Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
ANATOMY: BBC Test 1
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Where is cyanosis especially evident? | Lips, eyelids, nails |
| What causes stretch marks? | Marked and relatively fast size increase |
| What layers of skin do superficial lacerations affect? | Epidermis and maybe superficial layer of dermis |
| Do superficial lacerations bleed? | If they extend into dermis |
| What layers of skin do deep lacerations affect? | Deep layer of dermis, extending into subcutaneous tissue or beyond |
| What layers of skin are affected in a 1st degree burn? | Epidermis |
| What are symptoms of a 1st degree burn? | Erythema, pain, edema, desquamation (peeling) - no significant scarring |
| What layers of skin are affected in a 2nd degree burn? | Epidermis and either superficial or deep dermis |
| What is another name for a 1st degree burn? | Superficial burn |
| What is another name for a second degree burn? | Partial thickness burn |
| What are symptoms of a 2nd degree burn involving superficial dermis? | Blistering, pain |
| What are symptoms of a 2nd degree burn involving deep dermis? | Loss of skin, pain |
| What degree of burn is considered to be the most painful and why? | 2nd degree because nerve endings are being damaged |
| Are sweat glands and hair follicles damaged in a 2nd degree burn? | Only the most superficial parts |
| What layers of skin are involved in a 3rd degree burn? | Entire thickness of skin and perhaps underlying muscle |
| What is another name for a 3rd degree burn? | Full-thickness burn |
| What are symptoms of a 3rd degree burn? | Marked edema, numbness on the burned areas |
| Why are the burned areas in a 3rd degree burn numb? | Because sensory endings are destroyed |
| T/F: The extent of the burn (% of total body surface affected) is generally more significant than the degree (severity in terms of depth) | True |
| What is the Rule of Nine? | Body is divided into ares that are approximately 9% or multiples of 9% of total body surface |
| What is another name for accessory bones? | Supernumerary |
| When do accessory bones develop? | When additional ossification centers appear and form extra bones. |
| What do studies show that extra bone really is? | Missing part of the main bone |
| Where can accessory bones commonly be found? | In the foot |
| What are small, irregular wormlike bones? | Sutural bones (wormian bones) |
| What is reduction of a fracture? | Broken ends of bone brought together, approximating their normal position |
| How do bones heal? | Surrounding fibroblasts proliferate and secrete collagen which forms a collar of callus to hold bones together. Soon the callus calcifies and is eventually resorbed and replaced by bone |
| How can the age of a young person be determined? | By studying the ossification centers in bones |
| What are the main criteria for studying ossification centers? | 1. Appearance of calcified material in the diaphysis and/or epephyses 2. Disappearance of the radiolucent line representing the epiphysial plate (absence of this line indicates that epiphysial fusion has occured |
| How much earlier does the fusion of the epiphyses with the diaphysis occur in girls compared to boys? | 1-2 years earlier in girls |
| What is the dense line of provisional calcification that occurs when degeneration of cartilage cells in the columns continues, called? | Lines of arrested growth |
| What is avascular necrosis? | Death of bone tissue due to loss of arterial supply to an epiphysis or other parts of a bone |
| What is osteochondroses? | Group of clinical disorders of epiphyses in children that result from avascular necrosis of unknown etiology |
| What is another name for the skullcap? | Calvaria |
| What are fontanelles? | Wide areas of fibrous tissue formed from sutures at sites where an infant's cranium does not make full contact with each other |
| Which fontanelle is most prominent and is known as the soft spot? | Anterior fontanelle |
| What might a depressed fontanelle indicate? | Dehydration |
| What is another name for DJD? | OA |
| What is DJD often accompanied by? | Stiffness, discomfort, and pain |
| What is arthroscopy? | Surgical procedure in which the synovial joint is examined by inserting a cannula and an arthroscope into it |
| What is often the caused of DOMS? | Eccentric muscle contractions |
| How much can muscles lengthen before injury? | Typically about 1/3 of their resting length |
| What are the two methods of muscle testing? | 1. Person performs movements that resist those of examiner: Person keeps forearm flexed while examiner tries extending it 2. Examiner performs movements that resist those of person: Examiner asks person to flex forearm while examiner resists efforts |
