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NASM practice test

practice exam

QuestionAnswer
What plane divides the body into top and bottom halves and consists of internal and external rotation movements? A. transverse B. frontal C. saggital D. posterior A. Transverse
How many repetitions are performed during resistance training in Phase 3 of the Optimum Performance Training Model? A. 1-15 B. 6-12 C. 15-20 D. over 25 B. 6-12
Vessels that transport blood away from the heart are called A. arteries B. veins C. venules D. atrium A. arteries
The alignment and function of all components of the kinetic chain at any given moment is known as A. neuromuscular efficiency B. functional efficiency C. posture D. postural equilibrium C. posture
Which of these muscles would be MOST appropriate to stretch if your client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during an overhead assessment? A. Hip flexor complex B. Medial hamstring C. Internal oblique D. Rhomboids A. Hip Flexor complex
When performing core exercises what is the correct position for a client's cervical spine? A. cervical protraction B. cervical neutral position C. cervical extension D. cervical rotation B. cervical neutral position
Which of the following bioenergetic pathways PRIMARILY break down carbohydrates to rapidly produce ATP? A. ATP-CP B. Glycolysis C. oxidative D. aerobic B. glycolysis
The power training block of the OPT model strives to MOST improve A. muscular endurance B. stabilization strength C. rate of force production D. hypertrophy C. rate of force production
The MOST appropriate chest exercise to use during phase 1 of the OPT model is A. stability ball dumbell press B. barbell bench press C. medicine ball chest pass D. single leg squat on a half foam roll A. stability ball dumbbell press
Which exercise is performed PREDOMINANTLY in the sagittal plane? A. Ice skater B. Bicep Curls C. Side Lateral Raise D. Hip abductor B. Bicep curls
Which of the following neurons transmit nerve impulses from effector sites to the brain or spinal cord? A. interneurons B. motor (efferent) neurons C. Sensory (afferent) neurons D. Neurotransmitters C. sensory (afferent) neurons
Poor posture and repetitive movements may create dysfunctions in the connective tissue, initiating the A. cumulative injury cycle B. restoration of extensibility C. integrated flexibility continuum D. proper movement patterns A. cumulative injury cycle
The rectus abdominus is responsible for A. concentrically accelerating spinal flexion B. concentrically accelerating hip abduction and internal rotation C. isometrically stabilizing the foot and ankle complex D. concentrically accelerating spinal exte A. concentrically accelerating spinal flexion
Static stretching is considered what type of flexibility training? A. corrective B. active C. Dynamic D. Functional A. corrective
Trauma to the tissue of the body creates inflammation resulting in muscle spasm and adhesions. If left unchecked these adhesions can begin to form permanent structural changes in the soft tissue evident by which law? A. Law of specificity B. Davis's Law B. Davis's Law
Which of the following assessments BEST measures cardiovascular efficiency? A. Davies Test B. Step Test C. Shark Skill Test D. Waist to Hip Ratio B. Step Test
Which of the following sensory receptors are MOST sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change? A. Join receptors B. Golgi Tendon organs C. Muscle spindles D. Chemoreceptors C. Muscle spindles
The "reverse crunch" is considered what type of exercise? A. core stabilization B. Core strength C. Balance power D. Dynamic flexibility B. Core strength
When a muscle is exerting less force than being placed on it, resulting in the lengthening of the muscle this is known as what type of contraction? A. Eccentric B. Concentric C. Isometric D. Excitation Contraction Coupling A. Eccentric
An anatomical location reffering to a position described as being closer to the middle of the body from a reference point is known as A. superior B. Lateral C. inferior D. medial D. medial
Clients who have progressed to the strength level of the OPT model would be prepared for which of the following cardiorespiratory zones? A. Zone one B. Zone two C. Zone three D. Zone four B. Zone two
What is the fourth phase of OPT? A. Stabilization Endurance Training B. Strength endurance training C. power training D. Maximal Strength training D. Maximal Strength training
What exercise is performed PREDOMINANTLY in the frontal plane? A. cable row rotation B. Bicep curl C. Ice Skater D. Chest Press C. Ice Skater
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following stretches would be MOST appropriate? A. standing pectoral wall stretch B. static upper trapezius/scalene stretch C. static kneeling hip flexor stret C. static kneeling hip flexor stretch
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Type I muscle fibers? A. slow to fatigue B. slow twitch C. decreased oxygen delivery D. smaller in size C. decreased oxygen delivery
