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BIO 13 FINAL
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is attached to the atrioventricular valves? | The papillary muscles by chordae tendinae. Right = tricuspid, left = bicuspid, mitral |
| What are the semilunar valves? | Right = pulmonary, left=aortic |
| What are the semilunar valves shaped like? | each cusp is shaped like a cup --> when cusps are filled, the valve is closed; when empty, valve is open |
| What does the heart skeleton consist of? | fibrous CT between atria and ventricles |
| What supports the heart valves for support? | fibrous rings around valves |
| What do the fibrours rings around valves do? | serves as electrical insulation between atria and ventricles and provides a site for muscle attachment |
| What does cardiac muscle look like? | elongated, branching cells containing 1-2 centrally located nuclei (result of fused cells) |
| What is special about cardiac muscle? | because of the intercalated disks, desmosomes and gap junctions, the cardiac muscle cells electrically behave as a single unit |
| How are signals conducted in the heart? | SA node --> travel across wall of atria to AV node --> AV bundle, through fibrous skeleton, into inter ventricular septum --> AV branches --> apex --> purkinje fibers --> ventricular walls --> papillary muscles |
| What is the SA node? | The sinoatrial node = pacemaker --> spontaneous APs --> pass to atrial muscle cells and then AV node |
| What is the AV node? | Atrioventricular node --> near right AV valve. --> AP are conducted slowly here. |
| Why are APs conducted slowly at the AV node? | to ensure ventricles receive signal to contract after the atria have contracted |
| What is the AV bundle? | passes through hole in cardiac skeleton to reach the interventricular septum AKA bundle of HIS |
| What are the purkinje fibers? | Large diameter cells with few myofibrils and many gap junctions. Conducts AP to ventricular muscle cells. A cross between nerve & muscle cells |
| What happens if the SA node doesn't fire within 2 seconds? | AV node will fire itself |
| Where to electrical blocks usually occur? | commonly between the SA and AV node |
| What is a heart block usually caused by? | a heart attack (scar tissue) or bacterial or viral infection |
| What is the cellular cause of the firing of the SA node? | enough sodium leak channels --> just enough sodium leaks in to reach threshold in about once per second |
| What is the absolute refractory period of the heart muscles? | Cardiac muscle cell completely insensitive to further stimulation |
| What is the relative refractory period of the heart muscles? | cell exhibits reduced sensitivity to additional stimulation --> needs a big jolt to contract again |
| What is Tetanis? | sustained muscular contraction |
| What prevents Tetanis contractions? | long refractory period and leaky Ca+ channels |
| In an Electrocardiogram, what is the P wave? | the depolarization of atrial myocardium - onset of atrial contraction |
| In an Electrocardiogram, what is the QRS complex? | Ventricle myocardium depolarization - onset of ventricular contraction. Atria repolarize simultaneously. |
| In an Electrocardiogram, what is the T wave? | repolarization of ventricles; precedes ventricular relaxation |
| In an Electrocardiogram, what is the PQ/PR interval? | atria contract and begin to relaz, ventricles begin to contract |
| In an Electrocardiogram, what is the QT interval? | ventricles contract and begin to relax |
| What is a systole? What is a diastole? What makes one cycle? | systole = contraction, diastole = relaxation --> a contraction and a relaxation of heart chambers = one cycle |
| What happens at the beginning of a ventricular systole? | Ventricular muscles start to contract, pressure increases inside the ventricles, AV valves close, semilunar valves remain closed |
| What is end diastolic volume? | the amount of blood in the ventricles just before it leaves |
| What causes the semilunar valves to open? | pressure in the ventricle is increased to the point where it is greater than the pressure in the pulmonary trunk/aorta --> causes valves to open |
| What is end-systolic volume? | The random blood that is left in the ventricles while it is relaxing |
| When is the period of isovolumetric relaxation? | The completion of the T waves --> ventricles repolarize and relax |
| What happens during isovolumetric relaxation? | ventricular pressure falls very rapidly; pulmonary trunk/aorta pressure is now higher than ventricular pressure; |
| What causes the semilunar valves to close? | elastic recoil of the arteries --> causes blood to flow back towards the relaxed ventricles but this causes the semilunar valves to close --> beginning of next ventricular diastole |
| What does depolarization of the SA node generate? | AP the spread over the atria (P wave) and the atria contract. Completes ventricular filling. |
| Does the atria contract at rest? | No, it is not necessary |
| Why is atrial contraction necessary during exercise? | the heart pumps 300 to 400 more blood per minute. |
| Why does the atria even contract...? | to pump the last little bit of blood into the ventricles. |
| What is the first heart sound? | the AV valves and surrounding fluid vibrates as valves close at the beginning of ventricular systole |
| What is the second heart sound? | the closure of the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves at the beginning of the ventricular diastole |
| What is the occasional third heart sound? | turbulent blood flow into ventricles and detected near end of first one-third of diastole |
| What is mean arterial pressure? | the average blood pressure in the aorta |
| What is the equation for mean arterial pressure? | CO x PR |
| what is CO? | Cardiac output, the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute. |
| What is the equation for CO? | CO = SV x HR |
| What is SV? | stroke volume, the ml blood pumped during each heart beat |
| What is HR? | heart rate (number of times heart beats per minute) |
| What is PR? | Peripheral resistance, total resistance against which blood must be pumped |
| What is the cardiac reserve? | the difference between CO at rest and maximum CO |
| Where is the highest blood pressure found? | the aorta |
| What effects cardiac resistance? | length of the vessel, longer it is, more resistance --> harder to pump |
| What is intrinsic regulation? | regulation of the heart as a result of normal functional characteristics |
| What is sensory input based on? | pressure in heart |
