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68WM6 Phase 2

Pediatrics Exam 12

QuestionAnswer
An inflammatory disease that occurs after infection with group a beta hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis that involves the joints, skin, brain, serous surfaces and heart is known as what? Rheumatic Fever.
An opening near the center of the septum which is an obvious sinus venosus defect is what type of atrial septal defect (ASD)? Ostium Secundum (ASD-2).
At what age will children be curious about sexual differences and may masturbate? 3-6 years old.
Cardiac disorder in which children are divided into two major groups know as what? Congenital heart disease. Acquired heart disease.
Children with intussusception may have bowel movements containing blood and mucus and no feces. These stools are known as what? Currant-jelly stools.
Chronic diarrhea is diarrhea lasting longer than how many days? 14 days.
Constriction or narrowing of the aortic arch or the descending aorta is known as what? Coarctation of the Aorta (COA)
Describe the appearance of the urine from a child with acute glomerulonephritis. Smoky brown or bloody urine.
Excessive destruction of platelets is known as what? Thrombocytopenia.
Failure of the fetal ductus to completely close with in the first few weeks after birth is known as what? Patent Ductus Arterious.
How many defects are there in Tetralogy of Fallot. Four.
Narrowing of the lower end of the stomach that occurs related to hypertrophy of the circular muscles of the pylorus or by spasms of the sphincter is known as what? Pyloric Stenosis.
Nephrosis is more common in which gender and age group? Boy. Ages 2-8 years old.
Opening in the junction near the superior vena cava and the right atrium, what Atrail Septal Defect (ASD) may be associated with partial anomalous pulmonary venous connection? Sinus Venosus Defect.
Peptic ulcer disease is caused by the presence of what? Helicobacter Pylori.
Pyloric stenosis can manifest to projectile vomiting, constant hunger, dehydration and an olive shaped mass where? Right Upper Quadrant.
Shepler Syndrome or hypercholesterolemia refers to excessive cholesterol in the blood.Both are believed to play a role in producing atherosclerosis which eventually can lead to coronary artery disease and is also known as what? Hyperlipidemia.
Symptoms of Meckel's diverticulum usually occur at what age? Before the age of 2.
These two drugs are bile acid resins or sequestrants which act by binding bile acids in the intestines. Cholestyramine (Questran), Colestipol (Colestid).
Underdevelopment of the left side of the heart, resulting in an absent or non functioning ventricle and hypoplasia of the ascending aorta is known as what? Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HPLS).
VACTERL stands for what? Vertebral, Anorectal, Cardiovascular, Tracheoesophageal, Renal, Limb abnormalities.
What are the chemotherapy treatments used for Hodgkin's disease? MOPP (mechlorethamine, vincristine [Oncovin], procarbazine, prednisone), OR ABVD (adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine, dacarbazine)
What are the four types of sickle cells crises? Vaso-occlusive, Splenic Sequestration, Aplastic, Hyperhemolytic.
What are the most common forms of hemophilia? Factor VIII Deficiency, Factor IX Deficiency, Von Willebrand Disease.
Which Proton Pump Inhibitors are used to treat Peptic ulcer disease? omeprazole (Prilosec) and lansoprazole (Prevacid).
What are three H2 antagonist used to treat Peptic ulcer disease? cimetidine (Tagamet), ranitidine (Zantac), famotidine (Pepcid)
What are three types of Atrial Septal Defects (ASD)? Ostium Primum (ASD 1), Ostium Secundum (ASD 2), Sinus Venosus Defect.
What Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) opens at the lower end of the septum and may be associated with mitral valvue abnormalities? Ostium Primum (ASD 1).
What beta Thalassemia is also known as Cooley's anemia which results in severe anemia that can lead to cardiac failure and death in early childhood without treatment? Thalassemia Major.
What cardiomyopathy is characterized by an increase in heart muscle mass without an increase in cavity size? Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy.
What cardiomyopathy is most common in children and occurs when the ventricles are dilated and contractility is greatly decreased? Dilated Cardiomyopathy.
What disease in infants shows a lack of normal peristalsis and has an absents of ganglionic innervations of the bowel? Hirschsprung's Disease.
What disease is caused by a failure to thrive and is noticed due to abdominal distention with atrophy of the buttocks. Stools are large, bulky and frothy. Celiac Disease.
What does encopresis mean? Constipation with fecal soiling.
What does obstipation mean? Extremely long intervals between defication.
What does VATER stand for? Vertebral, Anorectal, Tracheoesophageal, Renal.
What is Wilm's Tumor? An embryonal adenosarcoma. It is the most common malignant renal and intra-abdominal tumor of children.
What is the asymptomatic for of beta Thalassemia? Thalassemia minor.