The synergistic action of muscles to produce movement around a joint is known as A. force-couple B. excitation contraction coupling C. motor control D. force-velocity curve A. force-couple
Which of the following exercise positions should be avoided in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters of pregnancy? A. supine B. Standing C. seated D. staggered stance A. supine
What percentage of communication is based on physiology (stance, eye contact, etc.)? A. 10% B. 25% C. 55% D. 65% C. 55%
Which of the following foods has the highest glycemic index? A. soy beans B. kidney beans C. lentils D. honey D. honey
An anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body is known as A. ipsilateral B. lateral C. contralateral D. inferior A. ipsilateral
What muscle(s) are MOST likely to tight (overactive) if a client demonstrates an arching low back during the overhead squat assessment? A. transverse abdominus B. Multifidi C. Hip flexors D. gluteus maximus C. Hip flexors
Which of the following muscle fibers are smaller in size and contain a high number of capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type IIa D. Type IIb A. Type I
A proprioceptively enriched environment challenges an individual's A. maximum strength capabilities B. hypertrophy gains C. internal balance and stabilization D. maximum cardiac output C. internal balance and stabilization
A core-training program for a new client should be progressed by A. starting with crunches before any other exercise B. starting with an explosive tempo gradually reducing tempo C. starting with a slow steady tempo and gradually increasing velocity D. C. starting with a slow steady tempo and gradually increasing velocity
The length at which a muscle can produce the greatest amount of force is known as A. torque B. length-tension relationship C. force-velocity curve d. sensorimotor integration B. length-tension relationship
Which exercise is performed PREDOMINANTLY in the transverse plane? A. cable rotations B. bicep curls C. military press D. ball squats A. cable rotations
After completion of the Rockport Walk Assessment a client earns a "fair" score. Which heart rate training zone is MOST appropriate when administering a cardiorespiratory program? A. Zone 1. 65%-75% max heart rate B. Zone 2. 80%-85% max heart rate C. Zo A. Zone 1. 65%-75% max heart rate
An example of "back stabilization" exercise would be a A. standing cable row B. machine lat pulldown C. soccer throw D. seated cable row A. standing cable row
The ATP-CP system MOST OFTEN provides energy for what types of activity? A. Moderate intensity, moderate duration activities B. low intensity, long duration activities C. low intensity, short duration activities D. high intensity, short duration activ D. high intensity, short duration activities
Which of the following muscles would be the MOST appropriate to stretch if your client's head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment? A. mid/lower trapezius B. Deep cervical flexors C. levator scapulae D. rhomboids C. levator scapulae
which of the following groups of nutrients when taken in excess can cause serious adverse effects including; birth defects, calcification of blood vessels, and damage to sensory nerves? A. A, D, and B-6 B. C, E, and Selenium C. carbohydrates, fats, and A. A, D, and B-6
The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle is known as A. intramuscular coordination B. intermuscular coordination C. arthrokinematics D. pelvo-ocular reflex A. intramuscular coordination
Improving muscle imbalances, stabilizing the core musculature, and establishing proper movement patterns are all goals of what training block of the OPT model? A. power B. strength C. functional D. stabilizatio D. stabilization
Good levels of neuromuscular control, tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance are recommended before suggesting what type of stretching? A. static stretching B. Active stretching C. Dynamic stretching D. self-myofascial release C. Dynamic stretching
The typical heart rate for an adult is between A. 30-40 beats per minute B. 50-60 beats per minute C. 70-80 beats per minute D. 90-100 beats per minute C. 70-80 beats per minute
What phase of the OPT model supersets "strength" exercises with "stabilization" exercises during resistance training? A. stabilization endurance training B. strength endurance training C. hypertrophy training D. power training B. strength endurance training
In recent studies circuit weight training has been shown to demonstrate which of the following? A. produced lower levels of EPOC and strength B. much lower caloric expenditure than brisk walking C. Is equally beneficial to traditional cardiorespiratory C. Is equally beneficial to traditional cardiorespiratory methods
Which phase of the OPT model supersets "strength" exercises with "power" exercises during resistance training? A. stabilization endurance training B. strength endurance training C. maximal strength training D. power training D. power training
