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life and physics ?s

ati testing life and physics study questions

QuestionAnswer
s.2.1 1. Which is the best description of an enzyme? A.reduces initial energy 4 reaction to take place B.complement is similar in diff cells of the same org C. can operate under diff con 4 reaction D.composed of monomeric units called monosaccharides A
S.2.1.2 3. Which of the following is a carbohydrate with structural functions? A. Gluten B. Lipoprotein C. Glycogen D. Chitin D
S.2.2.1 1. In which of the following directions is DNA read? A. Left to right B. Top to bottom C. 5’ to 3’ D. 3’ to 5’ C
S.2.2.2 2. A segment of DNA that contains a word made of three nucleotides is referred to as which of the following? A. Gene B. Codon C. Chromosome D. Genome B
s.2.4.2 2. A period in the periodic table represents which of the following? A. Shared atomic properties B. Increasing energy levels C. Decreasing valence electrons D. Shared neutron numbers B
S.2.4.3 3. A chemical bond between two atoms contains which of the following? A. One electron B. Two electrons C. Fused atomic nuclei D. Electron and proton fusion B
S.2.5.2 which is true about osmosis a.is the movement of water across membrane b. is movement from low to a high concentration c. osmosis requires a large amt of energy to move water d. osmosis pertains to all molecules moving across the membrane A
S.2.6.1 which of the following phases changes requires the addition of heat? A. freezing B. condensation C. Melting D. deposition C
S.2.6.2 which of the following is true of gases. A. gases have definite shape and volume B. Gases have no definite shape, but they have definite volume C. Gases have definite shape but not volume D. Gases have no definite shape and no volume D
S.2.7.1 which of the following substances contains an ionic bond? A. CO B. NO2 C.SO4 D. CaO D
S.2.7.2 in the following equation, what are the reactants? AgNO3 + NaCL -> AgCl + NaNO3 A. AgNo3, NaCL, AgCL, NaNO3 B. AgNO3, NaCL C. NaCL, AgCL D. AgCL, NaNO3 B
S.2.7.3 true or false a substance with a ph of 3.7 is considered a base? false
S.3.1.1 1. Which of the following is the most appropriate unit to measure the length (distance) between Los Angeles and San Francisco? A. Liter B. Meter C. Kilometer D. Centimeter C
S.3.1.2 2. What does the prefix milli mean? A. 1,000 B. 100 C. 0.01 D. 0.001 D
S.3.1.3 3. Which of the following tools could be used to measure the mass of a sample? A. Triple beam balance B. Volumetric pipette C. Graduated cylinder D. Ruler A
S.3.2.3 Which of the following is the term used to describe a specific experimental condition that is changed to measure its effect A. data B. Variable C. control D. bias B
S.3.3.1 Which of the following units is most appropriate for measuring the weight of an adult A. grams B. kilograms C. milligrams D. micrograms B
S.3.3.2 Which of the following units is appropriate for measuring the circumference of the earth? A. kilometers B. meters C. centimeters d. micrometers A
S.3.3.3 Which of the following can lead to emphysema. which is severe respiratory problem? A. high salt diet B. alcohol consumption C. smoking cigarettes D. sleep deprivation C
45. Which of the following measures volumes of liquids? A. Triple beam balance B. Meter stick C. Graduated cylinder D. Weigh boat C
1. Which of the following cavities is lined by the connective tissue peritoneum? a. Cephalic b. Thoracic c. Abdominal d. Pelvic C
2. Which of the following is a hormone that mediates the fight-or-flight response? a. Insulin b. Glucagon c. Epinephrine d. Endorphin C
3. Which occurs if the epiglottis does not function properly? a. pt is unable to recall recent events B. client coughs because food goes into the trachea c. client cannot produce hormones from the pancreas d. The client becomes reproductively sterile B
4. Which of the following composes the rings that support the trachea? a. Spongy bone b. Fibrous ligaments c. Elastic tendons d. Hyaline cartilage D
5. Which of the following valves prevent backflow of blood from the arteries into the ventricle? a. Bicuspid b. Tricuspid c. Mitral d. Semilunar D
6. Which of the following arteries supplies the heart with blood? a. Carotid b. Coronary c. Subclavian d. Brachiocephalic B
7. Breakdown of which of the following begins in the small intestine? A. FatS b. Fiber c. Protein d. Carbohydrates A
8. Which of the following are lymphatic capillaries that absorb fats? A. Lacteals b. Nodules c. Bronchioles d. Axons A
