Abnormal Psych Fin Word Scramble
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Question | Answer |
Chapter One | |
1) Abnormal behavior is defined as behavior that is inconsistent with the individual’s developmental, cultural, and societal norms, creates emotional distress, and/or | impairment. |
2) The etiology of a disorder refers to | its origin. |
3) Approximately what total percentage of adults in the U.S. have suffered from a psychological disorder at some time in their lives? | 48% |
4) Of all disorders reported in the U.S., the most common are alcohol dependence and | anxiety. |
5) The concept of “developmental trajectory” expresses the notion that | behaviors considered abnormal at some ages are developmentally appropriate at others. |
6) Neurons release neurotransmitters into synapses. These neurotransmitters | bind to receptors sites. |
7) In operant conditioning, a reinforcer serves to | increase frequency a behavior it follows |
8) Biological scarring, as seen in some disorders such as PTSD, demonstrates that | brain anatomy changes because of a disorder. |
9) The social learning model of behavioral acquisition proposes that | people learn through observation of others. |
10) Whereas the behavioral approach focuses on | external events, the cognitive model targets |
11) In Aaron Beck’s cognitive model of depression, the cognitive triad consists of | negative thoughts of self, others, and future. |
12) While psychoanalytic and humanistic models assume that abnormality lies within the individual, | biopsychosocial models assume that abnormal behavior must be understood in a larger context outside of the individual |
13) The diathesis-stress model of abnormal behavior assumes that | genetic predisposition interacts with environment to express psychopathology. |
Chapter Two | |
14) The human nervous system is composed of two parts, the | central and peripheral. |
15) Which of the following is the primary function of the hypothalamus? | Maintain homeostasis |
16) The term “complex trait” implies that | multiple genes interact to cause a trait. |
17) Describe how the behavioral genetics approach examines the interaction of genes and environment. | Behavioral genetics infer gene-environment interaction using twin/family studies. |
18) Correlation coefficients obtained in group research studies indicate the | relationship between two things. |
19) A research study produces a negative correlation between hours of sleep and test performance. Given this, what do we know about the relationship between these variables? | The more hours of sleep one gets, the poorer the test performance, or vice versa. |
20) When considering a curvilinear relationship between two variables, it is important to recognize that | two variables could be related in spite of low strength in their relationship. |
21) In order to draw causal conclusions about a research finding, a researcher must use a | longitudinal, randomized control study. |
22) In an experiment involving a specific form of therapy, the independent variable is the | therapy type. |
23) Random assignment to groups is a critical part of the methodology in controlled design experiments because each participant has | control for third variables. |
24) Whereas efficacy research focuses on | the laboratory, effectiveness research targets |
25) The “placebo effect” discussed in your text is the result of | expectancy on the part of the participant. |
26) The epidemiological approach to the study of abnormal behavior is one that | studies incidence and prevalence of a disorder. |
Chapter Three | |
27) Clinical assessments for outcome evaluation may be repeated over time during treatment in order to | evaluate progress and assess for treatment termination. |
28) On psychological tests, the standard deviation gives an indication of | the distance of an individual’s score from the mean. |
29) In the self-referent approach to interpreting a score, a person’s score today | is compared to his previous score. |
30) A noted leader in the field of assessment, Paul Meehl, argued as early as 1954 that | statistical predictions were far more accurate than |
31) Of the many factors influencing the choice of assessment tools, one of the most important factors affecting a clinician’s choice is the | patient’s age. |
32) Current IQ test scores are standardized using a mean of | 100 and a standard deviation of |
33) If a psychologist wanted to test the effectiveness of a behavioral intervention for test anxiety, she would most likely choose what sort of assessment? | A symptom-specific test |
34) About what percentage of all persons receiving a primary diagnosis have symptoms that meet criteria for a second diagnosis? | 50% |
35) Developmental factors should be reflected in diagnostic systems because | of the theory of developmental trajectory. |
36) Culture-bound syndromes are best described as groups of symptoms that | are specific to only one culture. |
37) The dimensional model of classification is qualitative, implying what about how disorders are classified | on a continuum. |