An anatomical location referring to a position above a reference point is known as A. inferior B. proximal C. superior D. distal C. superior
What is an example of a ball and socket joint? A. hip joint B. elbow C. knee D. vertebrae A. hip joint
Which of the following provides the health and fitness professional with ongoing information to modify and progress a client through an integrated program? A. PAR-Q B. liability release C. fitness assessment D. body mass index C. fitness assessment
A 50 year old client is 5'10' tall and weighs 250lbs. His blood pressure is 140/90mm Hg and his resting heart rate is 90 beats per minute. which of the following exercises is contraindicated for this client? D.ball medicine ball pullover throw D. ball medicine ball pullover throw
Bioelectrical impedance, and underwater weighing asses which of the following? A. hip to waist ratio B. cardiorespiratory efficiency C. body fat percentage D. body mass index C. body fat percentage
Maximal strength is BEST defined as; A. the initial reaction to a stressor such as increased oxygen and blood supply to the necessary areas of the body D. the maximum force that a muscle can produce in a single, voluntary effort, regardless of velocity D. the maximum force that a muscle can produce in a single, voluntary effort, regardless of velocity
Which of the following muscles acts as an antagonist during 'overhead press" exercise? A. rotator cuff B. tricep C. latissimus dorsi D. deltoid C. latissimus dorsi
What is known as the study that uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within a body? A. biomechanics B. biochemistry C. functional anatomy D. exercise science A. biomechanics
Hypertrophy is BEST defined as; A. enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension B. the maximum force that a muscle can produce in a single, voluntary effort, regardless of velocity C. ability of the A. enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension
Beta-blockers are MOST often used for clients suffering from A. hypertension B. bronchitis C. depression D. diabetes A. hypertension
Skeletal muscle: Breaking the bundles down into layers from the outer to innermost, the first is the actual muscle itself wrapped by an outer layer of connective tissue called fascia and an inner layer immediately surrounding the muscles called B. epimysium
Which of the following exercises would be considered a "total body strength" exercise? A. ball squat, curl to press B. lunge to two-arm dumbell press C. Two-arm push press D. multiplanar step-up balance to overhead press B. lunge to two-arm dumbell press
In a balance training program, which of the following MOST accurately describes proper proprioceptive challenge progression? A. half foam roll, airex pad, floor B. dyna disc, airex pad, dyna disc C. half foam roll, floor, dyna disc C. half foam roll, floor, dyna disc
An example of an objective assessment would include which of the following? A. general and medical history B. PAR-Q C. employment D. physiological Assessments D. physiological Assessments
During the eccentric phase of the Single-leg squat assessment, the client demonstrates an abducted and internally rotated knee. All are contributors to the abnormal movement pattern, EXCEPT: A. Overactive Adductor Complex D. overactive Gluteus Medius D. overactive Gluteus Medius
Clients that demonstrate poor flexibility (limited muscle extensibility and joint range of motion) will MOST likely develop which of the following? A. relative flexibility B. diastolic pressure C. sensorimotor integration D. anaerobic glycolysis A. relative flexibility
An anatomical location referring to a position below a reference point is known as A. superior B. contralateral C. distal D. inferior D. inferior
What is the proper formula to calculate a client's Body Mass Index? A. weight (kg) / Height (m) B. Height (kg) / weight (m) C. Weight (kg2) / Height (m2) D. Weight (kg) / Height (m2) D. Weight (kg) / Height (m2)
Which phase of training comprise the "strength" block of the OPT mode? A. stabilization endurance training, strength endurance training, hypertrophy training B. strength endurance training, hypertrophy training, maximal strength training B. strength endurance training, hypertrophy training, maximal strength training
What muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive) if a client demonstrates knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment? A. Psoas B. latissimus dorsi C. soleus D. gluteus medius D. gluteus medius
The OPT model is broken into which three building blocks? A. stabilization, strength & power B. strength, endurance & power C. strength, cardiorespiratory, & nutrition D. fat loss, strength, and hypertrophy A. stabilization, strength & power
Approximately how many amino acids does the body use? A. 8 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30 C. 20