| What is preload? | the amount of stretch of the ventricular walls. The great the stretch/preload, the greater the force of contraction |
| What is after load? | pressure the contracting ventricles must produce to overcome the pressure in the aorta and move blood into the aorta |
| How does high BP affect afterload? | if blood pressure is high, the heart must work harder to pump blood, thus the afterload is higher. |
| What is extrinsic regulation? | involves neural and hormonal control |
| What is the parasympathetic stimulation of the heart. What is released? | supplied by vagus nerve, decreases heart rate -->acetylocholine is released and hyper polarizes the heart |
| What is the sympathetic stimulation of the heart? What does it innervate? What is released and what does it do? | supplied by cardiac nerves. It innervates the nodes, coronary vessels and the myocardium. It releases epinephrine and norepinephrine, increasing the heart rate and force of contraction. |
| What does sympathetic stimulation cause (in terms of CO) | increase CO (cardic output). Increased force of contraction causes a lower end-systolic volume; heart empties to a greater extent |
| What is the hormonal control of the heart? | epinephrine and norepinephrine from adrenal medulla. Occurs in response to increased physical activity, emotional excitement, stress. |
| What is meant by hyper polarizes? How does this happen? | Even more polarized. It is when acetylcholine binds to heart muscles cells, causing the heart to slow down because it makes the cells more polarized |
| What is vascular tone controlled by? | sympathetic stimulation |
| What does vascular tone cause? | coronary vessels to dilate allowing the myocardiym to beat more forcefully --> coronary output is increased |
| What do baroreceptors do? | monitor BP |
| Where are baroreceptors found? | in walls of internal carotids and aorta --> sensory information goes to centers in the medulla |
| Where are the receptors that measure pH and CO2 found? | the hypothalamous |
| What are chemoreceptors and where are they found? | Chemoreceptors monitor O2 levels and are in the internal carotids and aorta |
| What does prolonged O2 levels cause? | increase heart rate |
| What is the effect of extracellular ion concentration heart? | increase or decrease in extracellular K+ decreases heart rate |
| What is the effect of body temperature on the heart? | heat rate increases when BT increase, and decreases when BT decreases |
| Among pH, CO2 and O2, which is the main driver of the heart? | pH |
| Why does the heart need calcium? | to maintain it's long depolarized state |
| What does the capillary wall consist of? | endothelial cells (simple squamous epithelium), basement membrane and a delicate layer of loose CT |
| How do large molecules pass through the capillaries? | through the fenestra (gaps between endothelial cells |
| What are the different types of capillaries? | continuous, fenestrated |
| What are continuous capillaries? | no gaps between the endothelial cells, less permeable |
| What are fenestrate capillaries? | endothelial cells have numerous fenestrae --> area where plasma membrane makes a thin porous diaphragm |
| Where can fenestrated capillaries be found? | glomeruli of kidney |
| What is meant by sinusoidal? | large fenestrae |
| What is meant by sinusoids? | large diamete sinusoidal capillaries |
| Examples of sinusoids | liver, bone marrow, spleen |
| What regulates perfusion? | smooth muscle in arterioles, metarterioles and precap sphincters |
| What are the layers of the arteries and Veins? | Tunica intima, Tunica media, and Tunica externa |
| What is part of the Tunica intima? | endothelium, basement membrane, CT layer and elastic fibers |
| What is the Tunica media? | circular smooth muscle cells |
| What happens when vasoconstriction occurs? | smooth muscles contract |
| What happens when vasodilation occurs? | smooth muscles relax |
| What is the Tunica externe (adventitia)? | connective tissue (to keep it from falling apart) |
| Where is the apical part of the arteries and veins? | the inside |
| What is the vasomvasorum | small blood vessels |
| Why do arteries and veins run in parallel? | because every time the artery constricts or releases it can push blood through inside the vein |
| Explain the elastic artery | It is elastic or conducting. It has the largest diameter and highest pressure that fluctuates between systolic and diastolic. Lots of elastic tissue. |
| Why is there always recoil in an artery? | if it doesn't recoil, it will stay expanded even if the BP drops |
| Explain muscular artery? | muscular or medium arteries, smooth muscle allows vessels to regulate blood supply. Smaller muscular arteries are adapted for vasodilation and vasoconstriction. |
| What do arterioles do? | connects arteries to capillaries --> 3 tunics |
| What do venules do? What does it consist of? | drains capillary beds, made of endothelium and basement membrane with a few smooth muscle cells |
| What is the predominant layer of medium and large veins? | adventititia aka tunica externa |
| Explain how the adventitia stretches. | It doesn't stretch very well |
| What happens when veins bulge? | it stays bulged if it bulges out. |
| What are varicose veins? | the bulged veins |
| How big are valves usually? | 2mm in diameter |
| What is the purpose of vavles? | it stops blood from going the wrong way |
| What are vasa vasorum? | blood vessels that supply the walls of arteries and veins |
| What are portal veins? | veins that begin in one capillary network and end in a secondary capillary network without the heart in-between ---> artery coming from a capillary bed makes another capillary bed (gut and brain) |
| In terms of blood vessels, what do sympathetic nerves control? | vasoconstriction in arteries and arterioles |
| What is sclerosis? | a scale or cover |
| What is arteriosclerosis? | degenerative changes in arteries making them less elastic = hardening of the arteries |
| What is atherosclerosis? | deposition of plaque (atheroma) on the endothelium consisting of dead RBCs, fibers and platelets that can lead to arteriosclerosis |
| Where is the hepatic portal vein found? | between intestines and the liver |
| Why do we have the hepatic portal vein? | all food we eat goes through the digestive system and gets picked up by the veins --> hepatic portal vein takes the blood with food nutrients/wastes to liver to check it over |
| What is a hiatus? | an opening or gap that allows the passage of the aorta through the posterior of the diaphragm |
