ANATOMY: BBC Test 1 Word Scramble
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Question | Answer |
Where is cyanosis especially evident? | Lips, eyelids, nails |
What causes stretch marks? | Marked and relatively fast size increase |
What layers of skin do superficial lacerations affect? | Epidermis and maybe superficial layer of dermis |
Do superficial lacerations bleed? | If they extend into dermis |
What layers of skin do deep lacerations affect? | Deep layer of dermis, extending into subcutaneous tissue or beyond |
What layers of skin are affected in a 1st degree burn? | Epidermis |
What are symptoms of a 1st degree burn? | Erythema, pain, edema, desquamation (peeling) - no significant scarring |
What layers of skin are affected in a 2nd degree burn? | Epidermis and either superficial or deep dermis |
What is another name for a 1st degree burn? | Superficial burn |
What is another name for a second degree burn? | Partial thickness burn |
What are symptoms of a 2nd degree burn involving superficial dermis? | Blistering, pain |
What are symptoms of a 2nd degree burn involving deep dermis? | Loss of skin, pain |
What degree of burn is considered to be the most painful and why? | 2nd degree because nerve endings are being damaged |
Are sweat glands and hair follicles damaged in a 2nd degree burn? | Only the most superficial parts |
What layers of skin are involved in a 3rd degree burn? | Entire thickness of skin and perhaps underlying muscle |
What is another name for a 3rd degree burn? | Full-thickness burn |
What are symptoms of a 3rd degree burn? | Marked edema, numbness on the burned areas |
Why are the burned areas in a 3rd degree burn numb? | Because sensory endings are destroyed |
T/F: The extent of the burn (% of total body surface affected) is generally more significant than the degree (severity in terms of depth) | True |
What is the Rule of Nine? | Body is divided into ares that are approximately 9% or multiples of 9% of total body surface |
What is another name for accessory bones? | Supernumerary |
When do accessory bones develop? | When additional ossification centers appear and form extra bones. |
What do studies show that extra bone really is? | Missing part of the main bone |
Where can accessory bones commonly be found? | In the foot |
What are small, irregular wormlike bones? | Sutural bones (wormian bones) |
What is reduction of a fracture? | Broken ends of bone brought together, approximating their normal position |
How do bones heal? | Surrounding fibroblasts proliferate and secrete collagen which forms a collar of callus to hold bones together. Soon the callus calcifies and is eventually resorbed and replaced by bone |
How can the age of a young person be determined? | By studying the ossification centers in bones |
What are the main criteria for studying ossification centers? | 1. Appearance of calcified material in the diaphysis and/or epephyses 2. Disappearance of the radiolucent line representing the epiphysial plate (absence of this line indicates that epiphysial fusion has occured |
How much earlier does the fusion of the epiphyses with the diaphysis occur in girls compared to boys? | 1-2 years earlier in girls |
What is the dense line of provisional calcification that occurs when degeneration of cartilage cells in the columns continues, called? | Lines of arrested growth |
What is avascular necrosis? | Death of bone tissue due to loss of arterial supply to an epiphysis or other parts of a bone |
What is osteochondroses? | Group of clinical disorders of epiphyses in children that result from avascular necrosis of unknown etiology |
What is another name for the skullcap? | Calvaria |
What are fontanelles? | Wide areas of fibrous tissue formed from sutures at sites where an infant's cranium does not make full contact with each other |
Which fontanelle is most prominent and is known as the soft spot? | Anterior fontanelle |
What might a depressed fontanelle indicate? | Dehydration |
What is another name for DJD? | OA |
What is DJD often accompanied by? | Stiffness, discomfort, and pain |
What is arthroscopy? | Surgical procedure in which the synovial joint is examined by inserting a cannula and an arthroscope into it |
What is often the caused of DOMS? | Eccentric muscle contractions |
How much can muscles lengthen before injury? | Typically about 1/3 of their resting length |
What are the two methods of muscle testing? | 1. Person performs movements that resist those of examiner: Person keeps forearm flexed while examiner tries extending it 2. Examiner performs movements that resist those of person: Examiner asks person to flex forearm while examiner resists efforts |
