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C130 FE MQF -V3
AFI 11-2C-130V3 (25May2006)
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Unless otherwise directed, waiver authority for the contents of AFI 11-2C-130V3 is the __________ with mission execution authority. | MAJCOM/A3/DO |
| Pilots __________ fly touch-and-go landings with passengers on board. | shall not |
| __________ is the period of time starting at mission report time and ending immediately after the aircrew completes the final engine shutdown of the day. | Flight Duty Period |
| The maximum FDP for a basic aircrew is _____ hours. | 16 |
| The maximum FDP for an augmented crew is _____ hours. | 18 |
| Complete all mission-related events (i.e., FCF/ACF checks, transition events, or tactical events) during the first _____ hours of the FDP. | 12 |
| CDT/FDP begins _____ hour(s) after aircrew alert notification. | 1 |
| Crewmembers may deadhead for a maximum of _____ hours. | 24 |
| SQ/CCs shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties: | When the flight will exceed maximum flying time limitations of AFI 11-2C-130V3, Within 12 hours of consuming alcoholic beverages or under the influence of alcohol, and When using nasal sprays to treat symptoms of head congestion existing before flight. |
| En route, do not enter aircrew members into crew rest until they complete __________. | official post-flight duties |
| __________ (or equivalents) are PMCR waiver authority. | OG/CC |
| The ___________ is the final authority in determining the overall suitability of an aircraft for the mission. | PIC |
| A PIC who accepted an aircraft with degraded equipment/systems is not committed to subsequent operations with the same degraded equipment. (T/F) | True |
| Do not connect unauthorized equipment (laptop computers, video equipment, food preparation equipment, radios/tape players, CD players, etc.) to: | the aircraft intercom/PA, radio systems, and electrical system |
| Any crewmember seeing a deviation of _____ feet altitude or _____ knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF. | 200/10 |
| Limit conversation to that essential for crew coordination and mission accomplishment during taxi, takeoff, approach, landing and any flight below __________. | 10,000 feet MSL |
| In terminal areas, __________ (if able) will monitor the command radio unless directed otherwise. | all crewmembers |
| For peace-time do not use runways less than __________ feet. | 3,000 |
| Minimum runway length for normal take-off is __________. | Critical Field Length |
| For peace-time, compute landing performance with _____ engines in reverse, and ______ engines in ground idle. | 2/2 |
| All tactical/max effort operations must fall in the ___________ area of charts unless otherwise approved by OG/CC. | “recommended” |
| Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____ feet. | 25/10 |
| Only __________ crews shall perform high-speed taxi checks. | FCF |
| __________ detecting the illumination of the radar altimeter Low Altitude Warning Light will immediately notify the pilot flying the aircraft. | Any crewmember |
| Pilots will normally use __________ for takeoffs provided refusal speed (Vr) is equal to or greater than takeoff speed. | reduced power |
| It is recommended that primary crewmembers wear Nomex gloves during: | engine start, takeoff, and landing |
| Crewmembers will carry __________ on all flights | two identification tags |
| Each crewmember must carry an operable flashlight for night flights. (T/F) | True |
| Any crewmember that experiences NVG problems will: | inform the rest of the crew |
| When any doubt exists about which screen height to use, plan to cross the DER at _____ minimum unless you can ascertain a different screen height requirement from an appropriate authority. | 35 |
| Aircraft must be able to meet the published climb gradient for the departure runway with all engines operating. If no minimum climb gradient is published, _____ ft/nm will be used. | 200 |
| For screen height of _____ feet or less, use DER correction on the balanced critical field length chart to determine if runway available and aircraft performance meet departure restrictions. | 50 |
| Takeoff GW must not exceed that which would, in the event of an engine failure, lower the rate of climb to less that a _____ percent climb gradient (_____ feet per NM). | 2.5/152 |
| Minimum RVR for takeoff is _____. | 1600 |
| Flight into areas of forecast or reported __________ is prohibited. | severe turbulence |
| Do not takeoff under conditions of freezing rain. (T/F) | True |
| Do not fly directly above (within _____ feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds. | 2000 |
| Aircraft damage may occur _____ or more from any thunderstorms. | 20 NMs |
| Maintain at least _____ separation from heavy rain showers. | 5 NMs |
| An exceptional release must be signed before flight. A __________ normally signs the exceptional release. | maintenance officer, maintenance superintendent, and authorized civilian |
| The aircraft dash one preflight inspection will remain valid until either: | aircraft ground time exceeds 12 hours, aircraft ground time exceeds 72 hours provided the aircraft is sealed, not flown, and documented entry control is maintained, and maintenance dash six preflight is performed |