| Why do we need the aortic hiatus? | So the movement of the diaphragm doesn't affect the aorta |
| What is a hiatus hernia? | when the esophagus is stuck and causes a bulge |
| What is hemodynamics? | the interrelationships between blood pressure, flow: volume/minute, velocity, resistance, control mechanisms that regulate blood pressure and blood flow |
| What is flow? | blood volume per minute |
| What is velocity? | how fast blood is moving per minute |
| What is blood pressure? | the measure of force exerted by blood against the wall |
| Why is blood pressure needed? | blood moves through vessels because of blood pressure |
| What is a bolus? | The group of blood that is pushed out of the heart |
| What is laminar flow? | streamlined, interior of blood vessel is smooth. outermost layers moves slower than the center of the tube |
| What is turbulent flow? | interrupted flow. It exceeds critical velocity. Occurs when fluid passes a constriction, sharp turn or rough surface |
| How does blood flow? | in layers, middle part flowing faster |
| What happens to platelets at turbulent flow? | platelets can be activated; if blood is pooling, platelets can form a clot |
| What might happen to platelets when it turns a corner? | it can attach to the vein and immune system will be activated |
| What is output of blood flow? | the volume per unit time |
| What is flow determined by? | the pressure gradient (P1-P2)/R ---> (P1 and P2 are pressures at the beginning and end of the vessel, R is resistance) |
| What happens to resistance if length or viscosity increases? | It goes up |
| What happens to resistance if diameter decreases? | it goes up |
| What is the approx Aorta output? | 5L/min |
| What must P1 do to accomodate the same volume of blood/min? | P1 must increase and velocity increases |
| What is Poiseuille's Law? | Flow rate decreases as resistance increases and vice versa (P1 must increase to accommodate) |
| What happens as a result of resistance being proportional to blood vessel diameter? | constriction of blood vessel increases resistance and thus decreases flow rate (P1 must rise) |
| What happens if D(iameter) decreases? | P1 rises and velocity increases to maintain rate |
| What happens during exercise? | flow rate is increased, pressure is higher so all vessels open up to accept the pressure |
| 21 -- 28 | |
| What is Viscosity? | resistance of liquid to flow |
| What happens to pressure when viscosity increases? | pressure (p1) is required to increase in order to pump blood |
| What largely influences viscosity? | hematocrit --> the measure of RBC in blood |
| What is critical closing pressure? | pressure at which a blood vessel collapses --> if you take blood out, some vessels will collapse |
| What is vascular compliance? | the more easily the vessel wall stretches, the greater its compliance |
| Which has greater compliance? veins or arteries? | Veins have 24 times greater compliance than arteries and act as a blood reservoir |
| What is laplace's law? | Laplace's law states the the force acting on the endothelium is proportional to DxP -->diameter increases, more blood required to keep it open; higher bp increases force on vessel walls |
| What happens to blood vessels when force is too great? | an aneurysm may form --> if it opens too much, fibers damage and cannot squeeze back properly |
| As vessel diameters decreases, the total cross sectional area _____ and velocity of blood _____ as R _____. | increases; decreases; drops |
| What is the average BP in the aorta | 100mmHG |
| What is the average BP in the right atrium? | 0mmHG --> thus no pressure at the vena cava |
| What is pulse pressure? | difference between systolic and diastolic pressures |
| What happens to compliance as we age? | tends to decrease with age and diastolic pressure rises, reducing pulse pressure |
| What is capillary exchange? | the movement of substances into and out of capillaries |
| What affects the movement of fluid from capillaries? | blood pressure, capillary permeability and pressure gradients |
| What happens to the fluid that is does not leave the capillaries at the venous end? | it remains in tissues then is picked up by the lymphatic system and returned to venous circulation |
| What is Net filtration pressure? | the force moving fluid across capillary walls. |
| What are the two pressures that affect NFP? | hydrostatic pressure and osmotic pressure |
| What is hydrostatic pressure? | physical pressure |
| What is osmotic pressure? | causes movement of solutes through the capillaries --> large proteins don't pass, so difference in protein con'c between blood and interstitial fluid is responsible for osmosis |
| What is the equation for NFP? | Net hydrostatic pressure (fluid pushed out) minus net osmotic pressure (fluid pulled in) |
| What is the equation for net hydrostatic P? | BP (inside) - Interstitial fluid pressure (outside) |
| What is the equation for net osmotic P? | Blood colloid osmotic pressure (in) - interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure (out) |
| What is a colloid? | a solution --> referes to proteins and lipids in the blood |
| What happens if capillaries become too permeable? | proteins can leak into the interstitial fluid, increasing the interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure --> fluid follows the proteins and an edema is formed |
| What percentage of blood goes back to the capillaries? The lymph? | 90% to capillaries, 10% lymph |
| What is Venous tone? | continual state of partial contraction of the veins as a result of sympathetic stimulation --> partly contracted, partly relaxed |
| What is the effect of gravity on blood pressure? | In standing position, hydrostatic pressure caused by gravity increases blood pressure below the heart and decreases pressure above the heart. --> muscular movement improves venous return |
| What is Vasomotor tone? | periodic contraction and relaxation of pre cap sphincters --> it is auto regulated |
| What is meant by Autoregulation in terms of vasomotor tone? | it occurs in response to local ph, temp, tactic acid --> Precap sphincters are only controlled by autoregulation, not the Sympathetic nervous system |
| What is meant by long-term local control? | capillaries become more dense in a region that regularly has an increased metabolic rate. |
| What does the sympathetic nervous system innervate in terms of blood flow? | All vessels except capillaries, pre cap sphincters and most metarterioles |
| Where is the Vasomotor center in the brain? | in the pons and upper medulla oblongata |
