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Micro Challenge Exam
Microbiology overview
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Bacteria belong to the Kingdom | Monera |
| Bacteria reproduce via | binary fission |
| Bacteria are classified according to their | shape and behavior |
| Protozoa belong to the Kindgom | Protista |
| True or False: Protozoa lack cell walls | True |
| Fungi are broken down into four categories. These are | 1. Mushrooms 2. Molds 3. Yeasts 4. Smuts |
| Smuts are | Tumors on trees, corn, gords |
| Most fungi are saprophytes, meaning they obtain nourishment from | dead organic matter. |
| Only 10% of a fungus is visible, the rest exists below the surface. Therefore, it is | insidious |
| Viruses can only replicate under what condition? | They are currently in a living host cell. |
| The structure of a virus consists of | A nucleic acid wrapped in a protein coat. |
| Microorganisms: | 1. Decompose waste 2. Produce ecosystems 3. Produce industrial chemicals 4. Produce fermented foods 5. Cause disease |
| Bacteria have __________ cell walls and use ________, _______, and ________ to obtain energy. | peptidoglycan; organic compounds, inorganic compounds, and photosynthesis |
| Archea are bacteria that lack ___________ and live in ____________ environments | peptidoglycan; extreme |
| Protozoa are: prokaryotic or eukaryotic? | Eukaryotic |
| Protozoa may be mobile via the use of: | flagella, cilia or pseudopods. |
| Fungi have cell walls composed of _______. | chitin |
| The multicellular fungi consist of____________ and ____________ | molds and mushrooms |
| Unicellular fungi consist of ________. | Yeasts |
| True or false: Viruses are acellular | True. |
| The protein coat of a virus may be encased in what kind of envelope? | Lipid |
| Koch's Postulates consist of the following 4 requirements: | 1. Organism must be found in all animals suffering from the disease. 2. Organism must be isolated and cultured. 3. Cultured organism should cause disease when reintroduced. 4. Organism must be re-isolated. |
| Vaccination is the process of | immunizing someone using a similar version of a pathogen. |
| Variolation is the process of | immunizing someone using a live source of the virus. |
| The WBC responsible for recognition are ____________________. The WBC responsible for SPECIFIC antigen recognition are _____________. | B-lymphocyte; T-lymphocyte (several types) |
| The role of "normal flora" consists of | producing growth factors and preventing pathogenic growth. |
| Resistance is | the body's ability to ward off disease. |
| Disease results when a pathogen overcomes | the host's resistance. |
| Emerging Infections Diseases are | new diseases, and the re-emergence of "old" diseases. |
| EIDs include | 1. West Nile Virus 2. E. coli 0157:H7 3. Ebola 4. Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (Mad Cow - caused by prions) 5. B-hemolytic Group A Strep 6. Hantavirus 7. HIV/AIDS 8. Anthrax 9. Varying forms of influenza (Bird, Swine, Spanish) |
| Etiology is | the study of the cause of disease. |
| Pathology is | the study of disease. |
| Pathogenesis is | the development of disease. |
| Infection is | colonization of the body by pathogens. |
| Disease is | an abnormal state in which your body is not functioning normally. |
| Morbidity is | disease incidence. |
| Mortality is | deaths from notifiable diseases. |
| Commensalism is | one organism benefiting, one being unaffected. |
| Mutualism is | both organisms benefiting. |
| Parasitism is | one organism benefiting at the expense of the other. |
| Opportunistic pathogens | exist when normal flora colonize. |
| Incidence is | the fraction of a population that CONTRACTS a disease during a specific time. |
| Prevalence is | the fraction of the population HAVING a disease at a specific time. |
| A disease constantly present in a population is | an endemic disease |
| A disease acquired by many hosts in a given area in a short period of time is | an epidemic disease |
| A worldwide epidemic is | a pandemic disease |
| Immunity in most of a population is | herd immunity |
| A disease that is easily spread from person to person is | a communicable disease |
| A disease that is NOT transmitted from person to person is | a non-communicable disease |
| A disease that develops rapidly is | acute |
| A disease that develops slowly is | chronic |