38) The categorical model of classification used by the DSM-IV-TR implies what about how disorders are classified | must meet a certain number of symptoms to be classified. |
Chapter Four | |
39) What are of the three components of anxiety? | Physical symptoms, future-oriented thoughts, and escape or avoidance behaviors |
40) In the U.S., the average age of onset for an anxiety disorder is | 11. |
41) According to your text, anxiety is a response oriented toward the | future. |
42) The core fear of individuals with social anxiety disorder is | negative evaluation from others. |
43) The core fear of individuals with panic disorder is | the symptoms of the panic attack. |
44) People who suffer from generalized anxiety disorder are characterized by excessive worry about | everything. |
45) One feature of obsessions that creates anxiety for an individual is their | intrusiveness. |
46) PTSD is initiated (as described by the DSM-IV criteria A) when an individual experiences a traumatic event OR | witnesses a traumatic event. |
47) Agoraphobia literally means fear of | the marketplace. |
48) Blood-injury-injection phobias are different from other phobias in a unique way involving vasovagal syncope. This condition involves | parasympathetic nervous symptoms. |
49) The anxiety sensitivity model of fear acquisition holds that some people | have more negative perceptions of what anxiety means – personality trait. |
50) As a pharmacological approach to the treatment of anxiety disorders, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) correct serotonin imbalances by | blocking reuptake. |
Chapter Six | |
51) Patients who take benzodiazepines for anxiety disorders for extended periods of time may risk | addiction. |
52) Based on 30 years of research on psychological interventions for anxiety disorders, it has been found that behavioral therapy and | CBT interventions are the most efficacious treatments |
53) In order to meet criteria for a major depressive episode, a patient would have to report experiencing depressed mood or lack of interest in daily activities for a period of | two weeks. |
54) Double depression is a term used to refer to episodes of | dysthymia and Major Depressive Disorder. |
55) According to your text, dysthymic disorder can best be conceptualized as | chronically low mood. |
56) Mania is a high, excessive mood often accompanied by pressured or rapid speech, a false sense of well-being, decreased need for sleep, extreme self-confidence and | inability to complete project. |
57) Individuals experiencing a manic episode usually experience all of the following except | ??? (symptoms include: grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, more talkative, racing thoughts/ideas, distractibility, increase in goal-directed activity, high-risk pleasurable activities) |
58) The difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorder is the presence of | hypomanic disorder in the latter instead of a full-blown manic episode. |
59) Passive suicidal ideation and active suicidal ideation may be discriminated from each other on the basis of | plans, means, and intent. |
60) Through their association with low levels of serotonin, behaviors such as | impulsivity and physical aggression increase the risk for suicide. |
61) According to your text, environmental factors that may precipitate major depression include all of the following except | holidays. |
62) Universally, women are diagnosed | twice as often as men for major depression. |
63) Seligman’s learned helplessness theory has been used as a framework for explaining the contribution of negative, inescapable events/environments to | depression in some people. |
64) A client who has habitual negative thoughts of being a failure and worthless would be described as having | negative automatic thoughts in Aaron Beck’s cognitive theory of depression |
65) Which of the following therapies recognizes the central influence of current relationships on mental health? | Interpersonal Therapy |
66) The great advantage of SSRIs compared with earlier antidepressant drugs is that they | have fewer side effects. |
67) Among all the symptoms found in somatization disorder, pseudoseizures are | highly uncommon. |
Chapter Five | |
68) Which of the following is the most commonly diagnosed somatoform disorder? | Undifferentiated |
69) Individuals with body dysmorphic disorder | have an exaggerated sense of deformity in one feature. |
70) Body dysmorphic disorder in adolescence | leads to higher suicide rates. |
71) According to proponents of dissociative identity disorder, a failure of | normal personality development may cause the onset of the illness. |
72) Select the statement that is TRUE of the relationship between severe childhood trauma and dissociative identity disorder. | There is a positive correlation. |
73) The major distinction between dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue is that with dissociative fugue only | travel. |
74) The diagnosis of dissociate identity disorder may depend on the | therapist beliefs. |