In compensatory hypertrophy, how does the myocardium respond to increased demands? | By increasing the size of its fibers |
Do cardiac muscle cells divide (do they regenerate)? | No |
What is the most common acquired disease of arteries? | Ateriosclerosis |
What is arteriosclerosis characterized by? | Thickening and loss of elasticity of arterial walls |
What is a common form of arteriosclerosis and what is it associated with? | Atherosclerosis - buildup of fat (mainly cholesterol) |
What are varicose veins? | Abnormally swollen, twisted veins |
How do varicose veins form? | When walls of veins lose their elasticity, they become weak. These weakened veins dilate under the pressure of supporting a column of blood against gravity |
What is the most common type of cancer? | Carcinomas |
How are carcinomas most commonly spread? | Lymphogenously |
Are cancerous nodes painful when compressed? | No |
What type of tissue do carcinomas affect? | Epithelial |
What is the most common route for sarcomas? | Hematogenous route |
Which type of cancer is more malignant? | Sarcomas |
What type of tissue do sarcomas affect? | Connective tissue |
What type of blood vessels does metastasis usually occur in and why? | Veins because there are more of them and they have thinner walls |
What are the most common sites of secondary sarcomas? | Liver and lungs |
What is lymphedema? | Localized type of edema that occurs when lymph does not drain from an area of the body |
What happens after a back injury as a protective mechanism? | Spasm |
What is a spasm? | Sudden involuntary contraction |
What are spasms attended by? | Cramps, pain, and interference with function |
How is the patient placed when trying to examine posterior segments of the lungs in the triangle of ascultation? | Fold arms across chest and flex trunk |
When can the axillary nerve be injured? | During a humeral fracture because it wraps around the surgical neck of it |
What can happen with incorrect use of crutches? | Compression of axillary nerve |
What is the cutaneous branch of the axillary nerve and what does it innervate? | Superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm which innervates lateral side of proximal part of arm |
What are the most commonly affected areas regarding osteoporosis? | Neck of femur, bodies of vertebrae, metacarpals, and radius |
What is a laminectomy? | Surgical excision of one or more spinous processes and adjacent supporting vertebral laminae |
Why is a laminectomy often performed? | To relieve pressure on SC or nerve root |
What is one of the most common injuries of cervical vertebrae? | Fracture of vertebral arch of axis |
What part of the vertebral arch of the axis is typically fractured? | Pars interarticularis |
What is a fracture to the pars interarticularis called? | Traumatic spondylolysis of C2 |
How does traumatic spondyloysis of C2 usually occur? | Whiplash |
What is spina bifida occulta? | Neural arches of L5 and/or S1 fail to develop normally and fuse posterior to vertebral canal |
Since spina bifida occulta is usually concealed by the overlying skin, how is it indicated? | By a tuft of hair |
What is a more severe form of spina bifida occulta? | Spina bifida cystica |
What is spina bifida cystica? | One or more vertebral arches may fail to develop completely |
What is spinal bifida cystica associated with? | Herniation of meninges |
What do severe forms of spina bifida result from? | Neural tube defects, such as the defective closure of the neural tube during the 4th week of embryonic development |
What happens to the nuclei pulposi with age? | Dehydration and loss of elastin while gaining collagen |
Do intervertebral discs increase or decrease in size with age? | Increase |
Where do herniations of nucleus pulposus usually extend? | Posterolaterally |
What is the most common level for disc protrusions to occur? | L4-L5 or L5-S1 |
What is sciatica? | Pain in the lower back and hip that radiates down the back of the thigh and into the leg that is caused by a herniated lumbar IV disc that compresses and compromises the L5 or S1 component of the sciatic nerve |
What is another name for bone spurs? | Osteophytes |
What is the general rule regarding which nerve root is compressed due to a herniated disc? | When an IV disc protrudes, it usually compresses the nerve root numbered one inferior to the herniated disc; however in the cervical vertebrae it is usually the same disc and nerve |
T/F: The transverse ligament of the atlas is stronger than the dens of the C2 vertebrae | True |
When does atlanto-axial subluxation occur? | When the transverse ligament of the atlas ruptures which sets the dens free |