| What is the excitatory part of the sympathetic nervous system responsible for? The inhibitory part? | Excitatory=tonically active, responsible for vessel tone; Inhibitory part=can cause vasodilation by decreasing sympathetic output |
| Is there parasympathetic control on the blood vessels? | NO |
| What is meant by tonically active? | NOT FULLY RELAXED --> responsible for vasomotor tone |
| What do baroreceptor reflexes depend on? | the receptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch |
| What do the baroreceptor reflexes do? | change resistance, heart rate, and stroke volume in response to changes in BP |
| Where are chemoreceptor reflexes found? | in the medulla CV centre, carotid sinus, aortic arch |
| What are the chemoreceptor reflexes sensitive to? | oxygen, CO2, and pH levels bloods |
| How is CO2 and pH interconnected? | as CO2 dissolves, acid is released |
| What is the Central nervous system ischemic response? | result of very high carbon dioxide or very low pH levels in the medulla and increases peripheral resistance |
| What is meant by ischemia? | not enough oxygen --> lots of CO2 or low pH (more CO2 = more release of acid = lower pH) |
| When does the CNS Ischemic response occur? | In emergency situations when BP to the medulla oblongata falls below 50 mmHg |
| What happens to the neurons of the vasomotor center when the CNS ischemic response occurs? | they are strongly stimulated --> blood flow to the brain increases, but at the same time, decreases oxygen of blood because blood doesn't go to the lungs ---> blood diverted from lungs to brain |
| What does lack of O2 cause the vasomotor center to do? | it causes it to become inactive --> extensive vasodilation follows with concomitant drop in BP -->Death if this response lasts longer than a few minutes |
| What activates the adrenal medullary mechanism? | activated by an increase in sympathetic stimulation of heart and blood vessels --> adrenal medulla releases epinephrine and norepinephrine to increase physical activity |
| What does decreased blood O2, increased CO2, and decreased pH causes what reaction in the heart? | causes parasympathetic stimulation of the heart which increases the heart rate & sympathetic stimulation of the heart which increases heart rate and stroke volume |
| What does decreased blood O2, increased CO2, and decreased pH causes what reaction in the blood vessels? | increased stimulation of blood vessels which increases vasoconstriction |
| What are 5 Different Long-Term Blood Pressure regulators? | renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism, ADH mechanism, atrial natriuretic mechanism, fluid shift mechanism, stress-relaxation response |
| Explain the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone Mechanism | Kidneys detect decreased BP --> release more renin --> Renin converts angiosinogen (from liver) to AGT1 --> enzyme in lungs converts it to AGT2 --> AGT2 causes vasoconstriction (^ BP) and causes adrenal cortex to secrete aldosterone --> less pee, ^ BP |
| Explain the ADH (Vasopressin) Mechanism | Baroreceptors detect decreased bp & osmoreceptors detected increased osmotic pressure --> ADH released --> blood vessels constrict and Kidneys reabsorb more water --> increased blood volume, increased BP |
| Explain the Atrial natriuretic hormone | released from cardiac muscles when arial BP increases, stimulates increase in urinary production, causes a decrease in blood volume and pressure --> protects muscles from being overstretched for too long |
| Explain the fluid shift | the movement of fluid from interstitial spaces into capillaries in response to decrease in blood pressure to maintain blood volume or vice versa. |
| Explain the stress-relaxation response | adjustment of blood vessel smooth muscle in response to sudden drop in blood volume and vice versa ---? if you relax, bp drops |
| What is hypertension. What can it cause? | excess stress on heart and vessels. Can lead to arteriosclerosis, heart or valve failure, kidney failure, aneurysm or aortic dissection |
| What is hypotension? | tissues not perfused properly with blood --> loss of function |
| What is a tunic? | tunics separate some of the blood --> blood goes between tunics and end up in the wrong place, two parts of the vessel wall are peeled apart |
| What is a dissection | blood enters between tunics |
| What is arteriosclerosis? | loss of eleasticity of artery |
| What is atherosclerosis | plaque build up on endothelium |
| What is stenosis | narrowing of a vessel |
| What is a thrombus? | clot |
| What is an embolism? | something that can block a vessel ---> gas bubble, dislodged |
| What is infarction | death of tissue due to ischemia (loss of perfusion --> o2 deprivation) |
| What is a stroke? | loss of blood to part of the brain |
| What is an ischemic stroke? | advanced atherosclerosis or an embolism that blocks vessel causing ischemia downstream --> most common, especially in elderly |
| What is an hemorrhagic stroke? | a vessel bursts and downstream tissue becomes ischemic |
| What is a hemorrhage? | blood vessel breaks and blood enters interstitial space |
| What is a cerebral vascular accident? | stroke |
| What is hyperkalemia? | depolarizes cardiac cells --> opens some voltage-gated sodium channels but not enough to generate an AP --> excess potassium |
| What is hypokalemia? | a condition that can be caused by drinking too much water --> electrolytes are diluted too much and cannot properly work |
| What does hypokalemia do to cells? | it hyper polarizes resting cell membranes and a greater than normal stimulus is required to initiate an AP |
| What are the main functions of the lymphatic system? | fluid balance, ft absorption, defense |
| Explain how the lymphatic system helps in fluid balance | it takes the 10% of fluid that does return with the capillaries, turns it to lymph, then returns it to the blood via the lymph capillaries |
| Explain how the lymphatic system helps in fat absorption | fat and fat soluble molecules absorbed by the digestive tract do not enter the hepatic portal system --> they enter the lacteals. |
| What is chyle? | the fluid that enters the lacteals aka the fat and fat soluble molecules |
| Explain how the lymphatic system helps in defence? | microoranisms and other foreign substances in lymph are filtered by lymph nodes and the blood is filtered by the spleen |
| Where are lacteals? | in the cut, they are milky in colour |
| What are lymphatic tissues? | diffuse tisse --> patches of cells surrounding the intestines |