Efficient movement requires ALL of the following EXCEPT: A. relative flexibility B. proper length-tension relationships C. proper force-couple relationships D. proper arthrokinematics A. relative flexibility
Which bioenergetic pathway is limited in its capacity to sustain energy production because it must rely on the minimal storage of adenosine triphosphate and creatine phosphate within the cells? A. ATP-CP B. glycolysis A. ATP-CP
All of the following are examples of disaccharides EXCEPT: A. sucrose B. lactose C. maltose D. galactose D. galactose
What is the normal systolic reading when measuring blood pressure? A. 120-130 mm Hg B. 140-150 mm Hg C. 160-179 mm Hg D. 180-190 mm Hg A. 120-130 mm Hg
How many calories does one gram of fat yield? A. 4 B. 9 C. 10 D. 12 B. 9
Phase 1 of the OPT Model requires __ sets for each exercise during the resistance training portion of the workout A. 1-3 B. 4-5 C. 6-7 D. 8+ A. 1-3
Questions that can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no" are known as A. nondirective questions B. directive questions C. assessment questions D. PAR-Q questions B. directive questions
The functional unit of the muscle formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin and lies int he space between two Z lines is known as A. mitochondria B. sarcolema C. Sarcomere D. myofibril C. Sarcomere
What is the appropriate tempo for resistance training exercises when training in phase 1 of the OPT model? A. 4-2-1 B. 3-2-1 C. 2-0-2 D. 1-1-1 A. 4-2-1
What muscles are possibly tight (overactive) if a client demonstrates turned out feet during the overhead squat assessment? A. anterior tibialis B. posterior tibialis C. soleus D. Gluteus Maximus C. soleus
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates arms falling forward. Which of the following stretches would be MOST appropriate? A. standing pectoral wall stretch B. static gastrocnemius stretch C. static kneeling hip flexor stretch A. standing pectoral wall stretch
Arterioles branch out into a multitude of microscopic blood vessels known as A. arteries B. capillaries C. venules D. veins B. capillaries
When all of the components of the kinetic chain are functioning properly the results include: appropriate length-tension relationships, force-couple relationships, and which of the following? A. joint autogenic inhibition C. join arthrokinematics C. join arthrokinematics
If a client demonstrates arms that fall forward during the overhead squat, which muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive)? A. pectoralis major B. lower trapezius C. upper trapezius D. latissimus dorsi B. lower trapezius
Which phase of the OPT model uses the longest rest periods to maximize ATP replenishment necessary for lifting heavy loads? A. stabilization endurance training B. strength endurance training C. maximal strength training D. Hypertrophy training C. maximal strength training
Which of the following training systems would be MOST appropriate for a client with limited time available and a goal to alter body composition? A. the split-routine B. horizontal loading C. circuit training D. maximal strength training C. circuit training
When a muscle is exerting a force greater than is being placed on it, resulting in the shortening of the muscle it is known as what type of contraction? A. Eccentric B. concentric C. isometric D. decelerated B. concentric
What is correct position of the back leg during the "cable rotation" exercise? A. triple flexion B. triple extension C. externally rotated D. adducted B. triple extension
The anterior tibialis is responsible for A. eccentrically accelerating dorsiflexion and inversion B. concentrically accelerating plantarflexion and inversion C. concentrically accelerating dorsiflexion and inversion C. concentrically accelerating dorsiflexion and inversion
Consumption of which of the following is associated with lower incidence of disease, lower incidence of cancer, maintaining good intestinal motility, and helps regulate the body's absorption of glucose? A. water B. protein C. carbohydrates D. fiber D. fiber
What plane divides the body into left and right halves? A. transverse B. frontal C. sagittal D. posterior C. sagittal
What is the second phase of the Optimum Performance Training model? A. stabilization endurance training B. strength endurance training C. hypertrophy training D. maximal strength training B. strength endurance training
Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation? A. Gluteus medius B. Gluteus maximus C. Piriformis D. Tensor fascia latae D. Tensor fascia latae
Which of the following compounds is considered the CHIEF source of energy for all bodily fucntions and muscular exertion? A. carbohydrates B. proteins C. Fats d. Water A. carbohydrates
The ability of the body to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods is known as A. hypertrophy B. strength endurance C. maximal strength D. power B. strength endurance