Dislocation of the transverse ligament rupture is most likely to cause what? | SC compression |
What 5 categories of structures receive innervation in the back and can be sources of pain? | 1. Fibroskeletal structures: periosteum, ligaments, anuli fibrosis 2. Meninges 3. Synovial joints 4. Muscles 5. Nervous tissue |
What part of bone does osteoporosis affect? | Trabeculae of spongy bone |
What is excessive lumbar lordosis characterized by? | Anterior tilting pelvis |
What is functional scoliosis caused by? | Difference in leg length with compensatory pelvic tilt |
What is a rhizotomy? | Procedure done to relieve intractable pain or spastic paralysis. Done in the nerve roots because this is the only site where M and S fibers of spinal nerves are segregated |
What are the only neurons to proliferate (grow in numbers) in the adult nervous system? | Olfactory epithelium |
What is paresthesia? | Pressure on a nerve (pins and needles) |
What is a crushing nerve injury? | Injury that damages or kills the axons distal to the injury site; however nerve cell bodies usually survive and the nerve's connective tissue covering remains intact; no surgical repair |
What is a cutting nerve injury? | One that requires surgical intervention |
What is anterograde degeneration? | Degeneration of axons detached from their cell bodies |
What is the Saturday Night Syndrome? | Intoxicated individual who passes out with a limb dangling across the arm of a chair which causes more serious and often permanent, paresthesia |
Do the lumbar spinal nerves increase in size from S to I or I to S? | S to I |
What is a lumbar puncture? | Withdrawal of CSF from the lumbar cistern |
What is a lumbar puncture done? | Pt is sidelying with back and hips flexed |
What does a lumbar puncture go through? | Dural sac |
Where is spinal anesthesia injected? | Subarachnoid space |
What is a common symptom of receiving a lumbar puncture? | HA |
Where is an epidural anesthesia given? | Extradural space or through the sacral hiatus (caudal epidural anesthesia) |
What are important arteries in the SC? | Segmental medullary arteries which supply blood to anterior and posterior spinal arteries |
What is lumbar spondylosis? | Group of bone and joint abnormalities (DJD) |
What is colostrum? | Cream white to yellowish premilk fluid that may be secreted from the nipples during the last trimester of pregnancy and during initial episodes of nursing |
How is the breast divided? | Into 4 quadrants |
What is lymphedema? | Excess fluid in subcutaneous tissue |
How does a carcinoma appear on a mammogram? | Large, jagged density |
Where are surgical incisions usually made in breasts and why? | Inferior breast quadrant because these quadrants are less vascular |
What is a simple mastectomy? | Breast is removed down to the retromamary space |
What is a radical mastectomy? | More extensive surgical procedure that involves removal of the breast, pectoral muscles, fat, fascia, and as many lymph nodes as possible in the axilla and pectoral region |
What is a lumpectomy or quadrantectomy? | Current practice that often only removes the tumor and surrounding tissue |
What is another name for a lumpectomy or quadrantectomy? | Breast-conserving surgery |
What is polymastia mean? | Supermumerary breasts |
What does polythelia mean? | Accessory nipples |
What is the embryonic mammary crest? | The milk line - line extending from axilla to the groin |
Why is breast cancer in men typically associated with more serious consequences? | Because it usually isn't detected until extensive metastases have occured |
What is gynecomastia? | Breast hypertrophy in males |
What can be a cause of gynecomastia? | Imbalance between estrogenic and androgenic hormones or from change in the metabolism of sex hormones by the liver |
What is one of the most frequently fracture bones? | Clavical |
MOA for clavicular fx | FOOSH or falling directly on shoulder |
What is the weakest part of the clavicle? | Junction of its middle and lateral thirds |
After a clavicular fx what prevents a dislocation of the ACJ? | Coracoclavicular ligament |
Why does the shoulder drop after a clavicular fx? | Because the trap is unable to hold the lateral fragment and weight of upper limb |
Why does the medial fragment of the clavical elevate after a fracture? | Because the SCM elevates it |
What changes occur when there is an absence of the pectoralis major? | Nipple is more inferior and anterior axillary fold is absent |
What RTC tendon is most commonly ruptured? | Supraspinatus |
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