| Symptoms that vary between acute and chronic classify it as | sub-acute |
| A disease state with a period of no symptoms is | a latent disease |
| Pathogens limited to a small area of the body constitute a | local infection |
| An infection throughout the body is a | systemic infection |
| A systemic infection that began as local is a | focal infection |
| Bacteremia | Bacteria in the blood |
| Septicemia | growth of bacteria in the blood |
| Toxemia | Toxins in the blood |
| Viremia | Viruses in the blood |
| Acute infection that causes initial illness | Primary infection |
| Opportunistic infection after primary infection | Secondary infection |
| Infection causing no noticeable signs or symptoms | Subclinical disease |
| The three types of contact are: | Direct, indirect, and droplet |
| The four types of transmission are: | vehicle, vector, mechanical and biological. |
| EIDs (emerging infectious diseases) are occurring due to what three primary factors? | Evolution, antibiotics, changing weather patterns |
| What is the difference between pathogenicity and virulence? | Pathogenicity is the ability to cause disease. Virulence is the degree of pathogenicty. |
| What are the three portals of entry? | Mucous membranes, skin, and parenteral routes (not GI) |
| ID50 vs. LD50 | ID50: infectious dose for 50% of the population. LD50: Lethal dose for 50% of the test population |
| Define adherence | Adhesions/ligands of bacteria bind to host cell. |
| What is the role of enzymes in infection? | They're proteins that catalyze chemical reactions to prevent the body from reacting to the pathogen. |
| Provide 5 examples of adhesions | 1. Glycocalyx- sticky capsule 2. Fimbrae- like "bacteria velcro" 3. M-proteins-add bulk to make bacteria larger. 4. Opa protein-causes the body to pick off its own proteins, sticks to bacterial wall 5. Tapered end-bacteria enters slowly, body won't no |
| Where are endotoxins found? | The cell walls of Gram - bacteria OR metabolic products of Gram + bacteria |
| Of what are Gram - endotoxins composed? | lipopolysaccharides |
| When are Gram - endotoxins released? | Upon bacterial cell death |
| Of what are Gram + endotoxins composed? | Proteins |
| True or false: Gram - endotoxins are neutralized by antitoxins while Gram + endotoxins are not. | False |
| A group of virulent toxins that indiscriminately active T-cells of the immune system causing system-wide inflammation are known as | Type I toxins or "Superantigens" |
| Type I toxin response is immediate or delayed? | Immediate |
| Type 2 toxins are also known as | membrane disruptors; they make protein channels in the cell membrane or disrupt the phospholipid bilayer |
| Type 2 toxin response is immediate or delayed? | Delayed |
| A chronic fungal infection may provoke a _____________ response. | Allergic |
| Some fungal toxins inhibit ___________ synthesis. | Protein |
| Some fungi break down proteins via the release of ___________. | proteases |
| A potent hallucinogenic toxin is produced by _________ | ergot. |
| Known fungal carcinogens are called ___________. | Aflotoxins |
| Fungal toxins are meant to __________. | Decompose |
| Susceptibility is | the lack of resistance to disease. |
| The waterproof protein layer covering skin is composed of ___________. | keratin |
| WBC that exists in [60-70%] and is phagocytic? | Neutrophils |
| WBC that exists in [0.5-1%] and releases histamine? | Basophils |
| WBC that exists in [2-4%] and is toxic to parasites? | Eosinophils |
| WBC that exists in [3-8%] and is phagocytic when mature; has fixed populations in liver and lungs? | Monocytes |
| WBC that exists in [20-25%] and is involved with specific immunity? | Lymphocytes |
| Compounds responsible for vasodilation and increased permeability of blood vessels | Histamine and kinins |
| Compound that intensifies the effects of histamine and kinin | Prostoglandins |
| Compounds responsible for increased permeability of blood vessels and phagocytic attachment | Leukotrienes |
| Fever is | an abnormally high body temperature |
| Fevers start by | Gram - bacteria releasing endotoxin that causes phagocytes to release interleukin 1. This causes the hypothalamus to release prostaglandins that raise body temp. |
| Innate immunity is defined as | defense against any pathogen |
| Immunity is | a specific antibody and lymphocyte response to an antigen |
| An antigen is defined as | anything that causes the body to produce antibodies or sensitized T cells |