75) Cognitive-behavioral therapy approaches the treatment of dissociative disorders by assuming that | misinterpret their symptoms. |
76) Factitious disorders differ from somatoform and dissociative disorders in the that former | produces intentional symptoms. |
77) One way to discriminate a factitious disorder from malingering would be to look for | personal gain. |
Chapter Seven | |
78) Clinicians use the | BMI in determining the weight status of their clients |
79) A particularly perplexing clinical feather of anorexia nervosa is the | intense fear of gaining weight though severely underweight. |
80) An official diagnosis of anorexia nervosa requires 3 consecutive months of | amenorrhea. |
81) Psychological features often associated with anorexia nervosa include | depression. |
82) The most important personality trait found to be predictive of anorexia nervosa is | perfectionism. |
83) The most important personality trait found to be predictive of bulimia nervosa is | impulsivity. |
84) Key symptoms of bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a feeling of being “out of control” during binge episodes, and | compensatory behaviors. |
85) Unlike overeating too much of a favorite food, people with bulimia nervosa | feel out of control. |
86) Which of the following is TRUE of both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa? | Both can include compensatory behaviors. |
87) A compensatory behavior may be defined as | anything that expels caloric intake. |
88) Compared with anorexia nervosa patients, persons diagnosed with bulimia nervosa have | normal to overweight BMIs. |
89) Eating much more rapidly than normal is a key feature of which disorder listed below | binge eating disorder. |
90) What structural brain abnormalities have researchers discovered in patients with anorexia nervosa when they are ill? | Reduced gray matter |
91) Relatives of persons with anorexia or bulimia have an increased risk for eating disorders | 10 times that of persons with no familial history of these disorders. |
Chapter Eight | |
92) Until about 25 years ago, a homosexual orientation | was a psychological disorder. |
93) There are sex differences in the strength of same-sex attraction, such that | men are more likely to be exclusively homosexual than women are. |
94) Gender identity is a concept | of who you believe yourself to be. |
95) Gender identity disorder is characterized by a strong and persistent cross-gender identification and | desire to be the opposite sex. |
96) An extreme dislike to and avoidance of all (or almost all) genital contact with a partner is termed | sexual aversion. |
97) Transvestic fetishism is the desire to dress in clothes of the opposite sex for sexual gratification. This disorder is | present in straight men. |
98) The most common age of onset for all paraphilias is? | Adolescence |
99) The most common pedophilic acts are | touching and fondling. |
Chapter Nine | |
100) According to your text, substance use is defined as | moderate substance intake. |
101) Substance abuse as a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis may include all of the following associated behaviors except | (withdrawal or tolerance). |
102) Substance dependence involves the two characteristic features of | withdrawal and tolerance. |
103) Worldwide, the most commonly used drug is | caffeine. |
104) A prime factor in nicotine’s highly addictive potential is (are) | immediate effect on pleasure sensors. |
105) According to your text, what percent of smokers that attempt to quit smoking will achieve sustained abstinence after 1 year? | 2% |
106) Alcohol is a | depressant. |
107) Signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal include all of the following except | delusions. |
108) Despite affecting many neurotransmitters, alcohol has a particularly powerful effect on the neurotransmitter | GABA. |
109) THC is the active ingredient in marijuana. It produces a sense of euphoria by stimulating | canabinoid receptors. |
110) Cocaine produces its euphoric effect by its impact on which neurotransmitter | dopamine. |
111) The treatment model for substance abuse that encourages the patient to evaluate how their substance abuse interferes with their life goals and values is | motivation-enhancement therapy. |
Chapter Ten | |
112) Psychotic disorders are characterized by unusual thinking, distorted perceptions, and | odd behaviors. |
113) The 3 symptom categories in schizophrenia are | positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and cognitive impairments. |
114) Positive symptoms of schizophrenia refer to the | symptoms that exist in people with disorder that do not with unaffected people. |
115) Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the follow except | psychomotor retardation. |
116) Negative symptoms of schizophrenia refer to the | symptoms that do not exist in those with schizophrenia that do with unaffected people. |
117) Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following except | delusions. |
