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MS 3
miscellaneous
| QUESTION | ANSWER |
|---|---|
| B1 beta blocker affects? a)Heart b)Lung | a)Heart |
| B2 beta blocker affects? a)Heart b)Lung | b)Lung |
| PrednisONE, cortisONE, dexamethasONE are what kind of drugs? | Anti-Inflammatory Corticosteroids – they all end in ONE |
| When using INH as anti tuberculin, you should? a)Increase the B6 b)Decrease the B6 | a)Increase the B6 |
| Calcium Antagonist drugs blocks calcium access to cells (Very Nice Drugs) Verapamil, Nifedipine, Diltiazem, what is its action? a)Inc contractility & conductivity of the heart b)Dec contractility & conductivity of the heart | b)Dec contractility & conductivity of the heart |
| Calcium Antagonist drugs blocks calcium access to cells (Very Nice Drugs) Verapamil, Nifedipine, Diltiazem, what are its s/e? a)Low BP & bradycardia b)Hypertension & tachycardia | a)Low BP & bradycardia – you will see also Headache, Abd discomfort, Peripheral edema & may precipitate A-V block |
| B1 beta blocker affects? a)Heart b)Lung | a)Heart |
| B2 beta blocker affects? a)Heart b)Lung | b)Lung |
| PrednisONE, cortisONE, dexamethasONE are what kind of drugs? | Anti-Inflammatory Corticosteroids – they all end in ONE |
| When using INH as anti tuberculin, you should? a)Increase the B6 b)Decrease the B6 | a)Increase the B6 |
| Calcium Antagonist drugs blocks calcium access to cells (Very Nice Drugs) Verapamil, Nifedipine, Diltiazem, what is its action? a)Inc contractility & conductivity of the heart b)Dec contractility & conductivity of the heart | b)Dec contractility & conductivity of the heart |
| Calcium Antagonist drugs blocks calcium access to cells (Very Nice Drugs) Verapamil, Nifedipine, Diltiazem, what are its s/e? a)Low BP & bradycardia b)Hypertension & tachycardia | a)Low BP & bradycardia – you will see also Headache, Abd discomfort, Peripheral edema & may precipitate A-V block |
| Calcium Antagonist drugs blocks calcium access to cells (Very Nice Drugs) Verapamil, Nifedipine, Diltiazem, what are its s/e? a)Low BP b)Orthostatic hypotention | a)Low BP / Orthostatic hypotension – ACE Inhibitor s/e |
| Calcium Antagonist drugs blocks calcium access to cells (Very Nice Drugs) Verapamil, Nifedipine, Diltiazem, what are its s/e? a)Peripheral edema b)Cough | a)Peripheral edema – calcium antagonist will decrease demand for oxygen |
| What are the three types of drugs that are classified as Anti-Hypertensive? | 1)ACE Inhibitors (ends in PRIL) 2)B-Blockers (ends in OLOL) 3)Calcium Antagonists (Very Nice Drugs) |
| Anorexia Nervosa, s/s correct? a)Loss of at least 25% of original body weight b)Loss of at least 35% of original body weight | a)Loss of at least 25% of original body weight |
| Anorexia Nervosa, s/s correct? a)Amenorrhea b)Feels thin when fat | a)Amenorrhea |
| Bulimia s/s, correct? a)Binge eating in solitude b)Binge eating in the company of others | a)Binge eating in solitude |
| Bulimia s/s, correct? a)Mood is down when eating b)Mood is up when eating | b)Mood is up when eating – mood is down when eating is stopped |
| Bulimia s/s, correct? a)Sleeps after eating b)Fully awake after eating | a)Sleeps after eating – may vomit when binge is over |
| Myopia, correct? a)Near sightedness b)Far sightedness | a)Near sightedness – Myopia has MY -can see near |
| Hyperopia, correct? a)Far sightedness b)Near sightedness | a)Far sightedness – Hyperopia has HY -far which is high |
| Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma is gradual loss of peripheral vision (Tunnel Vision), what are the 3-P's of this condition? | 1)Preventable 2)Painless 3)Permanent – may lead to blindness if untreated |
| Leukemia has s/s of an A-N-T? (think of ants in ant colony compressed) | A-anemia N-neutropenia T-Thrombocytopenia |
| DM, exercise Frequency, correct? a)3x a week b)5x a week | a)3x a week |