| An antibody is | a protein made in response to an antigen |
| Immunity developed during an individual's lifetime is | Acquired immunity |
| Immunity involving antibodies produced by B cells is | Humoral immunity |
| Immunity involving T-cells is | Cell-mediated immunity |
| The antibodies that are 80% of serum antibodies, exist in blood, lymph and the intestines, and cross the placenta. Half-life of 23 days | IgG |
| Antibodies that are 5-10% of serum antibodies, exist in blood, lymph and on B cells, and are the first Ab produced in response to infection. Half-life of 5 days | IgM |
| Antibodies that are 10-15% of serum antibodies, exist in secretions, and are responsible for mucosal protection. Half-life of 6 days | IgA |
| Antibodies that are 0.2% of serum antibodies, exist in blood, lymph and on B cells, and initiate immune response on B cells. Half-life of 3 days. | IgD |
| Antibodies that are 0.002% of serum antibodies, exist on mast cells and basophils and in blood. Prominent in allergic reactions and lysis of parasitic worms. Half-life of 2 days | IgE |
| The body making antibodies to itself is the definition of an ______________ dieases | autoimmune |
| The primary genetic material of a prokaryote consists of either a ______________ or a _________________________. | plasmid or a free nucleic acid (no nucleus) |
| True or false: Prokaryotes have peptidoglycan walls | True |
| True or false: Prokaryotes have organelles | False |
| Bacteria are classified into three basic shapes. What are these shapes? | Cocci (spheres), Bacilli (rods) and Spirochetes (spirals) |
| What is a coccoballus? | A combination of cocci and bacilli that looks like both |
| Spirochetes are most likely found where? | In water |
| What is a glycocalyx? | An ligand that allows bacteria to adhere to other cells |
| A glycocalyx is composed of 2 layers. What are they? | Capsule - neatly organized Slime layer - loose and unorganized |
| Glycocalyx capsules prevent what? | Phagocytosis |
| What is an endospore? | A product of bacteria that packages DNA and resists desiccation, disinfectants and chemicals |
| An endospore is formed in response to what? | Environmental stress |
| What is sporulation? | Endospore formation |
| What is germination? | A return to the vegetative state of an endospore. |
| Of what is a flagellum composed? | Change of flagellin, a protein arranged as a hollow cylinder that forms the flagellar filament |
| In what type of bacteria are endoflagella found? | Spirochetes |
| What type of movement do endoflagella initiate? | Corkscrew motion |
| What are fimbrae? | Small, sticky spikes that allow bacteria to stick to mucous, like velcro. |
| What are pili? | Long tubes used to transfer DNA from one cell to another. |
| What two compounds compose the polymer that is peptidoglycan? | N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid |
| True or false: Gram + cells have thin peptidoglycan walls. | False. |
| Gram + bacterial cell walls are approximately how many nanometers thick? | 24 nm |
| Gram - bacterial cell walls are approximately how many nanometers thick? | 8 nm |
| What type of acid do Gram + cell walls contain? | Techoic acids. They act as mortar |
| In what are Gram - bacteria covered? | Lipopolysaccharide outer membrane |
| What threat do the lipopolysaccharide membranes of Gram - bacteria pose to humans? | They are poisonous. The most poisonous is Lipid A, which can kill in high concentrations |
| What technique allows us to differentiate between Gram + and Gram - bacteria? | Gram Staining |
| What are the four agents that are used in Gram staining (in order)? | Crystal Violet, Iodine, Alcohol/Acetone, Safranin |
| What color will Gram + bacteria be in all cases of Gram staining? | Purple |
| What color will Gram - bacteria be after being stained with Safranin? | Red |
| What color will Gram - bacteria be after being washed with alcohol or acetone? | Colorless |
| What type of bacteria is differentiated in clinical microbiology by using the acid-fast stain? | Mycobacterium |
| What two conditions must be used to stain a strain of Mycobacterium? | Steam heat and acid |
| What makes Mycobacterium different that it requires a unique staining method? | Mycobacterium have a very thick waxy outer layer on their cell walls, which is difficult to penetrate |
| What type of special stain is used for capsules? | Negative staining |