| What are the organs of the lymphatic system | lymph nodes, tonsils, spleen, thymus |
| Describe the lymphatic capillaries | Very permeable (gaping holes), epithelium functions as one-way valves, found in all cap beds and wherever there are blood vessels --> one way flow |
| What are lymph nodes? | "way stations" along vessels that filter lymph |
| What are lymphatic ducts? | move lymph into major veins |
| What are the two lymphatic ducts | Right lymphatic duct (drains right side of the head, right upper limb and right thorax) and the thoracic duct (drains the remainder of the body |
| Where does the right lymphatic duct join the vein? | just before the superior vena cava |
| What does lymphatic tissue contain? | lymphocytes, macrophages, other WBS and dendritic cells |
| What kind of tissue is lymphatic tissue? | Fine collagen reticular fibers to filter and trap micro-organisms and other particles |
| What are two types of lymphocytes? | T and B cells |
| What is mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue? (MALT) | Nodular tissue beneath mucosal tissue that is first line of attack --> mucusal surfaces are diffuse bundles of cells in the gut, mouth, and vagina --> mucusal surfaces are entry points to lymphatic system |
| What is diffuse lymphatic tissue made of? | dispersed cells |
| What are lymphatic nodules made of? | dense aggregations of cells, found in loose CT of digestive, respiratory, urinary and reproductive systems |
| What are nodules in lymph nodes and spleen usually called? | follicles |
| What are tonsils? | Large groups of partly encapsulated nodules in the nasopharynx and oral cavity |
| What are the three groups of tonsils? | Palatine (tonsils), Pharyngeal (adenoids), Lingual (back of tongue) |
| What is a tonsiloith? | parlty calcified masses of mucus, cells and bacteria --> lots of sulfur and ammonia compounds make them intensely foul smelling |
| How are lymph nodes organized? | into cortex and medulla with dense CT capsule surrounding --> reticular fibers form supporting network |
| What do lymph nodes do? | filter lymph --> unwanted substances may be removed by phagocytosis or may stimulate lymphocytes to proliferate in germinal centers |
| What are lymphocytes? | Things that notice the germs so the germinal centers can deal with it. |
| how many afferent vessels are there? how many efferent vessels? | many afferent, 1 efferent |
| Where is the spleen located? | left superior side of the abdomen |
| In the spleen, what is white pulp? What is red pulp? | white pulp is associated with arteries, red pulp is associated with veins |
| What do nodules in the spleen contain? | many lymphocytes and macrophages |
| What is the splenic cord? | reticular cells producing reticular fibers to maintain structure |
| What does blood do in the splenic cords? | it percolates through them --> leaves the circulatory system, flows around the lymph cells, then returns to the CV system via the sinuses |
| What are the functions of the splee? | destroy defective RBCS, detect and respond to foreign substances, limit reservoir for blood |
| What is the hilum? | the entrance of the splenic arteries and veins into the spleen |
| Ar the lymphatic nodules in the spleen part of the white pulp or the red pulp? | white |
| Where is the thymus located? Does it contain reticular fbers? | in the mediastinum--> no |
| What is the difference between the cortex and the medulla of the thymus? | the cortex has more lymphocytes |
| What matures in the thymus? | T-cells, but most degenerate |
| Where are B Cells and pre-T cells made? | in the red bone marrow |
| Explain the passage of fluid starting at the lymphatic capillary to the subclavian veins | Fluid --> lymphatic capillaries --> lymph vessels and valves --? lymph node --> thoracic duct or right lymphatic duct --> subclavian vein |
| What is immunity? | ability to respond to damage from foreign substances or unhealthy self-cells |
| What is the innate or nonspecific resistance immunity? | Physical barriers (skin, tears, saliva, mucous membranes, mucus), Chemicals (enzymes, acid, cytokines), and Cells (phagocytes, chemical producers) |
| What is the adaptive or specific immunity? | Receptors (recognizes a specific cell or molecule) and memory (remember previous encounters with a specific substance and respond rapidly the second time they meet_ |
| What is an antigen? | Anything that can bind to an antibody, causing an immune response --> they GENerate ANTIbodies --> a protein, part of protein, something on the surface of a cell, fragment of a cell, pollen grain, virus, large molecule ext. |
| What are epitopes? | pathogens with thousands of different antigenic sites on their surfaces |
| What are C proteins? | complement proteins --> a group of 20 proteins made by the liver that circulate constantly in bloond in inactive for |
| How do C proteins become activated? | activated in three cascade pathways --> classical pathway, alternative pathway and leptin (don't need to know this one) |
| Explain the classical pathway | requires antibodies bound to antigens |
| Explain the alternative pathway | part of innate immunity --> C3 binds with a foreign substance, thus tagging it |
| What can complement proteins do once activated? | attach to surface of antigens, "opsonizing" them, attract immune system cells to the site of infection and promote inflammation, form membrane attic complexes (MAC) and channel through invaders plasma membrane so it dies |
| What is meant by opsonizing | makes something more likely to be phagocytosed |
| What do interferons prevent? | viral replication |
| What are interferons produced by? | virus-infected cells --> causes neighbouring cells to produce antiviral proteins |
| What do interferons do? | deals with pathogens that are inside cells |
| What are some innate immunity cells? | neutropils, macrophages, basophils and mast cells, eosinophils, natural killer cells |
| What is chemotaxis? | the ability of WBCS to follow gradients of molecules towards the source |
| Explain neutrophils role in innate immunity | first cells to enter infected tissue, they are phagocytic |
| Explain macrophages role in innate immunity | they are powerful phagocytes. They are monocytes that leave blood and enter tissues, activate and become macrophages. They live longer and eat bigger things than neutrophils. |
| Explain basophils and mast cells' role in innate immunity | these promote inflammation --> basophils enter the infected tissues, while mast cells hand out in connective tissue and produce histamine |