9. Which of the following occurs to skeletal muscle as a result of acetylcholine released at the neuromuscuiar junction? a. Relaxation b. Peristalsis c. Contraction d. Eversion C
10. Which of the following is the tube that carries both sperm and urine for release outside the body? A. ureter b. Urethra c. Vas deferens d. Epididymis B
11. Which of the following is the protein secreted by hair follicles in the integument? a. Collagen b. Fibrin c. Elastin D. Keratin D
12. Which of the following is a portion of the brain that integrates nerve signals and hormonal secretions? a. Hypothalamus b. Adrenal gland c. Nucleus accumbens d. Medulla oblongata A
13. Which of the following is the region of the kidney that contains the glomerulus of the nephron? a. Medulia b. Pelvis c. Cortex d. Adrenal C
14. Which of the following antibody-secreting cells is triggered to proliferate upon vaccination? A. Erythrocytes b. B-iymphocytes c. Leukocytes d. T-lymphocytes B
15. Which of the following bones supports the tongue and is the only bone in the body not anchored to other bones? A. Patella b. Coccyx c. Hyoid d. Scapula C
16. Which of the following produces ammonia by deamination in the liver? A. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Nucleic acids d. Lipids A
17. A cross between two heterozygous Fr plants produces a ratio of 15:1 in the Fz offspring. Which of the following best describes the ratio? A. Modified monohybrid ratio B. Modified dihybrid ratio c. Normal monohybrid ratio d. Normal dihybrid ratio B
18. ts. Which of the following is the smallest region in space where two electrons with opposite spins are paired? a. Shell B. orbital c. Nucleus d. Period B
19. Which of the following best describes matter in which the components cannot be broken down into simpler substances? a. Molecule B. Element c. Mixture d. Compound B
21. Which of the following reactions describes iron being reduced? A. 4Fe + 3O2) 2Fe2Oj B. Fe+O)FeO c. 3Fe2O3 + CO ) 2Fe3O4 + CO2 D. 2Fe2O1+ lH'O -) Fe(OH)3 C
22. Whlch of the following formulas best summarizes a single repiacement reaction? a. A+B>AB B. AB+C>AC+B c. AB+CD+AD+BC d. AB>A+B B
23. A student measures 2,ooo mL water into a cylinder. If water has a mass of r g/ml, which of the following is the approximate mass of the water? A. 2OO mg B.2g c. 2oo cg d. zo hg D
27. Which of the following muscle movements has synapses in the spinal cord rather than the brain? a. Reflex arc B. Contraction c. Relaxation D. Slow twitch A
28. Which of the following structures is responsible for egg production? A. Vagina b. Fallopian tubes c. Ovaries D. uterus C
29. Which of the following integumentary structures produces sweat? a. Sudoriferous glands B. Sebaceous glands c. Ceruminous glands D. Mammary glands A
30. Which of the following endocrine organs produces insulin? a. Thyroid b. Pituitary c. Adrenal gland D. Pancreas D
31. Which of the following structures stores urine before excretion? a. Kidneys B. Ureters c. Bladder D. Urethra C
32.Which of the following parts of the adult body makes white blood cells? a. Thymus B. Bone marrow c. Adenoid glands d. Liver B
33. Which of the following structures is an irregularly shaped bone? A. Femur b. Metacarpal c. Rib d. Vertebra D
34. The parathyroid is a component of which of the following organ systems? a. Lymphatic B. Nervous c. Endocrine D. Muscular C
35. After passing through the stomach, food continues into which of the following digestive structures? a. Duodenum b. Jejunum c. Ileum D. Cecum A
36. Which of the following options completes the sentence? A. Organs; organ systems b. Celis; molecules c. Atoms; molecules D. Tissues; organs B
37. In which of the following stages of embryoiogical development are the main germ layers (ectoderm, endoderm, and mesoderm) formed? a. Blastula B. Morula c. Gastrula D. Fetus C
38. Vaccinations are used to create which of the following types of immunity? a. Naturally acquired passive immunity b. Artificially acquired passive immunity c. Naturally acquired active immunity d. Artificially acquired active immunity D
39. Which of the following nervous systems directs the skeletal muscles to respond in the body's fightor- flight response? A. Enteric B. central c. Parasympathetic D. Sympathetic D
40. Which of the following tissues is responsible for contractions during peristalsis in the digestive tract? a. Smooth muscle b. Skeletal muscle c. Connective tissue d. Subcutaneous tissue A
41. In which of the following organs are immune cells produced? a. Tonsils b. Spleen c. Lymph nodes d. Bone marrow D