| What type of condition is used to push a stain into an endospore? | Heat |
| Flagella require what when being stained? Why? | A mordant, to make them wide enough to visualize under a microscope. |
| True or false: A virus may contain both DNA and RNA. | False. It can be one or the other, not both. |
| True or false: Most viruses infect only specific types of host cells | True |
| Are viruses larger or smaller than bacteria? | Generally smaller |
| The nucleic acid helical and polyhedral viruses is surrounded by small molecules called ____________. | Capsomeres |
| Helical viruses take a longer or shorter time to replicate? | Longer |
| What is an example of a complex virus? | T-even bacteriophage |
| Viral taxonomy: The family name ends in __________. | -viridae |
| Viral taxonomy: The genus name ends in __________. | -virus |
| Provide an example of viral taxonomy using the herpes family and genus | Herpesviridae, herpesvirus |
| What is another phrase for a virus? | Obligate intracellular parasite |
| In addition to animals, in what type of host can an animal virus be grown? | An embryonated egg |
| Animal and plant viruses may be grown and CONTINUALLY MAINTAINED in what type of medium? | Cell cultures |
| What is the cytopathic effect? | The degenerative change in cell tissues caused by viral reproduction |
| What types of serological tests (using antibodies) are used to identify viruses? | Neutralization, viral hemagglutination and Western blot method |
| What is a bacteriophage? | A virus that infects bacteria |
| What are the two cycles of a bacteriophage? | Lytic cycle and lysogenic cycle |
| What does the lytic cycle of a bacteriophage involve? | The phage causes lysis and death of the host cell. |
| What does the lysogenic cycle of a bacterophage involve? | Phage DNA is incorporated into the host's DNA. |
| During which cycle (lytic or lysogenic) is there a host immune response? | Lytic cycle |
| What are the six phases of a viral infection? | 1. Attachment 2. Penetration 3. Uncoating 4. Biosynthesis 5. Maturation 6. Release |
| In what step does the virus connect to the host cell? | 1. Attachment |
| How does penetration of the viral DNA occur? | Endocytosis or fusion |
| How does uncoating occur? | By viral or host enzymes |
| During what step are nucleic acids and proteins assembled? | 5. Maturation |
| By what two methods are newly assembled viruses released in step 6? | Budding (lysogenic) or rupture (lytic) |
| Into what two categories do oncogenic viruses fall? | DNA and RNA |
| What are the four categories of DNA viruses, and examples of each? | 1. Adenoviridae - chest colds 2. Herpesviridae - herpes viruses 3. Poxviridae - poxes 4. Papovaviridae |
| What are the two categories of RNA viruses, and examples of each? | 1. Retroviridae - HIV 2. Lentiviridae - Leukemias and lymphomas |
| Which DNA virus is single stranded? | Papovaviridae |
| What type of virus is mastadenovirus and what does it cause? | It's an adenovirus and it causes respiratory infections; can lead to LU cancer. |
| Which double stranded DNA virus causes smallpox? To which family does it belong? | Orthopoxvirus; Poxviridae |
| What diseases are caused by the family of Picornaviridae (3 examples)? | Enterovirus (polio), rhinovirus, Hepatitis A |
| To what family do Hepatitis E and Norovirus belong? | Caliciviridae |
| Is the flaviviridae family DNA or RNA? Single or double stranded? | Single-stranded RNA |
| What diseases belong to the Flaviviridae family? | Hepatitis C and arboviruses, which include yellow fever, dengue fever, and West Nile virus |
| To what family do non-lethal, nondescript upper respiratory infections belong? | Coronaviridae |
| To which family do Ebola and Marburg belong? | Filoviridae |
| What is subacute sclerosing panencephalitis? | "Chicken pox on the brain" |
| This type of infection can remain asymptomatic for long stretches. | Latent viral infection |
| This type of infection is symptomatic over long periods of time and is generally fatal. | Persistent viral infection |
| Examples of latent viral infections include _____________ and ____________. | Cold sores and shingles |
| What is a prion? | A denatured protein that causes infection |
| How are prions acquired? | Ingestion, transplant, and unclean surgical instruments |
| What is the disease process associated with prions? | They turn normal proteins into plaques that interfere with normal nervous tissue function |