| Explain eosinophils role in innate immunity | these leave blood and enter tissues to reduce inflammation by breaking down chemicals produced by basophils and mast cells --> also secretes enzymes the kill some parasites |
| Explain natural killer cells role in innate immunity | recognize the class of an invader or unhealthy cell --> lyse tumor and virus-infected cells |
| What is the inflammatory response? | chemical mediators produce vasodilation, chemotaxis, and increased vascular permeability (allows fibrinogen and complement proteins to enter tissue) |
| What are the types of inflammatory response? | local and systemic |
| What is the local inflammartory response | confined to a specific area of the body ex. bee sting |
| What is the systemic inflammatory response | occurs in many parts of the body ex. flu |
| What cells come from the myeloid lineage? | megakaryocyte, erythrocyte, mast cells, myeloblast (basophils, neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes) |
| What cells come from the lymphoid lineage? | natural killer cell and small lymphocytes (T and B cells) |
| What is a dendritic cell? | cells that detect invading bacteria, recognizes, moves, sends signals to rest of immune system to do something about it |
| What are interleukins? | cytokines that are secreted as "communication molecules" between leukocytes and many other cells |
| How many kinds of IL deficiencies? | at least 36 in humas |
| What are some interluekins deficiencies? | IL may be missing or non function, IL receptors or antagonists may be missing |
| What is adaptive (acquired) immunity? | ability to recognize, respond to, and remember a specific substance |
| What substances stimulate adaptive immunity? | antigens & haptens |
| What are the two basic types of antigens that stimulate adaptive immunity? | foreign antigens and self-antigens |
| Explain foreign antigens? Examples | not produced by host body --? Bacteria, viruses, other microorganisms, pollen, animal dander, mite feces, food, drugs |
| Explain self-antigens | antigens produced by body --> markers to differentiate mammalian normal self from non-self --> can recognize unhealthy self-cells and also auto immune disease |
| In terms of adaptive immunity, why are B and T cells special? | they have fancy receptors and when activated, they form groups of memory cells so adaptive memory can remember it |
| What are haptens? | molecules too small to provoke a full response --> can combine with larger proteins to produce an adaptive immune response. |
| Once B and T cells mature, where do the move? | they move to the lymph tissue/organs |
| What must B and T cells do in order to be functional? | Lymphocytes must be able to recognize an antigen, and after recognition, lymphocytes must be activated (in order to multiply and destroy antigens) |
| What are two types of immunity provided by lymphocytes? | antibody mediated (humoral): B-cells --> and cell-mediated: T-cells |
| How to immune cells recognize antigens? | by binding to it |
| how might an immunity cell recognize an antigen? | receptors may bind to the antigens/epitopes OR the antigen/epitope is presented to the lymphocyte by an HLA (major histocompatibitlity complex receptor or MHC) |
| What does a major histocompatibility complex receptor do? | it presents a bad thing to the T-cell, it is also an antigen |
| What is another way to say MHC? | human leukocyte antigens or HLA |
| Where is MHC class 1 found? What do they do? | on the surface on nucleated cells. They display foreign antigens/epitopes from inside the cell. The MHC1 and foreign antigen are displayed together |
| How does the immune system recognize the inside of the cell? | the cell itself rips off an epitope or a piece and displays it |
| Explain antigen processing and MHC 1 | foreign proteins/self-proteins w/n cytosol are broken down into fragments that are antigens>transported into RER>MCH1/antigen complex transported to golgi>packed into vesicle & trans. to plasma mem>foreign antigen/MHC1 stimulate cell destruction or do not |
| Where is MHC 2 found? | on the surface of antigen-presenting cells --> the are not harmed |
| What are examples of MHC2? | B-cells, macrophages, monocytes, and dentritic cells |
| What does MHC 2 do? | stimulates other immune system cells to respond to the antigen |
| How does MHC2 work? | finds antigen, ingests it, displays the epitope on MHC2 |
| What does the immune system do with the MHC2 cell? | immune system (helper T-cell) attaches to antigen, sticks out antena, figures out what macrophage is displaying antigen, macrophage gives instructions to look for specific antigen -> cytokines released > APC presents antigen on MHC2 > cells wake & fight |
| Explain antigen processing and MHC 2 | macrophage eats cell, vesicle processes the foreign antigen, foreign antigen and MHC 2 combine, MHC2 with antigen is presented |
| What does activation of B or T cells usually require? | binding of MHC 2/antigen complex & costimulation |
| What is costimulation? | activation of immune system --> by cytokines released by the phagocyte and/or co-receptors |
| What are coreceptors? | things that bind the two cells even more together --> cytokines released |
| How do helper T cells and B cells check the MHC type? | a co-receptor called CD4 (the antenna thing) |
| What are germinal centres? | A patch where cells have divided a lot |
| Where do memory cells usually stay? | in the lymph organ or lymph tissue |
| Explain the proliferation of helper T cells | antigen processed in macrophage > process antigen is presented to (h) t cell > costimulation (with IL 1) > IL 2 on (h) t cell > (h) t cell divides > can divide, stimulate b cells or stimulate t cells |
| What must happen before a B cell can be activated by a helper (h) T cell? | It must endocytize and process the same antigen that activated the helper t cell |
| Explain the proliferation of B cells? | antigen binds to receptor & taken up into cell > MHC2 presents antigen > t cell receptor binds to complex > costimulation by CD4 > costimulation by IL from (h) t cells > B cell divides > antibodies made |
| What are plasma cells? | antibodies secreted by activated B cells |
| What does antibody-mediated (humoral) immunity work well against? | very effective against etracellular antiens (bacteria, viruses, protozoa, fungi, parasites, and toxins) |
| What is another way of saying antibody? | immunoglobin (Ig) |
| What are the difference classes of immunoglobin? | IgG, IgM, IgA, IgE, IgD |
| What is the structure of an immunoglobin? | variable region, constant region |