| DM, exercise Intensity, correct? a)60-80% of maximal heart rate b)50-70% of maximal heart rate | a)60-80% of maximal heart rate |
| DM, exercise Time, correct? a)Aerobic is 10-15 mins b)Aerobic is 20-30 mins | b)Aerobic is 20-30 mins – with 5-10 mins of warm up |
| Calcium Antagonist drugs blocks calcium access to cells (Very Nice Drugs) Verapamil, Nifedipine, Diltiazem, what are its s/e? a)Low BP b)Orthostatic hypotention | a)Low BP / Orthostatic hypotension – ACE Inhibitor s/e |
| Calcium Antagonist drugs blocks calcium access to cells (Very Nice Drugs) Verapamil, Nifedipine, Diltiazem, what are its s/e? a)Peripheral edema b)Cough | a)Peripheral edema – calcium antagonist will decrease demand for oxygen |
| What are the three types of drugs that are classified as Anti-Hypertensive? | 1)ACE Inhibitors (ends in PRIL) 2)B-Blockers (ends in OLOL) 3)Calcium Antagonists (Very Nice Drugs) |
| Anorexia Nervosa, s/s correct? a)Loss of at least 25% of original body weight b)Loss of at least 35% of original body weight | a)Loss of at least 25% of original body weight |
| Anorexia Nervosa, s/s correct? a)Amenorrhea b)Feels thin when fat | a)Amenorrhea |
| Bulimia s/s, correct? a)Binge eating in solitude b)Binge eating in the company of others | a)Binge eating in solitude |
| Bulimia s/s, correct? a)Mood is down when eating b)Mood is up when eating | b)Mood is up when eating – mood is down when eating is stopped |
| Bulimia s/s, correct? a)Sleeps after eating b)Fully awake after eating | a)Sleeps after eating – may vomit when binge is over |
| Myopia, correct? a)Near sightedness b)Far sightedness | a)Near sightedness – Myopia has MY -can see near |
| Hyperopia, correct? a)Far sightedness b)Near sightedness | a)Far sightedness – Hyperopia has HY -far which is high |
| Primary Open-Angle Glaucoma is gradual loss of peripheral vision (Tunnel Vision), what are the 3-P's of this condition? | 1)Preventable 2)Painless 3)Permanent – may lead to blindness if untreated |
| Leukemia has s/s of an A-N-T? (think of ants in ant colony compressed) | A-anemia N-neutropenia T-Thrombocytopenia |
| DM, exercise Frequency, correct? a)3x a week b)5x a week | a)3x a week |
| DM, exercise Intensity, correct? a)60-80% of maximal heart rate b)50-70% of maximal heart rate | a)60-80% of maximal heart rate |
| DM, exercise Time, correct? a)Aerobic is 10-15 mins b)Aerobic is 20-30 mins | b)Aerobic is 20-30 mins – with 5-10 mins of warm up |
| Medications that produce the same effects as the parasympathetic nervous system? | Cholinergic Drugs |
| Cardiar output is? a)Heart rate + stroke volume b)Heart rate x stroke volume | b)Heart rate x stroke volume |
| Immediate treatment of an Myocardial Infarction is M-O-N-A? | M-morphine, O-oxygen, N-nitroglycerine, A-asa(aspirin) |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Dull, steady pain in periumbilical area b)Rigidlike pain in the upper quadrant of the stomach | a)Dull, steady pain in periumbilical area |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Pain progresses over 2-4 hours b)Pain progresses over 4-6 hours | b)Pain progresses over 4-6 hours |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Pain localizes to RIGHT lower quadrant b)Pain localizes to LEFT lower quadrant | a)Pain localizes to RIGHT lower quadrant |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Low grade fever b)High fever | a)Low grade fever |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Sudden pain relief means rupture b)Sudden pain relief means false diagnosis | a)Sudden pain relief means rupture - may lead to peritonitis |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Rebound pain or tenderness b)Rigid boardlike pain | a)Rebound pain or tenderness |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Increase WBC b)Decrease WBC | a)Increase WBC – other diagnostic procedures are Abdominal Sonogram & Exploratory Lap |
