Question 1

1)	Abnormal behavior is defined as behavior that is inconsistent with the individual’s developmental, cultural, and societal norms, creates emotional distress, and/or

Accepted Answer

impairment.

Question 2

2)	The etiology of a disorder refers to

Accepted Answer

its origin.

Question 3

3)	Approximately what total percentage of adults in the U.S. have suffered from a psychological disorder at some time in their lives?

Accepted Answer

48%

Question 4

4)	Of all disorders reported in the U.S., the most common are alcohol dependence and

Accepted Answer

anxiety.

Question 5

5)	The concept of “developmental trajectory” expresses the notion that

Accepted Answer

behaviors considered abnormal at some ages are developmentally appropriate at others.

Question 6

6)	Neurons release neurotransmitters into synapses. These neurotransmitters

Accepted Answer

bind to receptors sites.

Question 7

7)	In operant conditioning, a reinforcer serves to

Accepted Answer

increase frequency a behavior it follows

Question 8

8)	Biological scarring, as seen in some disorders such as PTSD, demonstrates that

Accepted Answer

brain anatomy changes because of a disorder.

Question 9

9)	The social learning model of behavioral acquisition proposes that

Accepted Answer

people learn through observation of others.

Question 10

10)	Whereas the behavioral approach focuses on

Accepted Answer

external events, the cognitive model targets

Question 11

11)	In Aaron Beck’s cognitive model of depression, the cognitive triad consists of

Accepted Answer

negative thoughts of self, others, and future.

Question 12

12)	While psychoanalytic and humanistic models assume that abnormality lies within the individual,

Accepted Answer

biopsychosocial models assume that abnormal behavior must be understood in a larger context outside of the individual

Question 13

13)	The diathesis-stress model of abnormal behavior assumes that

Accepted Answer

genetic predisposition interacts with environment to express psychopathology.

Question 14

14)	The human nervous system is composed of two parts, the

Accepted Answer

central and peripheral.

Question 15

15)	Which of the following is the primary function of the hypothalamus?

Accepted Answer

Maintain homeostasis

Question 16

16)	The term “complex trait” implies that

Accepted Answer

multiple genes interact to cause a trait.

Question 17

17)	Describe how the behavioral genetics approach examines the interaction of genes and environment.

Accepted Answer

Behavioral genetics infer gene-environment interaction using twin/family studies.

Question 18

18)	Correlation coefficients obtained in group research studies indicate the

Accepted Answer

relationship between two things.

Question 19

19)	A research study produces a negative correlation between hours of sleep and test performance. Given this, what do we know about the relationship between these variables?

Accepted Answer

The more hours of sleep one gets, the poorer the test performance, or vice versa.

Question 20

20)	When considering a curvilinear relationship between two variables, it is important to recognize that

Accepted Answer

two variables could be related in spite of low strength in their relationship.

Question 21

21)	In order to draw causal conclusions about a research finding, a researcher must use a

Accepted Answer

longitudinal, randomized control study.

Question 22

22)	In an experiment involving a specific form of therapy, the independent variable is the

Accepted Answer

therapy type.

Question 23

23)	Random assignment to groups is a critical part of the methodology in controlled design experiments because each participant has

Accepted Answer

control for third variables.

Question 24

24)	Whereas efficacy research focuses on

Accepted Answer

the laboratory, effectiveness research targets

Question 25

25)	The “placebo effect” discussed in your text is the result of

Accepted Answer

expectancy on the part of the participant.

Question 26

26)	The epidemiological approach to the study of abnormal behavior is one that

Accepted Answer

studies incidence and prevalence of a disorder.

Question 27

27)	Clinical assessments for outcome evaluation may be repeated over time during treatment in order to

Accepted Answer

evaluate progress and assess for treatment termination.

Question 28

28)	On psychological tests, the standard deviation gives an indication of

Accepted Answer

the distance of an individual’s score from the mean.

Question 29

29)	In the self-referent approach to interpreting a score, a person’s score today

Accepted Answer

is compared to his previous score.