What is the drug of choice to eradicate Group A beta hemolytic streptococcal infection? Penicillin - or erythromycin if there is an allergy to PCN.
What is the earliest sign of Hirschsprung's disease? Failure to pass meconium stool in the first 24 hours after birth.
What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis? Rotvirus.
What is surgery called to repair a hernia? Herniorraphy.
What is the surgical management of gasteresophageal reflux in children? Nissen Fundoplication.
What is used to diagnose Meckel's Diverticulum? Barium enema.
What medication is commonly used to treat Patent Ductus Arteriosus? indomethacin (Indocin).
What procedure allows a systemic venous return directed to the lungs without a ventricular pump through the surgical connections between the right atrium and the pulmonary artery? Modified Montan Procedure.
What surgical procedure can be done to close moderate to large defects related to Atrial Septal and Ventricular Septal Defects? Dacron Patch.
What surgical procedure is preformed at 6-9 months of age to relieve cyanosis related Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HLHS)? Bidirectional Glenn Shunt.
What syndrome will develop with bright red blood in the vomit of an infant? Mallory-Weiss Tear.
Which tests may show an enlarged appendix? Ultrasound, CT.
What two defects are necessary for survival with Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome? Patent Foramen Ovale, Patent Ductus Arteriosus.
What two organs other than the heart can Dilated Cardiomyopathy effect other than the heart? Liver and the lungs.
What two procedures can assess bladder capacity and function? Cystometrogram, urethral pressure profile.
Which type if diarrhea occurs in the first few months of life and lasts longer than two weeks? Intractable diarrhea.
What type of diet should a patient with Crohn's Disease be placed on? High protein, high calorie.
Which tissue in the gastrointestinal tract fail to separate properly from the respiratory tract in utero, it is known as what? TEF and EA Tracheoesophageal Fistula and Esophageal Atresia.
Which beta Thalassemia is manifested as Splegomegaly and moderate to severe anemia? Thalassemia intermedia.
Which defects may be necessary to sustain life in neonates with a cyanotic heart defect? Patent Ductus Arteriosus.
Which form of beta Thalassemia produces a mild microcytic anemia? Thalassemia trait.
Which position is recommended for a child with GERD? The upright, prone position.
Who is the person responsible for passing hemophilia to their children? The mother.
A five day old infant needs IV fluids. Where is the best site to start an IV in the child? Hand or foot.
A circular reddened area on the skin that is elevated describes what type of rash? Papule.
A disorder associated with deficient secretions of the growth hormone is termed? Hypopituitarism.
A fatty substance secreted from the sebaceous follicles is known as what? Sebum.
A highly infectious fungal infections transmitted from person to person. The fungus attacks hairs at the bases, causing them to break off close to the skin, loose pigment and leave a patch of alopecia is known as what? Tinea Capitis.
A patient may experience reversible hair loss, insomnia, aggressiveness, and schoolwork may decline with which medical condition? Hypothyroidism.
What term is used to describe a lesion or symptom that is characteristic of a specific illness? Pathognomonic.
Abnormal state of motor and psychic hypoactivity is known as what? Akinesia.
After a gastrostomy feeding you should place the baby in what position? HOB at thirty degrees and on the babies right side.
An infectious disease of the skin caused by staph or by group A hemolytic that results when the organism comes into contact with a break in the skin and is very contagious. This is know as what? Impetigo.
Caused by a parasite, spread by close personal contact to include sexual relations, rarely transmitted by fomites, where the female mite burrows under the skin and lays eggs, leaving feces and tunnels around the skin. These little bugs are known as what? Scabies.
Caused by a spirochete that enters the skin and bloodstream through the saliva and feces of ticks is known as what? Lyme Disease.
Characterized by refusal to maintain normal body weight and by severe weight loss is known as what? Anorexia Nervosa.
Characterized by a recurrent episodes of uncontrolled binge eating, followed by self induced vomiting and/or misuse of laxatives or diuretics is known as what? Bulimia.
Defective or absent vocal function is known as what? Aphasia.
Developmental inappropriate degree of gross motor activity, impulsivity and inattention that begins before age 7 and lasts more than 6 months in known as what? ADHD.
Difficulty speaking is known as what? Dysarthria.
Difficulty swallowing is known as what? Dysphagia.
How long should one suction a tracheostomy in a child? No more than 15 seconds (5 seconds each up to 3 times).
If diabetes Insipidus test comes back positive what is given to the child? Vasopressin (Pitressin).
Infestation by a parasite of the scalp and hair is known as what? Pediculosis Capitis.
Inflammation of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles in the skin that peak at puberty and is more common in males, is known as what? Acne Vulgaris.
