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Neuro self-leaning

Ch 15-17: Temp regulation, sleep, alt in movement, alt in neuro dysfxn

QuestionAnswer
A progressive, inflammatory, demyelinating disorder of the CNS, w/ an onset between ages 20 - 40, that is relapsing & remitting, is what neurological disorder? multiple sclerosis
What are the types of multiple sclerosis? mixed, spinal, cerebellar
Symptoms of multiple sclerosis include (there are 8): diplopia, nystagmus, vertigo, memory & mood changes, bladder & bowel problems, fatigue, weakness, depression
Triggers of multiple sclerosis include (there are 3 examples given): pregnancy, trauma, infection/fever
Acquired inflammatory disease causing demyelination of the peripheral nerves w/ relative sparing of axons describes what neurological disorder? Guillain-Barre Syndrome
Guillain-Barre Syndrome has what type of onset? what type of paralysis? acute onset; ascending motor paralysis (starts in the legs, works up to trunk, may cause quadriplegia & vent dependence, aspiration risk)
Guillain-Barre Syndrome may be preceded by what type of infection? viral or bacterial infection
How long do Guillain-Barre symptoms last? weakness peaks ~1 month & usually receded completely
Lou Gehrig disease is officially known as: classic amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (classic ALS)
What neurological disorder diffusely affects upper & lower motor neurons of the cerebral cortex, brain stem, & spinal cord (corticospinal tracts & anterior roots)? amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) leads to... progressive weakness leading to respiratory failure & death
What affect does amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) have on intellectual & sensory function? none. patient has normal intellectual & sensory function until death
Chronic autoimmune disease where IgG antibody is produced against ACh receptor (anti-ACh receptor antibodies) describes what disease? myasthenia gravis
What is the treatment for myasthenia gravis? anticholinesterases (increase ACh levels)
How is myasthenia gravis diagnosed? Tensilon test
What is a Tensilon test? anticholinesterase drug, which will demonstrate an immediate improvement of symptoms for 5~10 minutes
Symptoms of myasthenia gravis are (there are 6): diplopia, ptosis, difficulty chewing, talking, swallowing, drooling
Hyperkinesia is defined as: excessive movement
Chorea is defined as: non-repetitive muscular contractions, random, irregular, involuntary, disappears w/ sleep, increases w/ stress
Tardive dyskinesia is defined as: involuntary movement of face, trunk, extremities (chewing, lip smacking, facial grimacing) associated w/ Parkinson's Disease
Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of what 2 drug classes/types? phenothiazine drugs & haldol
What is Huntington's disease? Onset? Causes? autosomal dominant hereditary-degenerative disorder; onset 30-50; severe degeneration of the basal ganglia & frontal cerebral cortex, depletion of GABA
What is the treatment for Huntington's disease? no known treatment
What are the manifestations of Huntington's disease? choreiform movements beginning in face & arms, progressive dementia
Severe degeneration of the basal ganglia (corpus striatum, sometimes called substantia nigra) involving the dopaminergic nigrostriatal pathway describes what neurological disorder? Parkinson's disease
What are the 4 manifestations/diagnosis of Parkinson's disease? resting tremor, bradykinesia, cogwheel rigidity, postural instability
What cannot be given to people w/ Parkinson's Disease? do NOT give dopaminergic antagonists (droperidol, reglan, compazine, & possibly alfentanil)
What is the treatment for Parkinson's Disease (there are 3)? L-dopa & other dopamine agonists & precursors; anticholinergic drugs; antihistamines, amatadine
What is the etiology of Parkinson's Disease? idiopathic; secondary d/t: post-encephalitis, drugs (neuroleptics, antiemetics, antiHTN, designer drugs), traumatic (Mohammed Ali), & arteriosclerotic
4 sites of core temperature are: esophagus, nasopharynx, tympanic membrane, & pulmonary artery
3 sites of peripheral temperature are: skin, oral & axilla
The body's thermostat is: hypothalamus
Neonates _____ (can/cannot) shiver cannot
Metabolism of _____ in neonates is called _____ (aka non-shivering thermogenesis) brown fat; chemical thermogenesis
What is defined as: Heat loss through electromagnetic waves from one warm surface (body) to a cooler surface (environment), but does not require actual contact radiation