| In compensatory hypertrophy, how does the myocardium respond to increased demands? | By increasing the size of its fibers |
| Do cardiac muscle cells divide (do they regenerate)? | No |
| What is the most common acquired disease of arteries? | Ateriosclerosis |
| What is arteriosclerosis characterized by? | Thickening and loss of elasticity of arterial walls |
| What is a common form of arteriosclerosis and what is it associated with? | Atherosclerosis - buildup of fat (mainly cholesterol) |
| What are varicose veins? | Abnormally swollen, twisted veins |
| How do varicose veins form? | When walls of veins lose their elasticity, they become weak. These weakened veins dilate under the pressure of supporting a column of blood against gravity |
| What is the most common type of cancer? | Carcinomas |
| How are carcinomas most commonly spread? | Lymphogenously |
| Are cancerous nodes painful when compressed? | No |
| What type of tissue do carcinomas affect? | Epithelial |
| What is the most common route for sarcomas? | Hematogenous route |
| Which type of cancer is more malignant? | Sarcomas |
| What type of tissue do sarcomas affect? | Connective tissue |
| What type of blood vessels does metastasis usually occur in and why? | Veins because there are more of them and they have thinner walls |
| What are the most common sites of secondary sarcomas? | Liver and lungs |
| What is lymphedema? | Localized type of edema that occurs when lymph does not drain from an area of the body |
| What happens after a back injury as a protective mechanism? | Spasm |
| What is a spasm? | Sudden involuntary contraction |
| What are spasms attended by? | Cramps, pain, and interference with function |
| How is the patient placed when trying to examine posterior segments of the lungs in the triangle of ascultation? | Fold arms across chest and flex trunk |
| When can the axillary nerve be injured? | During a humeral fracture because it wraps around the surgical neck of it |
| What can happen with incorrect use of crutches? | Compression of axillary nerve |
| What is the cutaneous branch of the axillary nerve and what does it innervate? | Superior lateral cutaneous nerve of the arm which innervates lateral side of proximal part of arm |
| What are the most commonly affected areas regarding osteoporosis? | Neck of femur, bodies of vertebrae, metacarpals, and radius |
| What is a laminectomy? | Surgical excision of one or more spinous processes and adjacent supporting vertebral laminae |
| Why is a laminectomy often performed? | To relieve pressure on SC or nerve root |
| What is one of the most common injuries of cervical vertebrae? | Fracture of vertebral arch of axis |
| What part of the vertebral arch of the axis is typically fractured? | Pars interarticularis |
| What is a fracture to the pars interarticularis called? | Traumatic spondylolysis of C2 |
| How does traumatic spondyloysis of C2 usually occur? | Whiplash |
| What is spina bifida occulta? | Neural arches of L5 and/or S1 fail to develop normally and fuse posterior to vertebral canal |
| Since spina bifida occulta is usually concealed by the overlying skin, how is it indicated? | By a tuft of hair |
| What is a more severe form of spina bifida occulta? | Spina bifida cystica |
| What is spina bifida cystica? | One or more vertebral arches may fail to develop completely |
| What is spinal bifida cystica associated with? | Herniation of meninges |
| What do severe forms of spina bifida result from? | Neural tube defects, such as the defective closure of the neural tube during the 4th week of embryonic development |
| What happens to the nuclei pulposi with age? | Dehydration and loss of elastin while gaining collagen |
| Do intervertebral discs increase or decrease in size with age? | Increase |
| Where do herniations of nucleus pulposus usually extend? | Posterolaterally |
| What is the most common level for disc protrusions to occur? | L4-L5 or L5-S1 |
| What is sciatica? | Pain in the lower back and hip that radiates down the back of the thigh and into the leg that is caused by a herniated lumbar IV disc that compresses and compromises the L5 or S1 component of the sciatic nerve |
| What is another name for bone spurs? | Osteophytes |
| What is the general rule regarding which nerve root is compressed due to a herniated disc? | When an IV disc protrudes, it usually compresses the nerve root numbered one inferior to the herniated disc; however in the cervical vertebrae it is usually the same disc and nerve |
| T/F: The transverse ligament of the atlas is stronger than the dens of the C2 vertebrae | True |
| When does atlanto-axial subluxation occur? | When the transverse ligament of the atlas ruptures which sets the dens free |
