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Nur-354

Quiz #5 - Cancer

TermDefinition
What do protooncogenes do? Promote growth
What do tumor suppressor genes do? Inhibit growth
What is contact inhibition? Inhibits growth
What is apoptosis? Programmed cell death
What does "C" mean in caution? Change in bowel or bladder habits
What does "A" mean in caution? A sore that does not heal
What does "U" mean in caution? Unusual bleeding or discharge from any orifice
What does "T" mean in caution? Thickening or a lump in the breast or elsewhere
What does "I" mean in caution? Indigestion or difficulty swallowing
What does "O" mean in caution? Obvious change in wart or mole
What does "N" mean in caution? Nagging cough or hoarseness
What does proliferate mean? Increase in number
What does differentiation refer to? Function
Name three characteristics of malignant neoplasms Invade and metastasize, poorly differentiated, increased vascularity
Name three characteristics of benign neoplasms Encapsulated, well differentiated, rarely recur
What are the three stages of cancer development? Initiation, promotion, progression
How is the initiation stage of cancer development described? Irreversible mutation caused by a trigger
How is the promotion stage of cancer development described? Reversible proliferation based on promoting factors
How is the progression stage of cancer development described? Increased proliferation, invasiveness and metastasis
How is the latent period defined? The time between genetic change and clinical signs (time between initiation and promotion)
What are the most common sites of metastasis? Brain, bone, adrenals, liver, lungs
What is angiogenesis? Ability to grow new blood vessels
Which cells initiate an immune response to tumor associated antigens? Lymphocytes
What are tumor associated antigens? Abnormal antigens; cells that are different
What are oncofetal antigens? Cells shift back to immature, less differentiated state
Name four tumor markers CEA, AFP, CA-125 and PSA
How are tumor markers helpful? They are used to monitor therapy; if they're present, then therapy needs to continue
What type of cancer is indicated with the presence of CEA? Colorectal cancers
What type of cancer is indicated with the presence of AFP? Liver cancers
What type of cancer is indicated with CA-125? Breast cancer
What type of cancer is indicated with PSA? Prostate cancer
From what tissue type do brain, skin, and gland cells come from? Ectoderm
From what tissue type do muscles, bone and connective tissue come from? Mesoderm
From what tissue type do trachea, lungs and epithelium tissue come from? Endoderm
From what tissue type do carcinomas originate? Ectoderm (skin, glands, mucous membraness)
From what tissue type do sarcomas originate? Mesoderm (connective tissue, muscle, bone and fat)
From what tissue type do lymphomas and leukemias originate? Hematopoietic (blood) system
What is anatomic cancer classification based on? Cancers are named based on tissue they differentiate from
What is histologic cancer classification based on? Do the cells resemble the tissue of origin; based on tissue sampling
Which classification system uses Grades? Histologic cancer classification
What is clinical staging classification based on? Anatomic extent of the disease; degree of spread; guides treatment
Which classification system uses stages? Clinical staging classification
How many stages are in the clinical classification system? Five, stages 0 through 4 with 0 meaning insitu and 4 meaning metastasis
How many grades are in histologic cancer classification? Four, grades I through IV; grade I meaning well differentiated to grade IV meaning completely undifferentiated (Aplasia)
What is TNM staging system used for? Classify SOLID, invasive tumors; anatomic extent of the disease at time of diagnosis
What does TNM stand for? Tumor size, nodes involved, metastasis extent
What are the three goals of collaborative treatment of cancer? Cure, control, palliation
What is involved in prevention aspects of surgical therapy goals? Prophylactic removal of non-vital organs
What is involved in cure and control aspects of surgical therapy goals? Remove all or most of tumor, sparing normal tissue
What is involved in palliation aspects of surgical therapy goals? Maximize body function or facilitate treatment
What is involved in rehabilitation aspects of surgical therapy goals? Enhance body image
Name an alkylating chemotherapy agent Cytoxan
Name a platinum drug chemotherapy agent Cisplatin
Name an antitumor antibiotic chemotherapy agent Doxorubicin
Name a corticosteroid chemotherapy agent Hydrocortisone
How are chemotherapy drugs administered most often? IV
What is the hallmark sign of extravasation? Pain at the site of administration
What can vesicants cause? Tissue necrosis
What is the preferred route of chemotherapy administration? Central venous access
Why is central venous access a preferred route of chemotherapy administration? Decreased venipuncture and extravasation
What is the biggest con to the use of central venous access administration of chemotherapy medications? Risk for infection
What does PICC stand for? Peripherally inserted central catheter
What is a PICC line used for? Multifunctional central line used for IV infusions, blood draws, and blood product infusions
What precaution must be taken in regards to a PICC line? No BP or lab draws in the extremity with the PICC line
What is teletherapy? A form of radiation using an external beam
What is brachytherapy? A form of radiation using an internally placed radioactive seeds
Name two examples of biologic response modifiers Interferon and interleukin
What is the major side effect of biologic and targeted therapies? Flu-like syndrome
How can the flu-like symptoms of biologic and targeted therapies be alleviated? Use Tylenol before the drugs are administered
What is the universal symptom of chemotherapy treatment? Fatigue
What is the nadir? The lowest blood cell counts that occur 7-10 days after start of treatment
What can be given in response to neutropenia? Neupogen
What can be given in response to thrombocytopenia? Platelets
What can be given in response to anemia? Procrit
What prophylactic antiemetics can be given prior to chemotherapy? Ondansetron (Zofran) or Metoclopramide (Reglan)
What kind of diet is preferred for the side effect of diarrhea in regards to chemotherapy treatment? Low fiber, low residue
What is xerostomia? Dry mouth
What medications can be used to treat persistent and breakthrough pain associated with cancer pain? Opioid analgesics and NSAIDs
What causes superior vena cava syndrome? A tumor or clot obstruction of the superior vena cava
What are s/s of superior vena cava syndrome? Facial edema, periorbital edema, JVD
What are s/s of spinal cord compression? Persistent back pain, parasthesias, bowel/bladder changes
When can third space syndrome occur? After treatments or surgical interventions
What are s/s of third space syndrome? Hypotension, tachycardia, decreased urine output; might see edema on the outside, but fluid is not in the vascular space
What does SIADH cause? Water retention causes dilutional hyponatremia
What are s/s of SIADH? Weight gain without edema, weakness, anorexia, seizures
What is the treatment for SIADH? 3% NaCl to replace sodium
When can hypercalcemia develop? In cancer of the bone or bone metastasis
What are s/s of hypercalcemia? Apathy, depression, fatigue, muscle weakness
What is the treatment for hypercalcemia? Hydration (to dilute), diuretics to excrete, and bisphosphantes to keep calcium in the bones
What is tumor lysis syndrome? During chemotherapy, the cancer cells lyse and release intracellular contents
What are s/s of tumor lysis syndrome? Hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia and hypocalcemia
What are s/s of hypocalcemia? Fatigue, extremity numbness, muscle cramps, hyperreflexia (tetany, Chvostek's sign, Trousseau's sign)
What treatments are used for tumor lysis syndrome? Fluids, allopurinol (treat hyperuricemia), electrolyte balance
Created by: ssbourbon