42. Exchange of gases occurs in which of the following structures of the respiratory system? a. Alveoli b. Bronchioles c. Trachea d. Pleura A
43. Which of the following organelles gives rough endoplasmic reticulum its signature rough characteristic? a. Ribosomes b. Mitochondria c. Centrosomes D. Vacuoles A
44. Which of the following is the number of different types of nucleotide bases found in DNA? A. 1 b.2 c.3 D. 4 D
45. Which of the following measures volumes of liquids? a. Triple beam balance b. Meter stick c. Graduated cyiinder d. Weigh boat C
Which of the following correctly lists examples of body's structure organized from the simplest to the most complex? A. Mitochondria, connective tissue, heart, muscle cell B. Mitochondria, muscle cell, connective tissue, heart C. Mitochondria, connective tissue, muscle cell, heart D. Muscle cell, mitochondria, connective tissue, heart. B
Muscle cells contain many ___ because of their high metabolism of ATP. Which of the following options correctly completes the statement above? A. lysosomes B. Mitochondria C. Golgi D. ribosomes B
___ contain enzymes to break down macromolecules. lysosomes
____ modifies and packages proteins golgi
___ make proteins ribosomes
The monomers that make up proteins are called which of the following? A. nucleic acids B. amino acids C. fatty acids D. sugars B
Lipids are not polymers because? A. they are not made up of fatty acids B. they are hydrophobic C. they are not made of monomers bonded together by dehydration reactions. D. they are a diverse set of molecules made up mostly of carbon-carbon bonds C
Noncovalent bonds are which of the following? A. weak bonds such as hydrogen bonds B. strong bonds that require energy to form C. formed by dehydration reactions D. formed by hydrolysis A
which of the following is not a carbohydrate? A. glucose B. cellulose C. atp D. starch C
Where is most of the DNA found in a human neuron? A. Mitochondria B. cell C. ribosome D. nucleus D
Which is correct of a gene? 1. a gene is a unit of heredity 2. a gene codes for a protein or functional RNA molecule 3. a gene is equivalent to a chromosome A. 1,2,3 B. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. 2 and 3 C
Chromosomes are replicated ____ A. during the genetic code B. in mitosis C. in a phase of the cell cycle D. by ribosomes C
a rabbit with short brown fur crossed with a rabbit with long black fur offspring= 17 rabbits with long black fur, 2 short brown fur, 6 short black fur, and 7 long brown fur. What phenotypes are dominant? A. cannot be determined B. Short and brown C. long and black D. long and brown C
a gene for eye color in humans has 3 alleles: E(B), E(BI), and E(G) for brown, blue, and green eyes. if an individual is E(BL)/E(G), is she homozygous or heterozygous for eye color? A. Homozygous B. Heterozygous C. Neither b/c the geno type is incomplete without an allele for brown eye D. Neither, b/c w/ more than 2 possible alleles for a gene, heterozygous and homozygous dont mean anything B
a diploid organism has 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in each gamete of that organism? A. 46 B. 92 C. 23 D. need more info C
a proton is ___ A. located in the orbital of an atom B. a part of an atom that does not have a charge C. a part of an atom that can lose an electron and become negatively charged D. the part of an atom counted to determine the atomic number of an element. D
Which of the following statements is true? A. valence electrons are located in the outer most shell of an atom B. orbitals are sets of electron-containing shells C. up to four electrons can be held in one orbital D. the number of orbitals that an atom has is the same for all elements A
The atomic number of an element ___ A. is the combined mass of its protons plus neutrons B. varies depending on whether the elements is in its solid or liquid state C. is the same as its number of protons in one atom D. does not have any relationship to the order in which that element is listed in the periodic table. C
which of the following statements is true about chemical bonds? A. covalent bonds form from the sharing of electrons between atoms B. covalent bonds involve the transfer of one or more electrons from one atom to another C. when a valence shell is considered to be full, it contains 10 electrons D. the stability of an atom is independent of the number of electrons contained in its valence shell A
a positively charged ion is called which of the following? A. isotope B. cation C. proton D. orbital B