| How are fungi typically identified? | By spore type |
| Under what conditions do fungi grow best? | Acidic, aerobic conditions |
| What type of compound specifically are fungi capable of metabolizing? | Complex carbohydrates |
| Define thallus | A plant body that hasn't differentiated into stems, leaves or roots |
| Of what is a thallus comprised? | Hyphae - long filaments of cells joined together |
| What divides hyphae into single nucleus cells? | Septa |
| How do fungi reproduce asexually? | By fragmentation of their hyphae |
| What is a mass of hyphae called? | A mycelium |
| What are fungal thalli that consist of mycelia? | Molds |
| What is fission? | When yeast divide symmetrically |
| What is budding? | When yeast divide asymmetrically |
| What is a mycosis? | A fungal infection |
| What are the five categories of mycoses? | Systemic, subcutaneous, cutaneous, superficial, and opportunistic. |
| What is tinea? | Ringworm |
| How is tinea classified? | By its location on the body |
| Where is tinea barbae found? | On the bearded reagion of the face |
| Where is tinea cruris found? | In the groin region |
| Where is tinea unquium found? | In the nail bed |
| How do lysozymes protect the skin from infection? | They hydrolyze peptidoglycan |
| What are the two types of microbial skin diseases, and their definitions? | Exanthem - skin rash arising from another focal infection; Enathem - mucous membrane rash arising from another focal infection |
| What are the two types of staphylococcal skin diseases? | Staph epidermis and stap aureus. |
| Which of the two staphylococcal skin diseases is coagulase positive? | Staph aureus |
| What is "scalded skin syndrome" caused by? | An exotoxin |
| What are the three types of streptococcal skin infections? | Strep pyogenes, Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, and M proteins |
| Which streptococcal skin infection is superficial and typically spreads to the cutaneous lymphatics? | Erysipelas |
| How long do advanced symptoms of necrotizing fasciitis take to develops? | Usually within 3-4 days |
| What type of bacteria is Pseudomonas aeruginosa? What is a common characteristic of this bacteria? | Gram - bacillus; blue-green pus |
| What is an example of a Gram +, spore forming skin infection? | Clostridium perfringens |
| How many types of endotoxins does Clostridium perfringens produce? | 20 |
| What are signs of gas gangrene? | Necrosis of muscle and subcutaneous fat, thrombosis of blood vessels, "crackling" due to production of CO2 gas |
| What type of acne does Staph epi usually cause? | Comedonal acne |
| What bacteria causes cystic (true) acne? | Propionbacter acnes |
| What type of bacteria is Propionbacter acnes? | Gram + anaerobic bascillus |
| By what are skin warts caused? | Papillomaviruses |
| How are skin warts most effectively removed? | By liquid nitrogen |
| What is the common name for Human herpes virus 3? | Chicken pox or Varicella-zoster virus |
| Where might the Varciella-zoster virus remain latent in the body? | In the dorsal root ganglia |
| How do shingles manifest? | The latent HHV-3 virus is reactivated, and the viruses move along peripheral nerves to the skin |
| Which viruses cause cold sores and/or fever blisters? | HHV-1 and HHV-2 |
| How are measles (rubeola) transmitted? | Via the respiratory route |
| What are Koplik spots? | Small, white spots that occur on the insides of the cheeks early during a measles infection |
| Are German measles (Rubella) more or less severe than Rubeola? | More |
| How do subcutaneous mycoses enter? | Via puncture wounds |
| What species of yeast causes yeast infections? | Candida albicans |
| What virus causes conjunctivitis? | Haemophilus influenzae |
| What is the leading cause of blindness worldwide? | Trachoma |
| What is the leading cause of blindness caused by? | Chlamydia trachomatis |
| How do microbes enter the nervous system (4 pathways)? | 1. Skull or spinal fractures 2. Medical procedures 3. Along peripheral nerves 4. Blood or lymph |
| What is the difference between meningitis and encephalitis? | Meningitis - inflammation/infection of the meninges Encephalitis - inflammation/infection of the brain |
| How is bacterial meningitis diagnosed? | Via Gram staining of the CSF |
| Which three pathogens cause bacterial meningitis, and in what percentages? | 1. Streptococcus pneumoniae - 30-50% 2. Neisseria meningitides - 15-40% 3. Haemophilus influenzae - 2-7% |