| Under no circumstance will any crewmember act as the towing supervisor. (T/F) | True |
| Oxygen on board for takeoff must be sufficient to accomplish the planned flight from the equal time point (ETP) should oxygen be required (minimum _____ liters). | 5 |
| Current and qualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures in weather down to ______. | 300/1 |
| The C-130 is a category “C” aircraft. If approach speeds exceed _____ knots, the minimums for category “D” will be used. | 140 |
| An entry will be place in AFTO 781A, “Aircraft subjected to salt spray” (state lowest altitude and duration) anytime the aircraft is flown under _____ feet above sea except for takeoffs and landings. | 1000 |
| If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, pull the ___________ power circuit breaker. | CVR |
| The maximum number of persons on the flight deck will be the minimum commensurate with the mission requirements. At no time should this exceed _____ (unless otherwise specified in a MAJCOM supplement). | 7 |
| Security force support terminates: | Only after the aircraft doors are closed and the aircraft taxis |
| If departure is not possible, the aircrew must secure the aircraft to the best of their ability. In no case, will the entire crew leave the aircraft unattended. Crew rest will be subordinate to aircraft security when the airframe may be at risk. (T/F) | True |
| Crews are facing a hijacking threat will notify ground agencies by __________. | Transmit an in-the-clear notification of hijacking to ATC, Set transponder to code 7500, and Transmit a radio message to include the phrase “(call sign) transponder seven five zero zero |
| When required to transfer a loaded weapon to another crew member, __________. | place the weapon on a flat surface |
| This form is used to report damage to the aircraft, or injury to the crew or passengers. | AMC IMT 97, AMC In-Flight Emergency and Unusual Occurrence Worksheet |
| This is the primary method of payment of aviation fuel and ancillary ground services at commercial airports (and some military installations) worldwide. | Multi Service Corporation (MSC) AIR card |
| Minimum runway length for 50 % flap flight idle touch-and-go landing is _____ feet. Minimum runway length for all other touch-and-go landings is _____ feet. | 5,000/6,000 |
| Touch and go landings are authorized when the crosswind component corrected for RCR is within the ___________ zone for the landing crosswind chart. | Recommended |
| Do not conduct simulated aircraft systems emergency procedures training during any tactical training (operating in low level environment or during tactical approaches). (T/F) | True |
| Maximum gross weight for a no flap landing is _____ lbs. | 120,000 |
| When performing a Stop-and-Go landing, runway remaining for takeoff must be greater than or equal to __________. | CFL |
| Actual engine shutdown and airstart of a single engine for training may be conducted under direct IP supervision at no lower than __________ in daylight VMC. | 2,500 feet AGL |
| If a training aircraft is not capable of departure within four hours after scheduled departure time, cancel the training mission. The unit CC/DO may grant exceptions. Provide a planned minimum of __ for acft preflight duties before the end of the 4-hours. | 1 ½-hours |
| With actual or suspected vapor contamination, the aircraft must be purged for __________ using Smoke and Fume Elimination procedures to eliminate the vapor hazard. | Two hours |
| When it is suspected or known that an aerospace vehicle or equipment has been contaminated with a radiological, biological or chem contaminant, a ___ will be entered and an annotation will be made in historical records for the lifecycle of the equipment. | Red X |
| If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance personnel are not available to clear it, the flight engineer may obtain authorization to clear the Red X from the ___________ in accordance with TO 00-20-1. | Home station MXG/CC or designated representative |
| When crewmembers are required to refuel, the flight engineer will act as the __________. | Refueling team supervisor |
| During concurrent ground operations, simultaneous fuel and oxygen servicing is authorized. | False |
| In addition to the procedures in __________ and ___________, the flight engineer will assist the pilot in maintaining the AFTO Form 781. | T.O. 00-20-1/AFI 11-401 |
| When conducting flaps up landings for training compute and post VMCA speeds for both configurations; flaps 50% and flaps up (normal boost), i.e. 105/122. (T/F) | True |
| Minimum TOLD requirements for a termination landing are: Air Minimum Control Speeds, Obstacle Clearance Speed, 3 Engine Climb Speed, 100 & 50% Flap Landing Speeds and Distances, 0% Landing Approach Speed (Night or IMC), and __________. | 3 Eng FTPNM |
| The AF IMT 4108 will be completed whenever the navigator completes the __________. | AF IMT 4116, C-130 Flight Plan and Record |