Inflammation of the skin involves sebaceous glands that do not itch and are characteristically thick, adherent, oily, yellowing, crust like scales on the scalp and forehead, are known as what? Seborrheic Dermatitis.
Medical terminology for chaffing; dermatitis occuring in the folds of skin in known as what? Intertrigo.
Decreased hearing associated with aging is known as what? Presbycusis.
One gram of wet diaper equates to how much urine? 1 gm = 1 ml.
Paralysis on one side of the body is known as what? Hemiplegia.
The need for glasses associated with aging is known as what? Presbyopia.
The study of aging including physiological and social aspects is known as what? Gerontology.
What are the first symptom of Impetigo? Red papules.
What are the first signs of hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcemia that nurses need to be aware of when taking care of a child who is post-thyroidectomy? Chvostek's sign, Trousseau's sign and Tetany.
What are three biological agents used a weapons? Anthrax, Small Pox and Ebola virus.
What are three types of burns? Thermal, electrical and chemical.
What does dysgraphia mean? Difficulty writing.
What does exophthalmos mean? Bulging eyes (seen with Graves Disease).
What gives you tachycardia and a strawberry tongue? Scarlet fever.
Which goes first? Eye ointment or eye drops? Drops than ointment with 3 minutes between application.
What is a complication of Beta Hemolytic strep infection? Nephritis.
What is a technique used for loosening mucus in the airway? Postural drainage.
What is a verruca? A type of wart.
What is also known as Graves Disease? Hyperthyroidism.
What is given to immunosuppressed children with Varicella? Zovirax (acyclovir) and Immune Globulin.
What is the characteristic rash that is noted on children with Lyme Disease? Erythema margins which appears as annular red rings. (Bullseye)
What is the disease that causes the "slapped cheek" appearance that is caused by human parvovirus B19 (HPV)? Fifth Disease.
What is the most common epidermal wound in children? Abrasions.
What is the most important thing to remember when preparing to administer DDAVP? Shake well before administration. Mixture must be thoroughly suspended in the oil that it is mixed with prior to administration.
What is the organism responsible for causing scalded skin syndrome? Staph Aureus.
What is the preferred site for an IM injection on an infant? Vastus Lateralis.
What is the result of the hyposecretion of ADH or vasopressin? Diabetes Insipidus.
What is the treatment for Tinea Capitis? Oral Griseofulvin (Fulvicin, Grisactin) and avoid sunlight.
What is the ultra violet light called used to diagnose Tinea Capitis? Wood's Light.
What medication is used in the management of Lyme Disease for children older than 8 year olds and children younger than 8? 8 and older = Doxyclycline. Below 8 = Amoxicillin.
What gives minors the right to give consent, even though they are not technically adults, as long as they demonstrate the ability and maturity to understand the risks and benefits of the treatment? The Mature Minor's Doctrine.
What should not be done on a child that is suspected to have Wilm's Tumor? Do not palpate the abdomen.
What should the pressure be when performing suctioning on a tracheostomy in a child? 100mmHg.
What is the last stage of the life cycle known as? Senescence.
What temperature should be maintained in the room of a patient who has suffered severe burns? 82-91 degrees.
What three conditions must be met for informed consent to be valid? 1) Must be over the age of majority and be considered competent. 2) Must receive all information to make informed consent. 3) Must act voluntarily without force or coercion.
What tool is used to determine the body surface area (BSA) of a child? The West Nomogram.
What type of dressing is preferred to increase the rate of healing and decrease pain and inflammation? Moist dressing. (Traditional dry dressing should not be used)
What type if solution is used for fluid resuscitation of a burn patient during the initial 24 hours? Crystalloids.
What will Pediculosis Capitis appear as under Wood's Light? Nits will fluoresce white.
When is pruritus most intense in a case of Scabies? At nighttime.
When should a stimulant medication such as Ritalin be given? In the morning.
When should growth hormone injections be given? At bedtime/nighttime.
Wood's Light will reveal Tinea Capitis as what? A green patch.
What is a possible complication of repeated blood transfusions? Hemosiderosis (a form of iron overload disorder resulting in the accumulation of hemosiderin).
What is the name for the feeling of satisfaction that life has been happy? Egointergrity.
What behavior that is associated with OCD? Ritualistic behavior.
What is the most important nursing intervention for a child with chorea? Protect the child from injuring themselves. Chorea is an abnormal involuntary movement disorder.
What is the most common concentration of Insulin? 100U.
Lesions characterized by their flat, circular and reddend appearance are known as what? Macule.
What heart sound can be found in a new born with Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) Loud systolic murmur.
What is one of the most common symptoms associated with right sided heart failure? Edema.
What is the most common sign of a congenital heart defect? Cyanosis.
What should Fe supplements be administered with for better absorption? Orange juice.