| Which form of meningitis is caused by Gram + bacteria? | Streptococcus pneumoniae |
| In what demographic does Haemophilus influenzae meningitis usually occur? | Children ages 6 mo - 4 yrs |
| Which type of meningitis is caused by Gram - cocci with a capsule? | Neisseria meningitides |
| For which form of meningitis is there a vaccination? | Streptococcus pneumoniae |
| Listeriosis is caused by ___________________, which is a Gram ___ in the __________ shape. | Listeria monocytogenes; Gram +; bacillus |
| True or false: Clostridium tetani Gram + coccus that forms spores. | False: It is a Gram + BACILLUS that forms spores. |
| How is tetany caused? | Tetanospasm (toxin) released from dying and dead cells blocks the relaxation pathways in muscle |
| How is tetanus treated? | With immunoglobulin therapy |
| What organism causes botulism? | Clostridium botulinum |
| What type of bacteria is Clostridium botulinum? | Spore forming Gram + bacillus |
| Does the botulism toxin cause spastic or flaccid paralysis? | Flaccid paralysis |
| What improper home-cooking preparation may cause botulism? | Improper canning of foods |
| What is a colloquial term for leprosy? | Hansen's disease |
| What organism causes leprosy? | Mycobaterium leprae |
| What kind of bacteria is Mycobacterium leprae? | Acid-fast + bacillus |
| Where on the body does leprosy occur? | In peripheral nerves and skin cells |
| What is the tuberculoid form of leprosy and how does it manifest? | The neural form - causes loss of sensation in the skin |
| What is the progressive form of leprosy and how does it manifest? | The lepromatous form - causes disfiguring nodules |
| How is poliomyelitis (poliovirus) contracted? | Ingestion |
| What can occur if poliovirus becomes viremic? | Destruction of motor cells resulting in paralysis |
| What is the common term for Rhabdovirus? | Rabies |
| Where does the rabies virus multiply? | In skeletal and cerebral tissues |
| What are the two types of rabies? | Furious and paralytic |
| How are arboviruses transmitted? | By insects - "Arthropod Borne" |
| What are the three classifications of arboviruses? | Alphaviruses, Flaviviruses, Bunyaviruses |
| What is Cryptococcus neoformans meningitis? | Meningitis caused by a soil fungus associated with pigeon and chicken feces. From respiratory inhalation, it enters the lungs and progresses to the CNS |
| What is septic/septicemic shock? | Fatally low blood pressure for which the body fails to compensate |
| What can worsen a Gram - septic infection? | A high dose of antibiotics. The antibiotics kill the bacteria, which then release a high dose of endotoxins into the system |
| How is Gram + sepsis often contracted? | Via nosocomial infections |
| Which three strains of bacteria are usually responsible for Gram + sepsis? | Staph aureus, Strep pyogenes and Enterococcus species. |
| What is Puerperal sepsis, and what bacteria causes it? | "Childbirth fever" caused by Strep pyogenes |
| What is endocarditis? | Inflammation of the endocardium |
| What is subacute bacterial endocarditis? | Endocarditis caused by Alpha-hemolytic streptococci from the mouth |
| What is acute bacterial endocarditis? | Endocarditis caused by Staph aureus of the mouth |
| What causes Pericarditis? | Streptococci |
| What is a cardiac symptom of rheumatic fever? | Inflammation of the heart valves |
| Which bacteria (name and type) causes tularemia? | Francisella tularensis, Gram - bacillus |
| How is tularemia transmitted? | By deer flies |
| What is another term for brucellosis? | Undulant fever |
| What is the cardinal symptoms of brucellosis? | Undulating fever that spikes to 40 C each evening |
| What type of bacteria is Bacillus anthracis? | Gram + spore forming bacillus |
| How many types of anthrax are there? | Three - Cutaneous, Gastrointestinal, and Inhalation |
| Which bacteria causes cat scratch fever? | Bartonella henselae, Gram - bacteria |
| What does Yersinia pestis cause, and what is the vector by which it's spread? | The plague; Rat fleas |
| Where in the body does the bubonic plague strike? | Blood and lymph |
| What causes relapsing fever? | Borrelia species, a spirochete |
| What does borrelia burgdorferi cause? | Lyme disease |
| What are secondary symptoms of lyme disease? | Irregular heartbeat and encephalitis |