Question 30

30)	A noted leader in the field of assessment, Paul Meehl, argued as early as 1954 that

Accepted Answer

statistical predictions were far more accurate than

Question 31

31)	Of the many factors influencing the choice of assessment tools, one of the most important factors affecting a clinician’s choice is the

Accepted Answer

patient’s age.

Question 32

32)	Current IQ test scores are standardized using a mean of

Accepted Answer

100 and a standard deviation of

Question 33

33)	If a psychologist wanted to test the effectiveness of a behavioral intervention for test anxiety, she would most likely choose what sort of assessment?

Accepted Answer

A symptom-specific test

Question 34

34)	About what percentage of all persons receiving a primary diagnosis have symptoms that meet criteria for a second diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

50%

Question 35

35)	Developmental factors should be reflected in diagnostic systems because

Accepted Answer

of the theory of developmental trajectory.

Question 36

36)	Culture-bound syndromes are best described as groups of symptoms that

Accepted Answer

are specific to only one culture.

Question 37

37)	The dimensional model of classification is qualitative, implying what about how disorders are classified

Accepted Answer

on a continuum.

Question 38

38)	The categorical model of classification used by the DSM-IV-TR implies what about how disorders are classified

Accepted Answer

must meet a certain number of symptoms to be classified.

Question 39

39)	What are of the three components of anxiety?

Accepted Answer

Physical symptoms, future-oriented thoughts, and escape or avoidance behaviors

Question 40

40)	In the U.S., the average age of onset for an anxiety disorder is

Accepted Answer

11.

Question 41

41)	According to your text, anxiety is a response oriented toward the

Accepted Answer

future.

Question 42

42)	The core fear of individuals with social anxiety disorder is

Accepted Answer

negative evaluation from others.

Question 43

43)	The core fear of individuals with panic disorder is

Accepted Answer

the symptoms of the panic attack.

Question 44

44)	People who suffer from generalized anxiety disorder are characterized by excessive worry about

Accepted Answer

everything.

Question 45

45)	One feature of obsessions that creates anxiety for an individual is their

Accepted Answer

intrusiveness.

Question 46

46)	PTSD is initiated (as described by the DSM-IV criteria A) when an individual experiences a traumatic event OR

Accepted Answer

witnesses a traumatic event.

Question 47

47)	Agoraphobia literally means fear of

Accepted Answer

the marketplace.

Question 48

48)	Blood-injury-injection phobias are different from other phobias in a unique way involving vasovagal syncope. This condition involves

Accepted Answer

parasympathetic nervous symptoms.

Question 49

49)	The anxiety sensitivity model of fear acquisition holds that some people

Accepted Answer

have more negative perceptions of what anxiety means – personality trait.

Question 50

50)	As a pharmacological approach to the treatment of anxiety disorders, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) correct serotonin imbalances by

Accepted Answer

blocking reuptake.

Question 51

51)	Patients who take benzodiazepines for anxiety disorders for extended periods of time may risk

Accepted Answer

addiction.

Question 52

52)	Based on 30 years of research on psychological interventions for anxiety disorders, it has been found that behavioral therapy and

Accepted Answer

CBT interventions are the most efficacious treatments

Question 53

53)	In order to meet criteria for a major depressive episode, a patient would have to report experiencing depressed mood or lack of interest in daily activities for a period of

Accepted Answer

two weeks.

Question 54

54)	Double depression is a term used to refer to episodes of

Accepted Answer

dysthymia and Major Depressive Disorder.

Question 55

55)	According to your text, dysthymic disorder can best be conceptualized as

Accepted Answer

chronically low mood.

Question 56

56)	Mania is a high, excessive mood often accompanied by pressured or rapid speech, a false sense of well-being, decreased need for sleep, extreme self-confidence and

Accepted Answer

inability to complete project.

Question 57

57)	Individuals experiencing a manic episode usually experience all of the following except

Accepted Answer

??? (symptoms include: grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, more talkative, racing thoughts/ideas, distractibility, increase in goal-directed activity, high-risk pleasurable activities)

Question 58

58)	The difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorder is the presence of

Accepted Answer

hypomanic disorder in the latter instead of a full-blown manic episode.