Presentation of a "Strawberry" tongue, temperature of 104 F for 5 days or more, bilateral conjunctivitis, erythema and desquamation of palms and soles of feet, polymorphous rash are signs of what disease? Kawasaki's Disease.
Name three categories of cardiomyopathy? Dilated, Hypertrophic and restrictive cardiomyopathy.
When administering digoxin to an infant you take an apical pulse. What rate must the heart rate be above to give digoxin safety? Heart rate must be above 90 beats per minute.
When taking supplemental iron, what is a possible effect it can have on the stool? Black and/or tarry appearance.
What is the most common parasite found in humans? Pinworm.
What is the name used for restraint with pediatric patients? Therapeutic hugging.
Reoccurring UTI's can result in what? Renal scarring.
Circular reddened lesion containing clear fluid is known as a? Vesicle.
As far as nutrition: what is a reasonable goal for weight gain for a patient suffering from anorexia nervosa? 0.5 to 2lbs a week.
By age 18, 80% to 90% of adolescents have tried this drug? Alcohol.
What is the most common causative agent of bacterial endocarditis? Streptococcus viridans.
Rapid growth rate, combined with poor eating habits put adolescents at risk for which hematological deficiency? Iron deficiency anemia.
A pooling of blood in the liver and spleen with decreased blood volume and shock describes? Sequestrian crisis.
What is a definitive test for Hodgkin's lymphoma? Reed-Sternberg cells.
What procedure is done to obtain a definitive diagnosis for Aplastic Anemia? Bone marrow aspiration.
Patient shows characteristic cafe-au-lait skin pigmentation. Generalized hyper-pigmentation, increasing with age, and areas of hypo-pigmentation may occur. What syndrome is this? Fanconi Syndrome.
What is the name for an acquired platelet disorder that occurs in childhood. It's characterized by excessive destruction of platelets, petechiae and an increased number of immature platelets and eosinophils? Idiopathic Thrompocytopenic Purpura.
What is a malignant disease of the blood forming organs of the body that results in an uncontrolled growth of immature white blood cells (blast or stem cells)? Leukemia.
What disease is a neoplastic disease that originates in the lymphoid system and primarily involves the lymph nodes. Predictable metastasizes to the spleen, liver, bone marrow and lungs. There is also a presence of Reed-Sternberg cells? Hodgkin's Disease.
What is it called when there is a slipping of one part of the intestines into another portion of the intestines below it? Intussusseption.
At least what percentage of total body surface area with major burns causes a systemic response in children? 30% or more.
Which disorder is associated with a deficiency of growth hormone? Hypopituitarism.
What is it called when there is excessive Growth Hormone that is released before the closure of the epiphyseal shafts causing proportional overgrowth of the long bones until the individual reaches a height of 2.4 meters (8 feet) or more? Pituitary Hyperfunction.
What is it called when there is hyposecretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin? Diabetes Insipidus.
What is it called when there is hypersecretion of vasopressin or ADH that results in fluid retention and hypotonicity? SIADH - Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion.
Primary secretions of this virus are from the respiratory tract of the infected person. There are skin lesions present (scabs are not infectious) Incubation is 2-3 weeks or 18 days? Varicella (Chicken Pox).
What has a source that is a fecal-oral route. It is sually from contaminated food or water. (Incubation is 30 - 180 days)? Hepatitis A.
What has a source that is blood or blood products that is contaminated by HBV. Can be contracted via exchange of blood or any body secretions, via intimate physical contact and from mother to infant. (Incubation is 15 - 50 days)? Hepatitis B.
Source is from the respiratory tract secretions, blood and urine of the infected person. Manifested by koplik's spots (clustered, white lesions on the buccal mucosa) and maculopapular spots. Incubation is 2-3 weeks? Measles (Rubeola).
What is manifested by a persistant high fever (103-105 F) that drops rapidly when rash appears. Maculopapular rash is non-pruritic and blanches easily. Incubation period is 5-15 days. Stays contagious until the rash fades? Roseola.
Tachycardia, strawberry tongue, pinpoint rash, circumoral pallor, desquamation with an incubation period of 2-5 days and has a known source of Group A Beta Hemolytic is know as what? Scarlet Fever.
*Bradycardia, *dysrhythmia, nausea, vomiting and anorexia are signs and symptoms of overdose of what medication? Digoxin overdose (antiarrhythmic).
26 to 30 gauge needle is used for what type of administration? Subcutaneous and Intradermal
After giving medication via an indwelling feeding tube or gastrostomy the nurse must do what? Adequately flush the tube after medication is administered.
22 to 24 gauge needle should be used for what type of administration? Parenteral/Intravenous access.
Created by: LizzieTomlin