Which of the following is an intensive property of a substance? A. entropy B. mass C. volume D. melting point D
the amount of movement within a molecule ___ A. is independent of the amount of energy it has acquired B. increases as it gains heat and decreases as it loses heat C. decreases as it gains heat, but does not increase in temperature D. is always independent of the temperature of the molecule B
when observing a phase diagram of water, one can ascertain the ___ A. pressure and temperature needed to change water from liquid to gas B. state of water only its temperature is known C. boiling point for carbon dioxide D. triple point of carbon dioxide A
sublimation is ___ A. a transition of solid to a liquid B. the transition of a substance from solid to gas without passing through the liquid state C. a state change that happens above the triple point D. the transition of gas to liquid B
which of the following is not correct? A. C6H12O6 is a compound B. H2O2 is a molecule C. O2 is a compound D. Ag is an element C
balance the equation C02+H2 --> CH4+ H2O A. CO2 + 2H2 --> 2CH4 + 2H2O B. CO2 + H2 --> CH4 + H2O C. CO2 + 2H2 --> CH4 + 2H2O D. CO2 + 4H2 --> CH4 + 2H2O D
what type of reaction is the following? CuSO4 + Zn --> ZnSO4 + CU A. single replacement reaction B. double replacement reaction C. Decomposition reaction D. acid- base reaction A
which is correct? A. lemon juice is 1,000 times more acidic than black coffee B. the greater the ph, the greater the H+ C. Baking soda is about 100 times more acidic than blood D. to adjust the ph of a solution from 6 to 8, add vinegar A
you take your great dane to the vet, who has him stand on a scale to determine his weight. which of the following units would you expect the dogs to be expressed as? A. meters B. amperes C. seconds D. kilograms D
to measure 0.0008g of NaCl, which of the following is the correct instrument to use? A. triple beam balance B. analytical balance C. graduated cylinder D. metric ruler B
which of the following is the best instrument for measuring 231 ul of blood? A. 1-ml pipette B. volumetric pipette C. volumetric flask D. micropipette D
which of the following instruments would you use to measure the distance of two square blocks from your house? A. surveyors wheel B. tape measure C. sonar D. flashlight A
1. Which of the following is characteristic of the human organism? A. Autotrophic with a genome stored in DNA B. Heterotrpoic with a genome stored in DNA C. Autotropic with a genome stored in RNA D. Heterotrophic with a genome stored in RNA B
2. Which of the following options represents the chromosomal composition of a normal human zygote? a. 23 chromosomes b. 46 chromosomes c. 69 chromosomes d. 92 chromosomes B
3. Ca+ H2SO4 Which of the following statements correctly describes the product of the reaction above? a. Calcium sulfate b. Hydrogen sulfide c. Calcium sulfide d. Hydrogen sulfate A
10. Which refutes the hypothesis that characteristics acquired durin the parent’s lifetime are inherited by offspring? A.Changes in neck length in a giraffe populations are due to genetic mutations B.Finches that live on different sources of food become unable to mate with one another after many generations C.Peppered moths turn from gray to white or black depending on the color of the tree bark on which they live D.Primates that have been taught sign language pass that ability to their offspring A
21. On an imaginary planet called Alpha Vega. Purple eyes (F) are dominant over pink eyes (f). Which of the following combinations will produce only offspring with pink eyes? A. Ffxff B. FfxFf C. FFxff D. ffxff D
22. The use of an electron microscope would most benefit the study of? A. The structure of atoms B. The structure of cellular organelles C. The structure of skeletal joints D. Chemical bonds in molecules B
31. In mendelian inheritance, the dominant allele is for tall plants and the recessive allele is for short plants. Which of the following statements is correct in terms of phenotype and genotype? A. Tt is a phenotype that gives 50% short and 50% tall genotype B. TT and Tt are both genotypes for the homozygous recessive phenotype C. TT is the dominant phenotype, and tall plants is the resulting genotype D. TT and Tt are both genotypes for the tall plant phenotype. D
33. In a population that is growing, which of the following must be true? A. Immigrants+ Births= Deaths+ Emigrants B. Emigrants+ Deaths> Immigrants+ Births C. Immigrants + Births > Emigrants + Deaths D. Emigrants + Immigrants = Births + Deaths C