Question 59

59)	Passive suicidal ideation and active suicidal ideation may be discriminated from each other on the basis of

Accepted Answer

plans, means, and intent.

Question 60

60)	Through their association with low levels of serotonin, behaviors such as

Accepted Answer

impulsivity and physical aggression increase the risk for suicide.

Question 61

61)	According to your text, environmental factors that may precipitate major depression include all of the following except

Accepted Answer

holidays.

Question 62

62)	Universally, women are diagnosed

Accepted Answer

twice as often as men for major depression.

Question 63

63)	Seligman’s learned helplessness theory has been used as a framework for explaining the contribution of negative, inescapable events/environments to

Accepted Answer

depression in some people.

Question 64

64)	A client who has habitual negative thoughts of being a failure and worthless would be described as having

Accepted Answer

negative automatic thoughts in Aaron Beck’s cognitive theory of depression

Question	Answer
Chapter One
1) Abnormal behavior is defined as behavior that is inconsistent with the individual’s developmental, cultural, and societal norms, creates emotional distress, and/or	impairment.
2) The etiology of a disorder refers to	its origin.
3) Approximately what total percentage of adults in the U.S. have suffered from a psychological disorder at some time in their lives?	48%
4) Of all disorders reported in the U.S., the most common are alcohol dependence and	anxiety.
5) The concept of “developmental trajectory” expresses the notion that	behaviors considered abnormal at some ages are developmentally appropriate at others.
6) Neurons release neurotransmitters into synapses. These neurotransmitters	bind to receptors sites.
7) In operant conditioning, a reinforcer serves to	increase frequency a behavior it follows
8) Biological scarring, as seen in some disorders such as PTSD, demonstrates that	brain anatomy changes because of a disorder.
9) The social learning model of behavioral acquisition proposes that	people learn through observation of others.
10) Whereas the behavioral approach focuses on	external events, the cognitive model targets
11) In Aaron Beck’s cognitive model of depression, the cognitive triad consists of	negative thoughts of self, others, and future.
12) While psychoanalytic and humanistic models assume that abnormality lies within the individual,	biopsychosocial models assume that abnormal behavior must be understood in a larger context outside of the individual
13) The diathesis-stress model of abnormal behavior assumes that	genetic predisposition interacts with environment to express psychopathology.
Chapter Two
14) The human nervous system is composed of two parts, the	central and peripheral.
15) Which of the following is the primary function of the hypothalamus?	Maintain homeostasis
16) The term “complex trait” implies that	multiple genes interact to cause a trait.
17) Describe how the behavioral genetics approach examines the interaction of genes and environment.	Behavioral genetics infer gene-environment interaction using twin/family studies.
18) Correlation coefficients obtained in group research studies indicate the	relationship between two things.
19) A research study produces a negative correlation between hours of sleep and test performance. Given this, what do we know about the relationship between these variables?	The more hours of sleep one gets, the poorer the test performance, or vice versa.
20) When considering a curvilinear relationship between two variables, it is important to recognize that	two variables could be related in spite of low strength in their relationship.
21) In order to draw causal conclusions about a research finding, a researcher must use a	longitudinal, randomized control study.
22) In an experiment involving a specific form of therapy, the independent variable is the	therapy type.
23) Random assignment to groups is a critical part of the methodology in controlled design experiments because each participant has	control for third variables.
24) Whereas efficacy research focuses on	the laboratory, effectiveness research targets
25) The “placebo effect” discussed in your text is the result of	expectancy on the part of the participant.
26) The epidemiological approach to the study of abnormal behavior is one that	studies incidence and prevalence of a disorder.
Chapter Three
27) Clinical assessments for outcome evaluation may be repeated over time during treatment in order to	evaluate progress and assess for treatment termination.
28) On psychological tests, the standard deviation gives an indication of	the distance of an individual’s score from the mean.
29) In the self-referent approach to interpreting a score, a person’s score today	is compared to his previous score.