| What causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? | Rickettsia rickettsia - intracellular bacterium |
| Which bacteria causes epiglottitis? | H. influenzae |
| By what are strep throat and scarlet fever both caused? | Strep pyogenes |
| What bacteria causes diphtheria? | Corynebacterium diphtheriae, Gram + bacillus |
| What bacteria causes whooping cough? | Bordetella pertusis, Gram - coccobacillus |
| What are the three stages of whooping cough? | Catarrhal, Paroxysmal and Convalescence |
| What type of bacteria is Mycobacterium tuberculosis? | Acid-fast + bacillus |
| Which type of TB can affect any organ? | Miliary TB |
| What kind of bacteria is S. pneumoniae? | Gram + encapsulated diplococcus |
| Which bacteria causes walking pneumonia? | Mycoplasm pneumoniae |
| What is unique about Mycoplasm pneumoniae? | It's a wall-less bacteria |
| What kind of bacteria is Legionella pneumophila? | Gram - bacillus |
| Where is Legionella pneumophila typically found? | Standing or brackish water |
| What is Parrot Fever caused by, and why is it called Parrot Fever? | Chlamydia psittaci, a Gram - fastidious bacterium; Transmitted by bird feces (most commonly pet birds) |
| What illnesses is viral pneumonia typically a complication of? | Influenza, measles and chicken pox |
| Influenza has two types of spikes. Identify their names and purposes. | Hemagglutinin - used to attach to host cell Neuraminidase - used to release virus from cell |
| What is an antigenic shift? | A change in H and N spikes, likely d/t genetic recombination |
| What is an antigenic drift? | Mutations in the genes coding for H and N spikes, allows virus to avoid IgA |
| What type of pathogen is Histoplasma capsulatum? | A dimorphic fungus |
| What type of symptoms does Histoplasma capsulatum normally cause? | Respiratory symptoms |
| Which fungus causes Valley Fever? How is it transmitted? | Coccidiodes immitis; Airborne spores |
| What's an example of a dimorphic fungus found in soil that causes widespread tissue damage? | Blastomyces dermatitidis |
| What type of individuals does Pneumocystis carinii infect? | Newly infected infants and immunosuppressed individuals. |
| What type of diseases affect the upper digestive system? | Dental carries and periodontal disease |
| How are diseases of the lower gastrointestinal system treated? | Fluid and electrolyte replacement |
| What's the difference between infection and intoxication? | Infection - GROWTH of a pathogen, incubation 12 hrs to 2 weeks. Intoxication - INGESTION of a toxin, symptoms appear 1-48 hrs post-ingestion |
| How does Staphylococcal food poisoning usually occur? | A food handler with an infected cut prepares room temperature food |
| What are the characteristic symptoms of Shigellosis? | Bloody diarrhea, fever and stomach cramps |
| When do signs and symptoms of Salmonella enterica poisoning manifest? | 12 to 72 hours after ingestion |
| What organism causes typhoid fever? | Salmonella enterica serovar typhi |
| How does typhoid fever spread? | Via phagocytes in the body |
| What organism causes cholera? | Vibrio cholerae |
| How is cholera contracted? | Via the ingestion of contaminated feces |
| What toxin does E. coli O157:H7 produce? | Shiga toxin |
| Which form of gastroenteritis (which bacteria) causes diarrhea which may be watery or sticky with (usually) occult blood and fecal leukocytes? | Campylobacter jejuni |
| Which bacteria may cause stomach cancer, peptic ulcers and gastritis? | Helicobacter pylori |
| How is Helicobacter pylori treated? | With triple antibiotic therapy for one week |
| How many varieties of Hepatitis exist? | Five |
| Which two forms of hepatitis are fecal-oral? | A and E |
| Which form of hepatitis must exist for Hepatitis D to be present? | Hepatitis B |
| For which forms of hepatitis are there vaccines? | B, C and D |
| Which two viruses cause viral gastroenteritis? | Rotavirus and Norovirus (both highly contagious) |
| Which bacteria is predominant in the vagina? | Lactobacilli |
| How many bacteria/mL indicate a UTI? | >1000 bacteria/mL |
| How many coliforms/mL indicate a UTI? | >100 coliforms/mL |
| What bacteria typically causes cystitis? | E. coli |
| What are the reservoirs for Leptospira interrogans? | Dogs and rats |
| How and where does Neisseria gonorrhea attach? | Oral and urogenital mucousa via fimbrae |
| What can gonorrhea result in if left untreated (3 examples)? | Endocarditis, meningitis and arthritis |