118) One symptom of schizophrenia is the ability to be “posed” in a certain position by another person and remain in that position until “reposed.” This symptom is called | waxy flexibility. |
119) Of the following schizophrenia subtypes, which is characterized by only the presence of negative symptoms or previous positive symptoms that have lessened in severity or frequency? | Residual |
120) Except for the length of the disorder and the degree of functional impairment, schizophrenia and | schizophreniform have the same symptomatology |
121) In | schizoaffective disorder, patients exhibit symptoms of both schizophrenia and mood disorders. |
122) Excessive amounts of | dopamine in the limbic area are thought to be one of the contributing factors in the development of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia |
123) Genetically speaking, if both parents are diagnosed with schizophrenia, there is a | 50% chance of their child also developing the disorder |
124) The two structural brain abnormalities that are consistently found in individuals with schizophrenia are | enlarged ventricles and reduced gray matter. |
125) MRI studies have demonstrated that changes in ventricle size and gray matter quantity among people with schizophrenia | occur before the onset of illness. |
126) Prenatal exposure to the | influenza virus is thought to be a contributing factor in the development of schizophrenia |
127) The term “expressed emotion” is used to describe the | emotional involvement and attitudes found among family members of persons with schizophrenic disorder |
128) The treatment of choice for schizophrenia is typically | pharmacological. |
129) Antipsychotic medications work by blocking | dopamine receptors. |
130) A serious side effect associated with typical or first generation antipsychotic medications is a neurological condition characterized by abnormal and involuntary movements. This condition is called tardive dyskinesia. | |
131) A noninvasive technique has been developed to treat the symptoms of several psychiatric disorders, including schizophrenia. This treatment, which stimulates neurons in specific brain regions with a magnetic current, is called | TMS. |
132) When medication is not entirely effective in treating psychotic symptoms, it may be supplemented with | CBT. |
Chapter Eleven | |
133) The three Ps that are used to differentiate personality disorders from other psychological disorders include all of the following except | paranoid. (3 Ps: persistent, pervasive, and pathological) |
134) The behaviors that are characteristic of Cluster A personality disorders are described as | odd or eccentric. |
135) The behaviors that are characteristic of Cluster B personality disorders are described as | dramatic, emotional, or erratic. |
136) The behaviors that are characteristic of Cluster C personality disorders are described as | anxious or fearful. |
137) Which symptom differentiates paranoid schizophrenia from paranoid personality disorder? | Bizarre delusions |
138) Schizoid | personality disorder involves a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression in interpersonal settings. |
139) Which personality disorder revolves around a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others, including family members and friends? | Paranoid |
140) Antisocial | personality disorder is a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others. |
141) The personality disorder that includes a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort, reduced capacity for close relationships, cognitive or personal distortions, and behavioral eccentricities is called | schizotypal personality disorder. |
142) Histrionic | personality disorder is a pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking. |
143) Which personality disorder is marked by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration from others, and lack of empathy? | Narcissistic |
144) When a patient’s symptoms include a pervasive pattern of unstable interpersonal relationships, self-image, affect, and impulsivity, the mostly likely personality disorder diagnosis is | borderline personality disorder. |
145) Avoidant | personality disorder is a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitity to negative evaluation |
146) A pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency differentiates | obsessive-compulsive personality disorder from the other personality disorders |
147) Which personality disorder is marked by a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, which leads to submissive and clinging behavior and fears of separation? | Dependent |
148) In order for antisocial personality disorder to be diagnosed, the patient must be at least | 18 years old with symptoms of conduct disorder before age 15. |
149) The five dimensions of the Five Factor Model of personality include neuroticism, conscientiousness, agreeableness, openness, and | extraversion. |
150) Functional impairments in personality disorders are most often seen in what area? | Social relationships. |
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