34. Which of the following substances will dissolve in water? A. CH4 B. CCL4 C. CH3OH D. C8H18 C
39. Which of the following cell types is responsible for the production of soluble antibodies? A. Cytotoxic T-cells B. Macrophage cell C. Helper T-cell D. B-cell D
40. Which of the following terms describes a sample composed of particles condensed into a small space and having vibrational, but not translational, motion? A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Plasma A
41. WhichIs the correct structure and function of the cell membrane? A. A double glycoprotein structure with embedded lipid bodies provides shape and rigidity to the cytoplasm B. A double layer of phosphate proteins with lipid channels allows molecules to pass from the inside to the outside of cells C. Nonpolar phosphate heads and polar lipid tails form a bilayer to control the transport of proteins. D.phospholipid bilayer w/ embedded proteins regulates molecules entering & leavin cytoplasm D
43. An atom has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons. Which of the following is the atom’s mass number? A. 3 B. 6 C. 7 D. 10 C
44. A defining characteristic of a scientific hypothesis is that it is A. Testable B. Unexpected C. Correct D. Predictable A
a correlation is ___ A. best studied by conducting a scientific experiment B. a data trend that shows a cause and effect relationship C. the outcome of a hypothesis D. a linked trend in data that is not casual D
which of the following is an example of empirical data? A. Lisa's dog barks three times each time the mail is delivered B. The soup may burn your mouth C. I believe that it is sunny outside because that is what i see on the weather report. D. I remember that there are still five eggs in the rerigerator A
The control variable in an experiment is ___ A. set in place so that all variables are controlled for B. the dependent variable C. the one that is ignored D. used as standard of comparison against which the effects (or lack of effects) caused by the experimental treatment can be measured. C
which of the following units is most appropriate for measuring the weight of a newborn baby? A. micrograms B.milligrams C. grams D. kilograms D
which of the following are likely causes of emphysema? A. Chronically tired, difficulty breathing B. soot, smoking, manufacturing fumes C. Weakened heart, pneumothorax D. High-fat foods, alcohol, caffeine B
Which of the following is the form of energy contained in nutrient molecules and in ATP’s high-energy bongs? a. Mechanical energy b. Potential energy c. Kinetic energy d. Radiation energy B
If an intensive property is independent of the amount of the material being measured, which of the following is an example of an intensive property? a. Mass b. Volume c. Density d. Length C
Seaweed à snail -à fish à dolphin Using the food chain above, which of the following terms best describes the trophic level of snails a. Producer b. Primary consumer c. Secondary consumer d. Tertiary consumer B
HCL + Mg(OH)2 à MgCL2 + H2O Balance the equation above. Which of the following describes the number of moles of each product that are formed by this chemical reaction after it has been balanced? a. One mole magnesium chloride, one mole water b. One mole magnesium chloride, two moles water c. Two moles magnesium chloride, one mole water d. Two moles magnesium chloride, two moles water B
Steps involved in natural selection include: 1. Preservation of genes of best-adapted offspring 2. Overproduction of offspring with variation in traits 3. Differential survival in the face of environmental challenges What is the order of these events? a. 3,2,1 b. 1,3,2 c. 2,1,3 d. 2,3,1 D
When the enzyme is degraded into its monomeric structural units, the monomers will be a. Monosaccharides b. Fatty acids c. Nucleotides d. Amino acids D
Which of the following describes the function of the ribosome in a living cell? a. Production of ATP molecules from energy in nutrient molecules b. Disposal and recycling of damaged or unneeded cell parts c. Use of genetic information to build specific protein molecules d. Regulation of molecules entering and leaving the cell C
Which of the following enzymes breaks down complex carbohydrates? a. Amalyase b. Pepsin c. Lactase d. Lipase A
The cause of cell differentiation is that different cells? A. Contain different DNA B. Have different chromosomes C. Contain similar protein information D. Express alternate genetic information D