| Dislocation of the transverse ligament rupture is most likely to cause what? | SC compression |
| What 5 categories of structures receive innervation in the back and can be sources of pain? | 1. Fibroskeletal structures: periosteum, ligaments, anuli fibrosis 2. Meninges 3. Synovial joints 4. Muscles 5. Nervous tissue |
| What part of bone does osteoporosis affect? | Trabeculae of spongy bone |
| What is excessive lumbar lordosis characterized by? | Anterior tilting pelvis |
| What is functional scoliosis caused by? | Difference in leg length with compensatory pelvic tilt |
| What is a rhizotomy? | Procedure done to relieve intractable pain or spastic paralysis. Done in the nerve roots because this is the only site where M and S fibers of spinal nerves are segregated |
| What are the only neurons to proliferate (grow in numbers) in the adult nervous system? | Olfactory epithelium |
| What is paresthesia? | Pressure on a nerve (pins and needles) |
| What is a crushing nerve injury? | Injury that damages or kills the axons distal to the injury site; however nerve cell bodies usually survive and the nerve's connective tissue covering remains intact; no surgical repair |
| What is a cutting nerve injury? | One that requires surgical intervention |
| What is anterograde degeneration? | Degeneration of axons detached from their cell bodies |
| What is the Saturday Night Syndrome? | Intoxicated individual who passes out with a limb dangling across the arm of a chair which causes more serious and often permanent, paresthesia |
| Do the lumbar spinal nerves increase in size from S to I or I to S? | S to I |
| What is a lumbar puncture? | Withdrawal of CSF from the lumbar cistern |
| What is a lumbar puncture done? | Pt is sidelying with back and hips flexed |
| What does a lumbar puncture go through? | Dural sac |
| Where is spinal anesthesia injected? | Subarachnoid space |
| What is a common symptom of receiving a lumbar puncture? | HA |
| Where is an epidural anesthesia given? | Extradural space or through the sacral hiatus (caudal epidural anesthesia) |
| What are important arteries in the SC? | Segmental medullary arteries which supply blood to anterior and posterior spinal arteries |
| What is lumbar spondylosis? | Group of bone and joint abnormalities (DJD) |
| What is colostrum? | Cream white to yellowish premilk fluid that may be secreted from the nipples during the last trimester of pregnancy and during initial episodes of nursing |
| How is the breast divided? | Into 4 quadrants |
| What is lymphedema? | Excess fluid in subcutaneous tissue |
| How does a carcinoma appear on a mammogram? | Large, jagged density |
| Where are surgical incisions usually made in breasts and why? | Inferior breast quadrant because these quadrants are less vascular |
| What is a simple mastectomy? | Breast is removed down to the retromamary space |
| What is a radical mastectomy? | More extensive surgical procedure that involves removal of the breast, pectoral muscles, fat, fascia, and as many lymph nodes as possible in the axilla and pectoral region |
| What is a lumpectomy or quadrantectomy? | Current practice that often only removes the tumor and surrounding tissue |
| What is another name for a lumpectomy or quadrantectomy? | Breast-conserving surgery |
| What is polymastia mean? | Supermumerary breasts |
| What does polythelia mean? | Accessory nipples |
| What is the embryonic mammary crest? | The milk line - line extending from axilla to the groin |
| Why is breast cancer in men typically associated with more serious consequences? | Because it usually isn't detected until extensive metastases have occured |
| What is gynecomastia? | Breast hypertrophy in males |
| What can be a cause of gynecomastia? | Imbalance between estrogenic and androgenic hormones or from change in the metabolism of sex hormones by the liver |
| What is one of the most frequently fracture bones? | Clavical |
| MOA for clavicular fx | FOOSH or falling directly on shoulder |
| What is the weakest part of the clavicle? | Junction of its middle and lateral thirds |
| After a clavicular fx what prevents a dislocation of the ACJ? | Coracoclavicular ligament |
| Why does the shoulder drop after a clavicular fx? | Because the trap is unable to hold the lateral fragment and weight of upper limb |
| Why does the medial fragment of the clavical elevate after a fracture? | Because the SCM elevates it |
| What changes occur when there is an absence of the pectoralis major? | Nipple is more inferior and anterior axillary fold is absent |
| What RTC tendon is most commonly ruptured? | Supraspinatus |
Created by:
1185240090
Popular Physical Therapy sets