| Hepatitis s/s, correct? a)Right Upper Quadrant discomfort b)Right Lower Quadrant discomfort | a)Right Upper Quadrant discomfort |
| Hepatitis s/s, correct? a)Dark urine b)Very yellow urine | a)Dark urine |
| Hepatitis s/s, correct treatment? a)Rest & hydration b)Rest & exercise | a)Rest & hydration – Nutrition & Activity as tolerated only |
| Decorticate (flexor) posturing, correct? a)Problems within midbrain or pons b)Problems with cervical spinal tract or cerebral hemisphere | b)Problems with cervical spinal tract or cerebral hemisphere – the arms meet at the center of the body and form like “c” |
| Decerebrate (extensor) posturing, correct? a)Problems with cervical spinal tract or cerebral hemisphere b)Problems within midbrain or pons | b)Problems within midbrain or pons – arms extend and form like an “e” |
| Breakfast at 8 (Cervical), controls? a)Upper body b)Diaphragm, arms & shoulders | b)Diaphragm, arms & shoulders |
| Lunch at 12 (Thoracic), controls? a)Bowel b)Diaphragm c)Upper body & GIT function | c)Upper body & GIT function |
| Dinner at 5 (Lumbar & Sacral), controls? a)Lower body, bowel & bladder b)GIT & GUT | a)Lower body, bowel & bladder |
| Medications that produce the same effects as the parasympathetic nervous system? | Cholinergic Drugs |
| Cardiar output is? a)Heart rate + stroke volume b)Heart rate x stroke volume | b)Heart rate x stroke volume |
| Immediate treatment of an Myocardial Infarction is M-O-N-A? | M-morphine, O-oxygen, N-nitroglycerine, A-asa(aspirin) |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Dull, steady pain in periumbilical area b)Rigidlike pain in the upper quadrant of the stomach | a)Dull, steady pain in periumbilical area |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Pain progresses over 2-4 hours b)Pain progresses over 4-6 hours | b)Pain progresses over 4-6 hours |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Pain localizes to RIGHT lower quadrant b)Pain localizes to LEFT lower quadrant | a)Pain localizes to RIGHT lower quadrant |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Low grade fever b)High fever | a)Low grade fever |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Sudden pain relief means rupture b)Sudden pain relief means false diagnosis | a)Sudden pain relief means rupture - may lead to peritonitis |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Rebound pain or tenderness b)Rigid boardlike pain | a)Rebound pain or tenderness |
| Appendicitis, correct? a)Increase WBC b)Decrease WBC | a)Increase WBC – other diagnostic procedures are Abdominal Sonogram & Exploratory Lap |
| Hepatitis s/s, correct? a)Right Upper Quadrant discomfort b)Right Lower Quadrant discomfort | a)Right Upper Quadrant discomfort |
| Hepatitis s/s, correct? a)Dark urine b)Very yellow urine | a)Dark urine |
| Hepatitis s/s, correct treatment? a)Rest & hydration b)Rest & exercise | a)Rest & hydration – Nutrition & Activity as tolerated only |
| Decorticate (flexor) posturing, correct? a)Problems within midbrain or pons b)Problems with cervical spinal tract or cerebral hemisphere | b)Problems with cervical spinal tract or cerebral hemisphere – the arms meet at the center of the body and form like “c” |
| Decerebrate (extensor) posturing, correct? a)Problems with cervical spinal tract or cerebral hemisphere b)Problems within midbrain or pons | b)Problems within midbrain or pons – arms extend and form like an “e” |
| Breakfast at 8 (Cervical), controls? a)Upper body b)Diaphragm, arms & shoulders | b)Diaphragm, arms & shoulders |
| Lunch at 12 (Thoracic), controls? a)Bowel b)Diaphragm c)Upper body & GIT function | c)Upper body & GIT function |
| Dinner at 5 (Lumbar & Sacral), controls? a)Lower body, bowel & bladder b)GIT & GUT | a)Lower body, bowel & bladder |
| Burns, Superficial thickness (1st degree), correct? a)Moist b)Blanches with pressure | b)Blanches with pressure |
