blood in the pleural space is best known as _________ and can be confirmed by checking___________ Hemothorax, Hematocrit
The most common cause of plerual effusion is congestive heart failure
In a patient with a pneumothorax when is the evacuation of air from the pleural cavity usually necessary When it is larger than 20%
Microscopic examiniation of the thickened septa in asbestosis reveals brown or orange baton-like structures
What type of breath sounds are produced by a pneumothorax Decreased breath sounds
An increased respiratory rate seen in patient's with kyposcoliosis may be the result of which pathophysiologic mechanisms? Decreased lung compliance/increased respiratory rate relationship, Stimulation of perpheral chemoreceptors, pain/anxiety, Hypoxemia
What is the term specifically used to describe a pneumothorax that results in a one-way valve allowing gas to enter the pleural space on inspiration but prohibiting it from leaving on expiration tension/ closed pneumothorax
In order to evacuate air from the pleural cavity and re-expand a lung affected by a pneumothorax, the suction should not exceed -12cmH2O
Major causes of a transudative pleural effusion include Hepatic cirrhosis, Pulmonary embolus, Neprhrotic Syndorme
Which type of lung cancer is most associated with cigarette smoking and carries with it the worst prognosis Oat-cell carcinoma
Treatment/management options for those patients with small-cell lung cancer usually include: Supportive care, Chemotherapy, Radiation therapy
Which of the following is/are non-small-cell lung cancers Squamous carcinoma, Adenocarinoma
Which of the following may be associated with Kyphoscoliosis? Rhonchi, Dull percussion note, Bronchial breath sounds
A spontaneous pneumothorax is secondary to which of the following disorders COPD, TB, Pneumonia
Respiratory care treatment options for the patient diagnosised with Lung CA include: O2 therapy, Aersolized medication protocol, Bronchopulmonary hygiene, Lung expansion therapy
Common surgical procedures suggested for the patient with NSCLC include: Lobectomy, pneumonectomy, wedge resection
Large cell carcinoma is an undifferntiated form of lung cancer
Fill in the blanks: In severe cases of pneumonthorax the great veins can become _______ and cause ________ return to the heart to the heart to__________. Compressed, venous, diminished
Which of the following are considered major pathological or structural changes associated with bronchogenic carcinoma Airway obstruction from blood, mucus accumulation or a tumor projecting into a bronchus, Atelectasis, Pleural effusion, and cavity formation
Which of the following may be considered small-cell lung cancers Oat-cell carcinoma
Major pathological or structural changes of the lungs associated with Kyphoscoliosis include Mediastinal shift, Atelectasis, Lung compression due to thoracic deformity
Select the statements below that describe the TNM classification system The letter " N" in the TMN system represents lymph node involvement, The letter "M" in the TMN system denotes the extent of metastasis, Roman numerals assist in identifying the different stages of cancer with " IV" indicating the most advanced stage
Select the clinical manifestations that can be associated with ILD: Decreased PEFR, Pitting edema and distended neck veins, Increased pulmonary shunting, CXR exhibiting cavity formation, granulomas and/or bilateral reticulonodular appearance
which of the following are used to managed/ treat flail chest Routine bronchial hygiene, Oxygen therapy protocol, Medication for pain management, volume controlled ventilation with PEEP to stalize the flail
Which of the following normally help to determine the prognosis for a victim of a fire Age of the victim, Duration and extent of smoke exposure, chemical composition of the smoke being inhaled
the cause of Myasthenia Gravis appears to be related to circulating antibodies that disrupt the transmission of acetylcholine TRUE
What is the therapeutic goal of low tidal volume ventilation in ARDS Decrease barotraumas, reduce overdistention of the lungs
A phrenic pacemaker is normally recommended for the patient suffering from obstructive sleep apnea FALSE
Direct thermal injuries normally do not occur below the level of the larynx execpt in the rare instance of steam inhalation TRUE
The half-life of CO in the patient breathing room air at 1 atm is approximately 5 hours
Obstructive sleep apnea appears to be the most severe in what sleep position supine postition
Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is always used for the elimination of CO in the smoke inhalation victim FALSE
Thermal injury occurring to the distal airways post inhalation of steam results COP, BOOP
The thymus gland in many myasthenic patients appears to be the source of anti-Ach receptor antibodies TRUE
Which of the following medications are useful in the treatment of blood pressure and cardiac disturbances for the patient with Guillain-Barre syndrome Nipride, Atropine, Phentolamine
Even when diagosed early, patients suffering from Guillain- Barre syndrome have a poor progonosis for recovery FALSE
The diagnosis of sleep apnea is made based on patients who have more than five episodes of apnea per hour. These episodes occur only in non-REM sleep over a 3 hour period FALSE
Which of the following are considered etiologic factors associated with ARDS Drug overdose, shock, Infections, Oxygen toxicity, Aspiration
The distal airways and alveoli are usually protected from thermal injury by reflex laryngospasm, glottic closure
The diagnosis of sleep apnea may be confirmed by confirmed by polysomnographic sleep studies TRUE
ARDS is considered an obstructive lung disorder FALSE
The etiology of myasthenia gravis appears to be associated _________ antibodies that block nerve impulse transmission at the neuromuscular junction IgG
Select the signs and symptoms below that may be associated with obstructive sleep apnea Shortness of breath following abrupt awakenings, Nocturnal enuresis, Morning headache, Snoring loudly
Treatment for cyanide poisoning may include IV sodium thiosulfate and inhalation of amyl nitire TRUE