Utilizing multiple set systems of training for advanced clients versus single set systems of training have shown to be A. superior B. inferior C. equal D. dangerous A. superior
Which chest exercise is MOST appropriate during the "maximal strength training" phase of the OPT model? A. barbell bench press B. stability ball chest press C. stability ball push up D. medicine ball chest press A. barbell bench press
An anatomical location referring to a position on the back or towards the back of the body is known as A. medial B. lateral C. anterior D. posterior D. posterior
Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle resulting in A. reciprocal inhibition B. autogenic inhibition C. excitation inhibition D. facilitation inhibition B. autogenic inhibition
While performing a Single-lef Romanian deadlift, a client demonstrates increased adduction and internal rotation at the knee. All of the following are appropriate means of regressing this exercise, EXCEPT D. increase external resistance
When the structural integrity of the body has been compromised as a result of a disruption in one or more components of the kinetic chain, which of the following will MOST likely develop? A. structural efficiency B. postural distortion patterns B. postural distortion patterns
The total amount of work performed within a specified time period is known as A. training volume B. training intensity C. repetition tempo D. training duration A. training volume
The average range for healthy blood pressure is A. 140/90 B. 135/85 C. 120/80 D. 110/75 C. 120/80
Maintaining a state of balance in the alignment of the kinetic chain is BEST defined as A. structural efficiency B. functional efficiency C. postural equilibrium D. functional strength C. postural equilibrium
Which of the following sensory receptors will cause a muscle to relax when excited? A. golgi tendon organ B. muscles spindles C. nociceptors D. joint receptors A. golgi tendon organ
Actin and myosin are the primary components of myofilaments that make which of the following? A. sarcormere B. fascicle C. myofibril D. endomysium C. myofibril
What plane divides the body into front and back halves and consist of abduction and adduction movements? A. transverse B. Frontal C. Sagittal D. posterior B. Frontal
A synergistic muscle substitution for a prime mover during muscle contraction is known as A. altered reciprocal inhibition B. arthrokinetic dysfunction C. tissue fatigue D. synergistic dominance D. synergistic dominance
A "single-leg squat touchdown" is considered what type of exercise? A. core stabilization B. balance strength C. balance power D. reactive stabilization B. balance strength
What is the main goal of balance training? A. maximum hypertrophy gains B. increase joint extensibility C. relieve stress D. challenge the limits of stability D. challenge the limits of stability
Rest intervals of 60 seconds will approximately __ to __ recovery of ATP and CP. A. 50 to 55% B. 60 to 65% C. 70 to 75% D. 85 to 90% D. 85 to 90%
The gastrocnemius is responsible for A. concentrically accelerating dorsiflexion B. concentrically accelerating plantarflexion C. concentrically accelerating foot iversion D. eccentrically decelerating plantarflexion B. concentrically accelerating plantarflexion
The lumbo-pelvic-hip complex has approximately how many muscles attached to it? A. 19 B. 29 C. 39 D. 49 B. 29
An example of a "severe" BMI score is A. 10 B. 15 C. 25 D. 35 D. 35
Neurons are comprised of which three parts? A. axon, mechanoreceptors, dendrites B. Cell Body, Axon, Dendrites C. muscles, bones, tissue D. lysosomes, mitochondria, and golgi complex B. Cell Body, Axon, Dendrites
Altered length-tension relationships, force -couple relationships, and joint arthrokinematics are effects are effects of which of the following? A. unhealthy eating habits B. poor posture C. taking vasodilators D. wearing orthopedic shoes B. poor posture
What structures are responsible for sensing distortions of body tissue brought about through stretch, compression, traction or tension? A. chemoreceptors B. mechanoreceptors C. Photorecptors D. nociceptors B. mechanoreceptors
Which form of flexibility uses the concept of reciprocal inhibition to improve soft tissue extensibility? A. self-myofascial release B. dynamic stretching C. relative flexibility D. joint manipulation B. dynamic stretching
The kinetic chain consists of the A. muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems B. skeletal, cardiac, and respiratory systems C. digestive, cardiac, and nervous systems D. muscular, respiratory, and digestive systems A. muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
What are some implements (props) used for reactive training programs? A. foam roll B. machines C. cones D. calipers C. cones
All of the following are appropriate factors for prescribing rest interval EXCEPT A. training experience B. training intensity C. nutritional status D. dynamic range of motion D. dynamic range of motion
Created by: MrtnzKarina on 2009-05-29



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