| Burns, Superficial thickness (1st degree), correct? a)Discolored b)No edema | a)No edema |
| Burns, Superficial thickness (1st degree), correct? a)Painless with redness b)Painful with redness | b)Painful with redness |
| Burns, Partial Thickness (2nd degree), correct? a)Blistered & moist b)Blanching & dry | a)Blistered & moist – it is painful too |
| Burns, Full Thickness (3rd degree), correct? a)Dry, discolored & no pain b)Blistered, painful & edematous | a)Dry, discolored & no pain |
| Burns by tissue layer, Subcutaneous tissue? a)1st degree b)3rd degree | b)3rd degree |
| Burns, Superficial thickness (1st degree), correct? a)Moist b)Blanches with pressure | b)Blanches with pressure |
| Burns, Superficial thickness (1st degree), correct? a)Discolored b)No edema | a)No edema |
| Burns, Superficial thickness (1st degree), correct? a)Painless with redness b)Painful with redness | b)Painful with redness |
| Burns, Partial Thickness (2nd degree), correct? a)Blistered & moist b)Blanching & dry | a)Blistered & moist – it is painful too |
| Burns, Full Thickness (3rd degree), correct? a)Dry, discolored & no pain b)Blistered, painful & edematous | a)Dry, discolored & no pain |
| Burns by tissue layer, Subcutaneous tissue? a)1st degree b)3rd degree | b)3rd degree |
| Stage - Client is not breathing / May not have heartbeat (assist in resuscitation) | Fourth Stage (Danger) |
| Stage – Client unconscious / Muscles relaxed (begin preparation / client is under good control) | Third Stage (Surgical Anesthesia) |
| Stage – Increase automatic activity / Irregular breathing (remain quietly by pt's side / assist if needed) | Second Stage (Delirium/Excitement) |
| Stage – Client maybe drowsy or dizzy / May experience hallucinations (close OR doors / keep quiet / stand by to assist client) | First Stage (Analgesia) |
| Diazepan (Valium) is a TRANQUILIZER that decreases anxiety and apprehension, what are it's s/e? | Confusion, Clumsiness, Dizziness |
| Promethazine (Phenargan) is a SEDATIVE that decreases anxiety & antiemetic, what are it's s/e? | Hypotension during and after surgery |
| Secobarbital Na (Seconal) is a SEDATIVE that decreases anxiety & promote sedation, what are it's s/e? | Disorientation |
| Morphine Sulfate, Meperidine HCL (Demerol) are ANALGESICS that relieve pain, decreases anxiety & promotes sedation, what are it's s/e? | Respiratory Depression, Hypotension, Circulatory depression, Decrease Gastric Motility (Vomiting) |
| Atropine Sulfate is an ANTI-CHOLINERGIC that controls secretions, what are it's s/e? | Excessive Dryness of the mouth, Tachycardia |
| Cimetidine (Tagamet), Ranitidine (Zantac) are H2 ANTAGONIST that inhibits gastric acid production, what are it's s/e? | Mild Dizziness, Diarrhea, Somnolence |
| Arrange in order POST-OP GOALS. a)Maintain & promote adequate airway & respiratory function b)Restore Homeostasis & prevent complications | b)Restore Homeostasis & prevent complications – Goal # 1 / a)Maintain & promote adequate airway & respiratory function b)Restore Homeostasis & prevent complications – Goal # 2 |
| Atelectasis is collapse of the lung & the most common respiratory complication manifested by? a)Increased pulse & temperature b)Decrease pulse & increase temperature | a)Increased pulse & temperature – there is decreased breath sounds as well |
| Pneumonia is acute infection causin inflammation of lung tissue & manifested by? a)Elevated temperature & productive cough b)Elevated temperature & non-productive cough | a)Elevated temperature & productive cough |
| Pulmonary Emboli is a clot or fat that lodges in the pulmonary vasculature manifested by Hemoptysis & severe dyspnea with a pain that is? | Intense Pleuristic |
| Nursing interventions for GOAL 1 & 2? a)Encourage movement b)Promote rest | a)Encourage movement – coughing, pursed lip breathing & DBE q2 hrs, assist in early ambulation |