| Are females typically symptomatic or asymptomatic with a gonorrhea infection? | Asymptomatic |
| Where might a Clamydia trachomatis infection be transmitted to in a newborn? | The eyes |
| Which two bacteria can cause pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)? | Neisseria gonorrheae and Chlamydia trachomatis |
| Which bacteria causes syphilis? | Treponema pallidum |
| How does syphilis invade? | Through the mucosa or by pierced skin |
| What are symptoms of first stage syphilis? | Chancre at site of infection, swollen lymph nodes |
| What are symptoms of secondary stage syphilis? | Skin and mucosal rashes |
| How many latent periods of syphilis are there? What are they? | Two; Early (able to infect a partner) and Late (not likely to infect a partner) |
| What are symptoms of tertiary stage syphilis? | Gummas (a type of granulosa, a non-cancerous growth) ocur on many organs, resulting in cardiac, neurological, and sensory problems |
| What does Haemophilus ducreyi cause? | Chancroids - ulcers on genitalia |
| What causes bacterial vaginosis? How is it characterized? | Gardnerella vaginalis; Clear/gra, foul smelling discharge. |
| Which strain of herpes most commonly causes genital herpes? | HHV-2 |
| What does human papillomavirus cause? | Genital warts |
| Which form of HPV causes cervical and penile cancer? | HPVA 16 |
| Define parasite | An organism that grows, feeds, and lives on or in another organism to whose survival it contributes nothing |
| What are the two types of parasites? How do they differ? | Endoparasite - internal INFECTION; parasite lives in host tissue' Ectoparasite - external INFESTATION. Parasite lives on skin or hair of host |
| True or false: Most parasites can survive on any type of host? | False - most require a specific parasite, ex) dog fleas |
| Do parasites prey on a host temporarily or permanently? | Both - Some, once mature, must stay with a host (ex: tapeworms). Others can come and go (ex: fleas) |
| What is another word for permanent parasites? | Obligate parasites |
| What is another word for temporary parasites? | Facultative parasites |
| What is a trophoziote? | The vegetative form of an protozoa |
| How are protozoa classified? | By their form of locomotion |
| How do Sarcodina move? | Pseudopods |
| What does Entamoeba histolytica cause? | Dysentery |
| True or false: antibiotics are the best form of treatment for Entamoeba histolytica | False - They are contraindicated because they kill of normal flora. Drugs of choice are Flagyl or Emetine |
| What's an example of a ciliophora? | Balantidum coli |
| How is Balantidum coli transmitted? | As a cyst |
| How do Mastigophora move? | Flagella |
| True or false: Trypanosoma exists in both trophozoite and cyst stages. | False - Only trophozoite stage |
| How is Trypanosoma spread? | Via arthropods |
| What does Trypansoma infect? | Blood, CSF and the brain |
| What is the Latin name for South American Sleeping Sickness? How is it spread | Trypanosoma cruzi; Spread by feces of tratomid bug |
| What causes CHRONIC African Sleeping sickness? What are symptoms? | Trypanosoma gambiense; Fatigue, anemia, and narcolepsy |
| What causes ACUTE African Sleeping Sickness? What does it cause? How is it spread? | Trypanosoma rhodiense; Causes encephalitis; spread by the tsetse fly |
| Which STD exists only in trophozoite form? | Trichomonas vaginalis |
| What symptoms does Leishmaniasis cause? | Disfigurement |
| What classification of movement do Sporozoa have? | None |
| How is Toxoplasma gondii transmitted? | Through cat feces of outdoor cats |
| What can occur as a result of a Toxoplasma gondii infection? | Spontaneous abortion in pregnant women, dementia in AIDS patients |
| What species causes malaria? | Plasmodium species |
| How does malaria progress in the body? | First infects the liver, then erythrocytes |
| How is malaria treated? | Synthetic quinines |
| True or false: Cryptosporidium is chlorine resistant | True |
| What are the two Phyla of worms? | Nemahelminthes (roundworms) and Platyhelminthes (flatworms) |
| True or false: Nemahelmintehs reproduce both sexually and asexually. | False - Only sexually |
| True or false: Playthelminthes are hermaphrodites, so they can reproduce both sexually and asexually. | True |
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eippolito
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