What is defined as: heat lost through air (or liquid) currents, primarily this means body heat lost to the surrounding air; cold OR ambient temperatures; bair huggers convection
What is defined as: water lost from either sweating, exhaling or open body cavities; circuit humidifiers evaporation
What is defined as: direct surface to surface heat loss or gain, body to OR table; warm blankets conduction
Which age group produces sufficient body heat but is unable to conserve heat produced? Pediatrics (d/t small body size & high body surface area to weight ratio; thin SQ layer)
Which age group has slow blood circulation, vasocostrictive response, & metabolic rate? elderly
Which age group has decreased sweating & perception of heat & cold? elderly
What occurs at 41 degrees Celsius (105.8 F)? nerve damage produces convulsions
What occurs at 43 degrees Celsius (109.4 F)? death
Forms of hyperthermia are: heat cramps, heat exhaustion, heat stroke
Malignant hyperthermia is precipitated by: administration of volatile anesthetics & depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents
Malignant hyperthermia causes ______ (increased/decreased) calcium release or _____ (increased/decreased) calcium uptake w/ muscle contraction increased calcium release; decreased calcium uptake w/ muscle contraction
In malignant hyperthermia, the most sensitive indicator is: unanticipated rise in EtCO2
A late sign in malignant hyperthermia is: hyperthermia
What rate may temperature climb during malignant hyperthermia? may climb at rate of 1-2 degrees Celsius every 5 minutes, up to 43.3 degrees C
What lab data is seen in malignant hyperthermia? metabolic & respiratory acidosis, hypercarbia (PaCO2 >60; base deficit >8; pH <7.25); hyperkalemia, K >6; myoglobinuria, serum >170, urine >60; elevated CK, CK >10,000
How are acidosis & hypoxia treated in malignant hyperthermia/ hyperventilate w/ 100% oxygen, bicarbonate to treat acidosis
What drug class is dantrolene? What makes dantrolene "unique"? a muscle relaxer that reduces the release of calcium from the skeletal muscle sarcoplasmic reticulum; "unique" b/c it does not work at the neuromuscular junction
Hypothermia is defined as: body temp less than 35.5 degrees C or 96 degrees F
In anesthesia, what affects does post-op hypothermia have on drug biotransformation drug biotransformation slows, delaying awakening, recovery from muscle relaxants
In anesthesia, what affects does post-op hypothermia have on the heart, myocardium & SVR? Bradycardia, conduction defects, vfib may occur; Myocardial depression & increased SVR
In anesthesia, what affects does post-op hypothermia have on platelets & coagulation? platelet function depressed, coagulation slows, greater intraop blood loss
In anesthesia, what affects does post-op hypothermia have on immune function & wound healing? immune function dampened, greater wound infection risk
In anesthesia, what affects does post-op hypothermia have on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve? Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve shifts left
In anesthesia, what affects does post-op hypothermia have on oxygen demand? shivering may double or triple oxygen demand
What is accidental hypothermia? commonly the result of sudden immersion in cold water or prolonged exposure to cold
Groups most at risk for hypothermia under anesthesia are (there are 5): pediatric, geriatric, hypothyroid, hypothalamic lesions, burns
What is the purpose of therapeutic hypothermia? used to slow metabolism & preserve ischemic tissue during surgery or limb reimplantation
What are some side effects of therapeutic hypothermia? may lead to v-fib & cardiac arrest
In therapeutic hypothermia, between 37-30 degrees C metabolism __________ decreases 7% for each degree Celsius
Periods of apnea during sleep without discernable respiratory efforts is called _____ central apnea, which is thought to lack normal central nervous system drive to breathe
People may have normal body habitus in ____ (Central apnea/obstructive sleep apnea) central apnea
Physical airway obstruction (tonsils, adenoids, retrognathia, macroglossia) can be the cause of _____ (Central apnea/obstructive sleep apnea) obstructive sleep apnea
Sleep apnea is characterized by _______. With sleep apnea there is an increased risk of (there are 5): characterized by poor quality sleep; increased risk of HTN, heart disease, pulmonary HTN, stroke, MVAs
Created by: Thommy413
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