| What is the most reliable indicator of tissue perfusion? | Urine Output |
| What do you monitor POST-OP that will make you take necessary action & referral? | Na Electrolyte |
| POST-OP n/i is instruct & support breathing exercises to prevent? | Respiratory Acidosis |
| Are you allowed to force fluid immediately at POST-OP, why? | No, because it may result to dangerous overhydration |
| When does normal peristalsis returns at POST-OP? a)24-48 hrs b)48-72 hrs | b)48-72 hrs |
| What is the diet of a patient POST-OP? a)Clear Liquid Diet b)Soft Liquid Diet | a)Clear Liquid Diet – Broth, Tea, Fruit Juices, Jello, Soup |
| If there is an abdominal distention POST-OP, what do you do? | Early ambulation can prevent this, but if it is unavoided use RECTAL TUBE for abdominal distention |
| Greater tronchanter, Heel, Sacrum & Ischium are bony prominences and common site of? | Decubitus Ulcer |
| Decubitus Ulcer, non-blanchable erythema of the skin over a bony prominence or area of pressure, heals when pressure is relieved | Stage 1 Decubitus Ulcer |
| Decubitus Ulcer, superficial ulcer that manifest as abrasion, shallow crater or blister involving Epidermis, Dermis or both. | Stage 2 Decubitus Ulcer |
| Decubitus Ulcer, full thickness involving damage or loss of subcutaneous tissue, taking a month to heal | Stage 3 Decubitus Ulcer |
| Decubitus Ulcer, full thickness with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis or damage to muscle, bone or supporting structures | Stage 4 Decubitus Ulcer |
| Decubitus Ulcer, avoid massage, moisture, skin dryness, hot water, friction & force then use? a)Mild cleanser b)Mild soap | b)Mild soap – reposition client q 2 hrs |
| Decubitus Ulcer, diet? a)Vit A, B2, C & K b)Vit A, B6, C & K | b)Vit A, B6, C & K – include Niacin & Riboflavin |
| Wound Healing Intention, centers on processes that fill the wound with new tissue, cover or seal sound & contract the sound, leaving think & flat scar? | Primary Intention |
| Wound Healing Intention, open wounds that require regeneration of much more tissue, taking more time through inflammation, granulation & epithelization, may require grafting? | Secondary Intention |
| Wound Healing Intention, wounds that are closed later as there is rick of infection d/t contamination, heals with wide scar. Delayed closure. | Tertiary Intention |
| Total or partial disruption (separation) in wound edges but underlying subcutaneous tissue has not parted? | Wound Dehiscence |
| Protrusion of viscera through an abnormal wound opening? | Wound Evisceration |
| Stage - Client is not breathing / May not have heartbeat (assist in resuscitation) | Fourth Stage (Danger) |
| Stage – Client unconscious / Muscles relaxed (begin preparation / client is under good control) | Third Stage (Surgical Anesthesia) |
| Stage – Increase automatic activity / Irregular breathing (remain quietly by pt's side / assist if needed) | Second Stage (Delirium/Excitement) |
| Stage – Client maybe drowsy or dizzy / May experience hallucinations (close OR doors / keep quiet / stand by to assist client) | First Stage (Analgesia) |
| Diazepan (Valium) is a TRANQUILIZER that decreases anxiety and apprehension, what are it's s/e? | Confusion, Clumsiness, Dizziness |
| Promethazine (Phenargan) is a SEDATIVE that decreases anxiety & antiemetic, what are it's s/e? | Hypotension during and after surgery |
| Secobarbital Na (Seconal) is a SEDATIVE that decreases anxiety & promote sedation, what are it's s/e? | Disorientation |
| Morphine Sulfate, Meperidine HCL (Demerol) are ANALGESICS that relieve pain, decreases anxiety & promotes sedation, what are it's s/e? | Respiratory Depression, Hypotension, Circulatory depression, Decrease Gastric Motility (Vomiting) |
| Atropine Sulfate is an ANTI-CHOLINERGIC that controls secretions, what are it's s/e? | Excessive Dryness of the mouth, Tachycardia |