It has been hypothesized that chloroplasts originated from photosynthetic cyanobacteria that became symbiotic inside a host cell. Which of the following provides the strongest evidence for this suggestion? A. Microscopically, chloroplasts appear similar to cyanobacteria B. Chloroplast DNA shows clear similarities to cyanobacterial DNA C. Both chloroplasts and cyanobacteria are green and perform photosynthesis D. Photosynthetic cyanobacteria and fungi form a mutualistic association in lichen. B
Which of the following is the purpose of using control groups in an investigation? A. To establish a standard for data comparison B. To provide the correct answer to an investigation C. To determine the dependent variables D. To function as a third variable group A
Which of the following cell types produce antibodies? A. T-cells B. Dendritic cells C. B-cells D. Natural Killer Cells C
Which of the following explains why gases are termed “compressible” and liquids are not? A. Particles have fixed volume and are able to occupy the container in which they are contained. B. Particles do not have much empty space between them, thus making them rigid. C. Particles have a large amount of empty space between them D. Particles are held closely together by intermolecular forces C
35.1 Which of the following describes the function of the ribosome? A. protein synthesis B. energy production C. cell movement D. storage of molecules A
35.2 Because muscle cells require large amounts of energy to function correctly, which organelles would be prevalent in those types of cells? A. ribosomes B. mitchondria C. cytoskeleton D. cell membrane B
35.3 Which of the following organelles is responsible for storing genetic information? A. nucleus B. ribosomes C. cell membrane D. lysosomes A
35.4 In the human body, which of the following organs is in a superior position to the lungs? A. stomach B. brain C. spleen D. heart B
46.1 which of the following groups is synthesized from monosaccharides like glucose? A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. protein D. Nucleic acid A
46.2 which of the following macromolecules stores genetic information? A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. proteins D. nucleic acid D
46.3 Which of the following monomers form enzymes? A, glucose and fructose B. amino acids C. nucleotides D. fatty acids B
46.4 which of the following foods contain mostly lipids? A. potatoes B. oil C. chicken D. lettuce B
47.1 Which of the following nucleotides pairs with adenine? A. guanine B. Adenine C. Cytosine D. thymine D
47.2 Which of the following is the number of chromosomes found in a human cell? A. 1 circular chromosome B. 22 (11 pairs) C. 46 (23 pairs) D 50 (25 pairs) C
47.3 Which of the following statements about nucleotides and genes is correct? A. a gene contains thousands of chromosomes B. a nucleotide contains many genes and chromosomes C. nucleotides form strings of DNA that make up genes D. Nucleotides form strings of chromosomes that make up DNA C
47.4 which of the following is the name for a segment of DNA that codes for a ptoetin? A. nucleotide B. gene C. chromosome D. DNA B
48.1 a pea plant has a dominant homozygous genotype which of the following letters best represent this genotype? A. WW B. Ww C. ww D.WX A
48.2 Pea plants have seeds that are wither green or yellow. Green seeds are dominant to yellow seeds. two pea plants that are heterozygous for seed color are crossed. Predict the percentage of their offspring that will have seeds. A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% D
48.3 Which of the following best describes the expression of alleles? A. Heritable trait B. Genotype C. Phenotype D. P generation C
48.4 Which of the following best describes no-mendelian inheritance patterns?. A. Occurs when there are factors other that dominant and recessive traits B. each trait has one dominant and one recessive alleles C. Heterozygous monohybrid crosses result in a 3:1 ratio of dominant-to-recessive phenotypes D. Traits are only inherited on the somatic chromosomes C
49.1 which of the following neutral atom would have 10 protons, 11 neutrons, and 10 electrons? A, neon B. sodium C. calcium D. Boron A
49.2 Two isotopes of carbon are found, one with an atomic mass of 12 and the other 14. which of the following best describes how these isotopes differ? A. the number of protons and electrons is different B. Carbon 12 has fewer protons than carbon 14 C. Carbon 14 has more neutrons than carbon 12 D. Carbon 12 has two fewer electrons that carbon 14 C