| Authority to use the Hostile Environment Kit and Repair Procedures is granted by Operations Group Commanders/Deputy Group Commanders for Operations; this authority is documented on the: | FRAG and Air Tasking Order |
| For Day VMC En-Route, fly no lower than ___________ modified contour altitude above terrain using visual references and radar altimeter. | 300 feet AGL |
| For NVG En-Route, fly no lower then indicated altitude of ___-feet above the highest spot terrain elevation, or ____-feet plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is higher, within ______ on centerline. | 500/400/3 NMs |
| If either the pilots’ NVGs, SCNS, pressure altimeter, GPS, or aircraft radar fail, climb to ESA until resolving the problem. In addition, climb to ESA to resolve any T.O. 1C-130(x)-1 section III procedures, commensurate with the tactical situation. (T/F) | False |
| To compute ESA, add _____ feet (_____ feet in mountainous terrain) to the elevation of the highest obstruction to flight within _____ NM either side of the planned route. An ESA will be computed for the route and conspicuously annotated on the chart. | 1000/2000/22 |
| Airdrops will not be conducted below the following attitudes: | Day VMC Drop Altitude, Night VMC Drop Altitude, and IMC Drop Altitude |
| Navigators/engineers will use the __________ to annotate pertinent information during all tactical missions. | AF IMT 4062, C-130 Run-in/Drop Information Card |
| __________ route study is mandatory before accomplishing flight in the low level environment. | Crew |
| Low Altitude Arrival maneuvers may be flown on continuation training and operational missions with passengers aboard. In all cases plan to roll out on final at __________ speed no lower than _____ ft _____. | approach/300/AGL |
| During Engine Running On-load and Off-load (ERO) Procedures do not on-load or off-load through the __________ and __________ at the same time. __________ will not normally be used. | crew entrance door/cargo ramp and door/paratroop doors |
| During ERO procedures, use __________ and __________ to enhance safety at night as the situation dictates. | leading edge/taxi lights |
| Personnel on-load and off-load through the crew entrance door, station a crewmember (normally the load master) on interphone with cord held taut at approximately ______-feet at an angle of _____-degrees from the aircraft axis. | 20/45 |
| Combat Off-load Procedures, a taxiway or ramp at least ______ feet long is required, however, _____ feet is desired to provide a margin of safety. | 500/1000 |
| NVG Airland. The PIC must ensure TOLD reflects the possibility for a landing at the end of the zone (subtract landing/safety zone distances from __________ to ensure adequate runway exists for __________). | runway available/rollout |
| NVG Airland. Coordinated actions during the final segment of an NVG __________ and _________ are critical. | approach/landing |
| NVG Airland. The engineer’s primary job is to monitor engine instruments and ensure checklist completion. (T/F) | True |
| NVG Airland. For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed _____ degrees and the aircraft will not descend below _____ AGL until intercepting a normal glide path approaching the final approach course and in a safe position to land. | 45/500 |
| NVG Airland. IMC Approaches. The transfer of aircraft control for the landing will be no lower than _____. | 300’ AGL |
| Formations. At no time will aircraft be operated within _____ feet of another aircraft. | 500 |
| When flying at night (with or without NVGs) potential for spatial disorientation increases with: | Rapid changes in airspeed, Bank angles, and Changing “G” loads |
| Visual Rejoins. Rejoining aircraft will maintain _____ feet above or below the formation until the formation is in sight and clearance to rejoin is granted. | 500 |
| Do not perform touch-and-go landings during formation recoveries unless: | Never |
| SKE Procedures. Lead will signal turns of _____ degrees or more and airspeed changes of _____ KIAS or more. | 10/10 |
| Element leads will not exceed _____ degrees of bank. | 20 |
| Descending Slowdown. Start descent using _____KIAS and _____ feet per minute until reaching drop altitude. | 140/1000 |
| Analyze pre-drop gross weight to determine if obstructions can be cleared with __________. | one engine inoperative |
| No Drop Decisions. After the __________ advisory any crew member observing a condition that could jeopardize a safe drop will transmit a “no drop” call on interphone. | one minute |
| A no-drop will be called if the slowdown checklist is not complete prior to the “__________” call. | five second |
| Quick don masks are emergency equipment and are not approved for pre-breathing or high-altitude operations (at or above _____ feet MSL). | 18,000 |
| Pressurization Scheduling. Depressurization will not exceed _____ feet per minute. | 3,000 |
| CDS Airdrops. It is not recommended to drop CDS at gross weights less than _____ pounds. | 104,000 |
| Towed Parachutist. The PIC should consider density altitude, aircraft weight, position in formation, or other factors deemed important in determining what flap setting between _____ and _____ percent should be used. | 50/100 |
Created by:
arminjr
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