Serum levels of IgM antibodies against myelin glycolipid have been found to be ________ in the patient with Guillain-Barre syndrome elevated
Mixed sleep apnea is a combination of central and obstructive sleep apnea and commonly begins as OSA FALSE
Third spacing fluid shifts associated with body surface burns can result in intravascular volume loss (hypovolemia) TRUE
The 3 Primary types of sleep apnea are classified as Obstructive sleep apnea, Mixed sleep apnea I, Central sleep apnea
Chest xray findings associated with ARDS include Increased opacity and Ground glass appearance
CO poisoning can greatly reduce oxygen transport because its affinity for hemoglobin is 400 times greater than that of oxygen FALSE
Myasthenia gravis is more common in younger men FALSE
Select the appropriate treatment for the patient who has recently inhaled hot gases and exhibits signs of impending UAO Endotracheal intubation
The signs and symptoms of thermal injury associated with smoke inhalation can always be identified immediately, especially when extensive body surface burns are present FALSE
Select from the list below the major structual or pathologic lungs changes that may be associated with ventilatory failure accompanying myasthenia gravis Atelectasis, Airway obstruction, Alveolar consolidation, Accumilation of mucus
Most thermal injuries affect the distal airways and alveoli FALSE
The use of plasmapheresis in treatment of Guillian-Barre syndrome is aimed at the removal of damaged antibodies from the patient's blood plasma and has shown to be effective in reducing the antibody titer during early stages of the disease TRUE
Which of the following are considered beneficial in managing the patient with Guillian- Barre syndrome Frequent measurement of the patient's VC, BP, and NIF, Heparin therapy, Measurement of the patient's oxygen saturation, Plasmapheresis, Aterial blood gas measurement
What techniques may be useful in the diagnosing of myasthenia gravis CT and/or MRI, Blood analysis, Electromyography, Evaluating the patient's clinical history, Endrophonium testing, Neurologic examination
Coricosteriod therapy has been shown to be effective in the treatment of Guillain-Barre ayndrome and shorten False
What chronic neurologicval disorder is characterized by the interference of acetylcholine between the axonal terminal and the receptor sites of voluntray muscle Myathenia Graivs
Which of the following describes obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) Its cause is an anatomic obsruction of the upper airway in the presence of continued ventilatory effort
The chest radiograph associated with smoke inhalation is usually normal during the early stage
All of the following are considered major pathological or structual changes associated with ARDS Alveolar consolidation, Atelectasis, Intra-alveolar hyaline membrane formation
Which of the following describes the strategy of reducing the tidal volume thereby allowing the patient's PaCO2 to increase in order to protect the lungs from high airway pressures Permissive hypercapnia
Apnea is defined as the cessation of breathing for 10 seconds or longer
a burn identified as full thickness of the skin including tissue beneath the skin describes a 3rd degree burn
Pathologic changes in the distal airways and alveoli mainly caused by irritating and toxic gases are commonly associated with smoke inhalation
Sleep apnea that occurs with the cessation of inspiratory efforts as the result of the respiratory centers of medulla failing to send signals to the respiratory muscles is known as CSA
The following events may occur during REM sleep Negative pressure generated by the diaphragm produces paradoxical motion of the rib cage, Loss of muscle tone in the upper airway can result in airway obstruction, the heart rate can become irregular
Treatment modalities for managing sleep apnea may include UPPP, Nocturnal CPAP used to treat OSA, Phrenic nerve pacemarker used to treat central sleep apnea
The mucosa of the tracheobronchial tree very often becomes necrotic and sloughs ________ post inhalation of smoke 3-4 days
Select the clinical finding below that may be associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome Negative inspiratory force (NIF) measurement is decreased
Correct sequence of events resulting in the manifestation of ARDS Pulmonary capillaries engorgement post-injury, Increased permeability of the alveolar-capillary membrane, Evidence of intra-alveolar edema and hemorrhage, decreased surfactant, Alveolar collapse and atelectasis
Which of the following are true regarding NON-REM sleep? Non-REM sleep consists of 4 separate stages of sleep, Non-REM sleep usually lasts 60 to 90 minutes, It is possible for an individual to move directly into REM sleep from any of the 3 stages of Non-REM sleep
A burn identified as superficial to deep thickness describes a 2nd degree burn
Which of the following may anti-cholinesterase agents may be used to help treat myasthenia gravis Prostigmin, Pyridostigmine, Mestinon, Neostingmine
During periods of sleep apnea the heart rate ______ then _______ after termination of the apne decreases then increases
Which of the following are clinical findings that may be associated with myasthenia gravis Decreased tidal volume, Increased pulmonary shunting, Decreased DO2
The onset of Guillain-Barre syndrome usually occurs ____________ 1 to 4 weeks after a febrile episode such as a mild upper respiratory infection
The initial care of the burn patient should include assessment of the following Cardiovascular status, Respiratory status, Percentage of body burned, Patient's airway
Which of the following appear to attack and strip off the myelin sheath of the peripheral nerves and leave selling/fragmentation of the neural axon in Guillain-Barre syndrome Lymphocytes and Macrophages
The current ventilation strategy for the majority of patients with ARDS suggests the use of initial tidal volumes of 5 to 7 ml/kg, Ventilatory rates as high as 35bpm in order to maintain adequate minute ventilation, low tidal volumes and high respiratory rates, PEEP and CPAP to reduce atelectasis
Created by: angelsfan
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