49.3 a neutral atom of calcium has two electrons in its outer shell. which of the following will occur when calcium forms an ion? A. calcium will lose 2 electrons to have a full valence shell. B. Calcium will gain two electrons to have a full valence shell. C. calcium will add two protons to become neutral. D. calcium will add six electrons to have a full valence shell A
49.4 Which of the following best describes an oxygen atom with 8 neutrons and 10 electrons? A. an anion with a -2 charge B. a cation with a 2 charge C. an anion with an atomic mass of 18 D. a cation with a positive charge of +2 B
50.1 Which of the following is the density of a substance that has a mass of 22.5g and a volume of 5cm^3? A. 0.22 g/cm^3 B. 4.5 g/cm^3 C. 1.5g/cm^3 D. 27.5 g/cm^3 B
50.2 iron reacts with oxygen to form iron oxide or rust. which of the following describes the property of rust? A. a physical property B. a chemical property C. an ionic property D. specific heat B
50.3 which of the following describes the process of diffusion? A. it is the movement of substances from a solid to liquid state. B. it is the movement of a substance from high concentration to low concentration. C. it requires a large amount of energy D. it is specific to the movement of water only B
50.4 concentrations of sodium dissolved in water are higher inside the cell than outside. which best predicts which way the water will flow? A. water will remain in equal concentrations on both sides of the cell memnbrane B. water will move from its low concentration (outside the cell) to the higher concentration (inside the cell) C. water will move from its high concentration (outside the cell) to the low concentration (inside the cell) D. water will increase in concentration inside & outside the cell C
51.1 which of the following phase changes requires the loss of heat? A. melting B. evaporation C. freezing D. Sublimation C
51.2 which of the following is true of liquids? A. they have definite shape and volume B. They have no definite shape, but they have definte volume. C. They have a definite shape but no definite volume D. They have no definite shape and no definite volume. B
51.3 which of the following is likely to occur after decreasing the pressure of a liquid? A. increase in intramolecular forces between molecules B. Increase in boiling point C. Decrease in boiling point D. increase in temperature C
51.4 Which of the following best describes the triple point? A. point where temperature, pressure, and volume all equal one another. B. point where a substance can exist as a solid, liquid, and gas C. point where no more energy can be absorbed by a substance D. point where a substance starts to lose its shape. B
52.1 which of the following substances is an example of an ionic compound? A. H2O B. CO2 C.NH3 D.KCI D
52.2 which of the following reactions is occurring is this equation? AgNO3+NaCl-->AgCl+NaNO3 A. combustion B. double replacement C. single replacement D. decomposition B
52.3 Orange juice, stomach acid, and coffee are all acids. Which of the following is the ph level for these substances? A. A ph lower than 2 B. A ph less than 7 C. A ph at about 7 D. A ph above 7 B
52.4 which of the following would slow down a reaction rate? A. increasing the temperature. B. adding enzymes C. decreasing the pressure D. decreasing the substrate C
53.1 which of the following values is appropriate for the height an adult human? A. 1.5mm B. 1.5 cm C. 1.5m D. 1.5 km C
53.2 Which of the following is the meaning of the prefix kilo? A. 1,000 B. 100 C. 0.01 D.0.001 A
53.3 which of the following tools could be used to measure the volume of a liquid sample? A. triple-beam balance B. flask C. meterstick D. ruler B
53.4 a block of ice has a height of 10cm, a width of 5 cm, and a length of 5 cm. which of the following is the volume of the substance? A. 20 cm^3 B. 50 cm C. 250 cm D. 250 cm^3 D
Q7 which of the following best describes the relationship between a chromosome and a gene? A. each gene forms its own chromosome B. each chromosome contains a single gene C. each gene contains a specific number of chromosomes D. each chromosome contains a specific number of genes D
Q8 A p flowered pea plant & a w flowered pea plant were crossed. The allele for p flowers is dominant & the allele for w flowers is recessive. Of 1,000 offspring, 498 were p flowered pea plants and 502 were w flowered pea plants. based on these results, which of the following can be concluded about the parent plants? A. the w flowered pea plant is homozygous dominant B. the w flowered pea plant is heterozygous C. the p flowered pea plant is heterozygous D. the p flowered pea plant is homozygous dominant C