| What is the variable region? | part that binds with antigen (the bottom part of the y) |
| What is the constant region? | It is the five classes - for 5 classes of antibodies: can by activate complement or attach to various kinds of WBCs |
| What does IgG do? | activates complement, promotoes phagocytosis, can cross placenta & provide immune protection, Rh reactions |
| What does IgM do? | activates complement & acts as antigen-binding receptor on surface of B-cells; transfusion reactions in ABO blood, first antibody produced in response to an antigen |
| What does IgA do? | secreted into saliva, tears, and mucous membrane to provide protection on body surfaces; found in colostrum & milk to give immune protection to babies |
| What does IgE do? | binds to mast cels and basophils & stimulates inflammatory response |
| What does IgO do? | antigen-binding receptors on B cells |
| What is a raft? | a whole bunch of bound antigens together |
| What is the primary response in antibody production? | when a B cell is first activated, B cell divides into plasma cells (antibodies) and memory cells |
| What is the secondary response in antibody production? | the next exposure to same antigen. Memory cells divide rapidly to form new plasma cells and additional memory cells --> faster and greater |
| How long does it take for activation to occur? | usually like a week |
| What are cytotoxic t cells most effective against? | intracellular microorganisms |
| What are some intracellular microorganisms? | viruses, fungi, intracellular bacteria, parasites |
| What do cytotoxic t cells do? | lysis of virus-infected cells, tumor cells (uses perforin) & produces cytokines - promotes inflammation & phagocytosis |
| What happens after activation of cell-mediated immunity? | both effector and memory cells are produced |
| What cells participate in innate immunity? what about adaptive immunity? | almost any cell can participate in innate immunity, most cells involved in adaptive immunity are b- and t- cells |
| What are cytotoxic cells responsible for? | delayed hyper sensitivity |
| What is another name for the cytotoxic T cell? why? | CD8 cell, because it's co receptor is the CD8 |
| Explain the proliferation of the cytotoxic T cell | MHC1 presentes antigen to cytotoxic t cell > helper t cell releases IL 2 > Tc cell divides |
| What Is immunization? | deliberate exposure to antigen or antibody (vaccine or deliberate exposure) |
| What is passive immunity? | transfer of antibodies from a mother to her child or "using" someone or something else's antibodies |
| What is natural immunity? | natural exposure to an antigen --> pathogen will kill you, allergen will give you an inappropriate immune response |
| What are allergens? | antigens that are not pathogens |
| What is an antiserum? | fluid with antibodies in it --> contains antibodies against the particle that blocks it from acting --> can be used for Rh |
| Toxin vs venom | eat or get on skin vs. poison injected (bites) |
| What are antiserums available for? | rabies, hepatitis, measules, toxins (tetanus, diptheria, botulism toxins), venoms |
| What are the functions of the respiratory system? | ventilation, external respiration, transport of blood gasses, internal respiration, regulation of blood pH, production of chemical mediators |
| What is the upper tract of the Resp system? | nose, pharynx and associated structures |
| What is the lower tract of the Resp system? | larynx, trachea, bronchi, lungs and tubing within the lungs |
| When you breath, air goes from...? | nares to choanae |
| What are the functions of the nasal cavity? | cleans, humidifies, warms air, olfaction, paranasal sinuses (resonating chambers for speech) |
| What is the pharynx? | the common opening for digestive and respiratory systems |
| What is the nasopharynx? | pseudostratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells --> mucus and debris swallowed (opening of auditory tubes) (attached to nose) |
| What is the oropharynx? | lined with moist stratified squamous epithelium (attached to mouth) |
| What is the Laryngopharynx? | epiglottis to the opening of the esophagus, lined with moist stratified squamous epithelium |
| What are the three cartilages of the Larynx? | the thyroid (adam's apple), Cricoid (base) and the epiglottis |
| What are the ligaments of the larynx? | vestibular folds or false vocal folds & true vocal cords or vocal folds (opening between is glottis) |
| What happens to cilia when you smoke? | cilia is put into a coma |
| What does the trachea branch into? | left and right primary bronchi >secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi > smaller bronchi, bronchioles > terminal bronchioles > respiratory bronchioles > alveolar ducts > alveolar sacs > alveoli |
| What is the Carina? | cartilage at bifurcation. It is especially sensitive to irritation and inhaled objects initiate cough reflex |
| What are respiratory bronchioles? | the circular part where gas exchange occurs |
| What is the respiratory zone? | site for gas exchange |
| Does the alveoli have cilia? | No, but debris is removed by macrophages and then move into lymphatics or terminal bronchioles |
| What are the three types of cells in respiratory membrane? | Type 1 pneumocytes (thin squamous epithelial cells, gas exchange); Type 2 pneumocytes (produce surfactant); dust cells (macrophages) |
| What are the layers of the respiratory membrane? | thin layer of fluid lining alveolus, alveolar epithelium (s. squam), basement membrane, thin interstitial space, basement membrane, capillary endothelium |
| What is a hills? | the part where the bronchi and blood vessels enter the lung |
| How many lobes in the right lung? What is it separated by? | three lobes; fissures |
| How many lobes in the left lung? What is it separated by? | two; cardiac notch |
| What does the pleural cavity surround? | surrounds each lung, formed by pleura, filled with pleural fluid |
| What is the Visceral pleura attached to? | adherent to lung |
| What is the Parietal pleura attached to? | adherent to internal thoracic wall |
| What are the two sources of blood to lungs? | pulmonary artery & veins |
| What is Boyles Law? | P=k/V --> diaphragm contracts, size increases --> in a container, pressure is inversely proportional to volume |
| If barometric pressure is greater than alveolar pressure, air flows _____ the alveoli? | into |
| What is elastic recoil? | elastic fibers in the alveolar walls |
| What is surface tension? | film of fluid lines the alveoli --> holds stuff together |