| Cimetidine (Tagamet), Ranitidine (Zantac) are H2 ANTAGONIST that inhibits gastric acid production, what are it's s/e? | Mild Dizziness, Diarrhea, Somnolence |
| Arrange in order POST-OP GOALS. a)Maintain & promote adequate airway & respiratory function b)Restore Homeostasis & prevent complications | b)Restore Homeostasis & prevent complications – Goal # 1 / a)Maintain & promote adequate airway & respiratory function b)Restore Homeostasis & prevent complications – Goal # 2 |
| Atelectasis is collapse of the lung & the most common respiratory complication manifested by? a)Increased pulse & temperature b)Decrease pulse & increase temperature | a)Increased pulse & temperature – there is decreased breath sounds as well |
| Pneumonia is acute infection causin inflammation of lung tissue & manifested by? a)Elevated temperature & productive cough b)Elevated temperature & non-productive cough | a)Elevated temperature & productive cough |
| Pulmonary Emboli is a clot or fat that lodges in the pulmonary vasculature manifested by Hemoptysis & severe dyspnea with a pain that is? | Intense Pleuristic |
| Nursing interventions for GOAL 1 & 2? a)Encourage movement b)Promote rest | a)Encourage movement – coughing, pursed lip breathing & DBE q2 hrs, assist in early ambulation |
| What is the most reliable indicator of tissue perfusion? | Urine Output |
| What do you monitor POST-OP that will make you take necessary action & referral? | Na Electrolyte |
| POST-OP n/i is instruct & support breathing exercises to prevent? | Respiratory Acidosis |
| Are you allowed to force fluid immediately at POST-OP, why? | No, because it may result to dangerous overhydration |
| When does normal peristalsis returns at POST-OP? a)24-48 hrs b)48-72 hrs | b)48-72 hrs |
| What is the diet of a patient POST-OP? a)Clear Liquid Diet b)Soft Liquid Diet | a)Clear Liquid Diet – Broth, Tea, Fruit Juices, Jello, Soup |
| If there is an abdominal distention POST-OP, what do you do? | Early ambulation can prevent this, but if it is unavoided use RECTAL TUBE for abdominal distention |
| Greater tronchanter, Heel, Sacrum & Ischium are bony prominences and common site of? | Decubitus Ulcer |
| Decubitus Ulcer, non-blanchable erythema of the skin over a bony prominence or area of pressure, heals when pressure is relieved | Stage 1 Decubitus Ulcer |
| Decubitus Ulcer, superficial ulcer that manifest as abrasion, shallow crater or blister involving Epidermis, Dermis or both. | Stage 2 Decubitus Ulcer |
| Decubitus Ulcer, full thickness involving damage or loss of subcutaneous tissue, taking a month to heal | Stage 3 Decubitus Ulcer |
| Decubitus Ulcer, full thickness with extensive destruction, tissue necrosis or damage to muscle, bone or supporting structures | Stage 4 Decubitus Ulcer |
| Decubitus Ulcer, avoid massage, moisture, skin dryness, hot water, friction & force then use? a)Mild cleanser b)Mild soap | b)Mild soap – reposition client q 2 hrs |
| Decubitus Ulcer, diet? a)Vit A, B2, C & K b)Vit A, B6, C & K | b)Vit A, B6, C & K – include Niacin & Riboflavin |
| Wound Healing Intention, centers on processes that fill the wound with new tissue, cover or seal sound & contract the sound, leaving think & flat scar? | Primary Intention |
| Wound Healing Intention, open wounds that require regeneration of much more tissue, taking more time through inflammation, granulation & epithelization, may require grafting? | Secondary Intention |
| Wound Healing Intention, wounds that are closed later as there is rick of infection d/t contamination, heals with wide scar. Delayed closure. | Tertiary Intention |
| Total or partial disruption (separation) in wound edges but underlying subcutaneous tissue has not parted? | Wound Dehiscence |
| Protrusion of viscera through an abnormal wound opening? | Wound Evisceration |
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akosipidro
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