Q9 which of the following instruments would most accurately measure 0.1 ML of a liquid? A. a 50-ml beaker B. a micropipette C. a graduated cyclinder D. an erlenmeyer flask B
q38 which of the following statements best describes the subatomic particles that make up an atom? A. protons and electrons are about the same size and are found in the nucleus B. protons and neutrons have about the same mass and can be found in the nucleus C. electrons are found in the nucleus and make up most of the mass of an atom D. protons are the only particles with mass and can be found in the nucleus B
q41 which of the following is an example of an ionic compound? A. NaCl B. CO C. C6H12O6 D. H2O A
Q42 this chemical reaction equation is an example of what type of reaction? H2+2O-->H2O A. synthesis B. decomposition C. single displacement D. double displacement A
q43 what tool and unit would be used to find the volume of a brink? A. ruler and cm3 B. rules and m3 C. balance and g D. graduated cylinder and mL A
Q11 which is the correct structure and function of the cell membrane? A. double glycoprotein structure with embedded lipid bodies provides shape and rigidity to cytoplasm. B. a double layer of phosphate proteins with lipid channels allows molecules to pass from the inside to the outside of cells C. nonpolar phosphate heads and polar lipid tails form a bilayer to control the transport of proteins D. a phospholipid bilayer with embedded proteins regulates molecules entering and leaving cytoplam D
Q18 Which of the following options represents the chromosomal composition of a normal human zygote? A. 23 chromosomes B. 46 chromosomes C. 69 chromosomes D. 92 chromosomes B
Q33 Ca + H2SO4 which of the following statements correctly describes the product of the reaction above? A. Calcium sulfate B. Hydrogen Sulfide C. Calcium Sulfide D. Hydrogen Sulfate A
Q34 Which of the following classes of biomolecules can influence the rate of specific chemical reactions within the living cells? A. Nucleic acids B. Proteins C. Lipids D. Carbohydrates B
Q35 Which of the following terms describes a sample composed of particles condensed into a small space and having vibrational, but not translational, motion? A. solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Plasma A
Q36. An atom has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons. Which of the following is the atom's mass number? A. 3 B. 6 C. 7 D. 10 C
Q37 Which of the following substances will dissolve in water? A. Ch4 B. CCl4 C. Ch3OH D. C8H18 C
Q38 On an imaginary plant called Alpha Vega, purple eyes (F) are dominant over pink eye (f). Which of the following combinations will produce only offspring with pink eyes? A. Ff x ff B. Ff x Ff C. FF x ff D. ff x ff D
Q40. In Mendelian inheritance, the dominant allele is for tall plants and the recessive allele is for short plants. Which of the following statements is correct in terms of phenotype and genotype? A. Tt is a phenotype that gives 50% short and 50% tall genotype B. TT and Tt are both genotypes for the homozygous recessive phenotype C. TT is the dominant phenotype and tall plants is the resulting genotype D. TT and Tt are both genotypes for the tall plant phenotype. D
Q41 A controlled experiment researchers show that topical antibiotic called chloramphenicol halts a deadly fungal growth on the skin of amphibians. Which is best 4 how the antibiotic works? A. Antibiotic causes a mutation in the skin tissue that makes it resistant to the fungus B. antibiotic acts as a physical barrier that interferes w/ fungal growth C. antibiotic kills a bacterial partner that is essential in the fungal infection D. antibitoic activates WBC production in amphibians C
Q42 A defining characteristic of a scientific hypothesis is that it is A. testable B. Unexpected C. correct D. predictable A
Q43 The use of an electron microscope would most benefit the study of A. the structure of atoms B. the structure of cellular organelles C. the structure of skeletal joints D. chemical bonds in molecules B
Q45 In a population that is growing, which of the following must be true? A. Immigrants+Births= Deaths + Emigrants B. Emigrants + Deaths > Immigrants + Births C. Immigrants + Births > Emigrants + Deaths D. Emigrants + Immigrants = Births + Deaths C
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