| What does surfactant do? | reduces tendency of lungs to collapse by reducing surface tension --> makes it easier to breathe, |
| What is respiratory distress syndrome? | hyaline membrane disease, common in infants with gestation age of less than 7 months --> not enough surfactant is produced |
| What happens when pleural pressure is low? | alveoli expands |
| What is hypertrophy? What is a result of? | muscles getting bigger, result of laboured breathing |
| What is the pneumothorax? | an opening between pleural cavity and air that causes a loss of pleural pressure --> whole in thoracic wall |
| What happens when the thoracic lung is pierced? | transpulmonary pressure drops to zero --> no more inspiration or expiration, lungs collapse |
| What is compliance? | measure of the ease with which lungs and thorax expand |
| What conditions decrease compliance? | pulmonary fibrosis, pulmonary edema, respiratory distress syndrome, increaesed resistance to airflow caused by airway obstruction, deformities of the thoracic wall |
| What is partial pressure? | the pressure by each gas in a mixture of gasses |
| What is Dalton's law? | total pressure = sum of the individual pressures of each gas |
| What is Henry's law? | concentration of a gas dissolved in a liquid is determined by its partial pressure and its solubility coefficient |
| hh | |
| Increased _______ or increased pulmonary ________ increased gas exchange | ventilation; capillary blood flow |
| When does the Physiologic shunt occur? | occurs when deoxygenated blood returns from lungs --> some areas are not as well oxygenated - regional distribution of blood flow is determined primarily by gravity, but also alveolar ppO2 |
| What does low ppO2 cause? | arterioles to constrict so blood is shunted to a region of the lung where the alveoli are better ventilated, in other tissues it causes arterioles to dilate to deliver more blood. |
| How is most oxygen transported? | by hemoglobin, some dissolved in plasma |
| What is the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve? | A curve that describes the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen at any given ppO2 |
| What dies the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve AT REST show about hemoglobin? | that it is almost completely saturated when ppO2 is 88 mm Hg or higher, lower pressures of O2=release of oxygen from hemoglobin |
| What four factors affect the degree to which O2 binds to hemoglobin? | pO2, blood pH, pcO2, temperature |
| What does the Bohr Effect say about the effect of pH? Why does this occur? | as blood pH declines, the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin declines --> H combines with hemoglobin and changes it's shape |
| Incresed ppCO2 causes a ______ in pH | decrease |
| Carbonic hydrase causes _____ and ____ to combine and make ______ which ionizes to _____ and ______ | Carbonic hydrase causes CO2 and H2O to combine and make H2CO3 which ionizes to H+ and HCO3- |
| Increasing temperature ______ binding of oxygen to hemoglobin | reduces, more oxygen is released |
| When is BPG released by RBCs? | it is released when RBCs break down glucose for energy |
| What does BPG do? | it binds to hemoglobin and increases the release of oxygen |
| A decrease in pH, increase in CO2 and an increase of temperature shifts the curve to the _________ | RIGHT |
| An increase in pH, a decrease in COs and a decrease in temperature shifts the curve to the __________ | left |
| How much greater is the concentration of fetal hemoglobin? | 50% greater than maternal hemoglobin |
| Movement of CO2 out of fetal blood causes a shift to the ____ in the fetus. Simultaenously, it causes a shift to the ______ in the mover. | left; right |
| How is CO2 mostly transported? What percentage? | bicarbonate ion 70% and in combination with blood proteins |
| What percent of CO2 is transported on hemoglobin? | 23% |
| What percent of CO2 is in the plasma | 7% |
| How is blood buffered? | H ions attach to hydrogen ions |
| What is the Haldane effect? | hemoglobin that has released O2 binds more readily to CO2 than hemoglobin that has O2 bound to it |
| What is the chloride shift? | When chloride ions enter the RBC and bicarbonate ions leave --> maintains concentrations |
| Describe Internal respiration | CO2 diffuses from tissues to plasma to RBC > CO2 + H2O = H2CO3 = H(+) + HCO3(-) > HCO3(-) diffuses out of RBC > Cl(-) diffuses into RBC to maintain neutrality > O2 released from Hb goes to tissues > H(+) combines with Hb > CO2 combines with Hb |
| Descirbe External Respiration | CO2 diffuses from RBC to plasma in alveoli > CO2 + H2O = H2CO3 = H(+) + HCO3(-) > HCO3(-) diffuse into RBC, Cl(-) diffuses out > O2 diffuses to plasma and into RBC, binds to Hb >H released from Hb, promotes uptake of O2 > CO2 released from Hb |
| What regulates breathing? | Medullary respiratory center & pons --> also apnea and hyperventilation |
| What does the medullary respiratory center do? | stimulates the diaphragm, intercostal muscles and abs |
| What do the pons do? | switches between inspiration and expiration |
| What is apnea? What does it do | Not breathing --> eventually ppCO2 incases and overrides the respiratory center |
| What does hyperventilation do? | causes a decrease in ppCO2. Peripheral dilation causes a decrease in BP --> you faint |
| What modifies respiration? | higher centers of the brain, medullary chemoreceptors (pH decrease and CO2 ^), Carotid and Aortic chemoreceptors (pH decrease, CO2^, O2 decrease), Herring Breur reflex, proprioceptors, receptors for touch, temp and pain |
| What is the Herring Breur reflex? | try to over extend your lungs, receptors will stop you |
| Chemical control of ventilation is controlled by? | Central chemoreceptors (medulla) and peripheral chemoreceptors (carotid and aortic) |
| Changes in blood CO2 triggers a change in _____ and ____ of ventilation | rate and depth |
| What is hypercapnia | greater than normal amount of CO2 |
| What is hypocapnia | lower than normal amount of CO2 |
| Hypoxia? | decrease in oxygen levels below normal values |
| What is Anaerobic threshold? | highest level of exercise without cause significant chnge in blood pH |
| What can lower blood pH | increase CO2, metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, poisons |
| What is metabolic acidosis? | increased production of metabolic acids or loss of ability of kidneys to excrete acid |
| What can raise blood pH? | hyperventilation, vomiting, diarrhea, excessive diuretic use, excessive antacid use, inability of kidneys to retain bicarbonate |
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