30) A noted leader in the field of assessment, Paul Meehl, argued as early as 1954 that	statistical predictions were far more accurate than
31) Of the many factors influencing the choice of assessment tools, one of the most important factors affecting a clinician’s choice is the	patient’s age.
32) Current IQ test scores are standardized using a mean of	100 and a standard deviation of
33) If a psychologist wanted to test the effectiveness of a behavioral intervention for test anxiety, she would most likely choose what sort of assessment?	A symptom-specific test
34) About what percentage of all persons receiving a primary diagnosis have symptoms that meet criteria for a second diagnosis?	50%
35) Developmental factors should be reflected in diagnostic systems because	of the theory of developmental trajectory.
36) Culture-bound syndromes are best described as groups of symptoms that	are specific to only one culture.
37) The dimensional model of classification is qualitative, implying what about how disorders are classified	on a continuum.
38) The categorical model of classification used by the DSM-IV-TR implies what about how disorders are classified	must meet a certain number of symptoms to be classified.
Chapter Four
39) What are of the three components of anxiety?	Physical symptoms, future-oriented thoughts, and escape or avoidance behaviors
40) In the U.S., the average age of onset for an anxiety disorder is	11.
41) According to your text, anxiety is a response oriented toward the	future.
42) The core fear of individuals with social anxiety disorder is	negative evaluation from others.
43) The core fear of individuals with panic disorder is	the symptoms of the panic attack.
44) People who suffer from generalized anxiety disorder are characterized by excessive worry about	everything.
45) One feature of obsessions that creates anxiety for an individual is their	intrusiveness.
46) PTSD is initiated (as described by the DSM-IV criteria A) when an individual experiences a traumatic event OR	witnesses a traumatic event.
47) Agoraphobia literally means fear of	the marketplace.
48) Blood-injury-injection phobias are different from other phobias in a unique way involving vasovagal syncope. This condition involves	parasympathetic nervous symptoms.
49) The anxiety sensitivity model of fear acquisition holds that some people	have more negative perceptions of what anxiety means – personality trait.
50) As a pharmacological approach to the treatment of anxiety disorders, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) correct serotonin imbalances by	blocking reuptake.
Chapter Six
51) Patients who take benzodiazepines for anxiety disorders for extended periods of time may risk	addiction.
52) Based on 30 years of research on psychological interventions for anxiety disorders, it has been found that behavioral therapy and	CBT interventions are the most efficacious treatments
53) In order to meet criteria for a major depressive episode, a patient would have to report experiencing depressed mood or lack of interest in daily activities for a period of	two weeks.
54) Double depression is a term used to refer to episodes of	dysthymia and Major Depressive Disorder.
55) According to your text, dysthymic disorder can best be conceptualized as	chronically low mood.
56) Mania is a high, excessive mood often accompanied by pressured or rapid speech, a false sense of well-being, decreased need for sleep, extreme self-confidence and	inability to complete project.
57) Individuals experiencing a manic episode usually experience all of the following except	??? (symptoms include: grandiosity, decreased need for sleep, more talkative, racing thoughts/ideas, distractibility, increase in goal-directed activity, high-risk pleasurable activities)
58) The difference between bipolar I and bipolar II disorder is the presence of	hypomanic disorder in the latter instead of a full-blown manic episode.
59) Passive suicidal ideation and active suicidal ideation may be discriminated from each other on the basis of	plans, means, and intent.
60) Through their association with low levels of serotonin, behaviors such as	impulsivity and physical aggression increase the risk for suicide.
61) According to your text, environmental factors that may precipitate major depression include all of the following except	holidays.
62) Universally, women are diagnosed	twice as often as men for major depression.
63) Seligman’s learned helplessness theory has been used as a framework for explaining the contribution of negative, inescapable events/environments to	depression in some people.
64) A client who has habitual negative thoughts of being a failure and worthless would be described as having	negative automatic thoughts in Aaron Beck’s cognitive theory of depression
65) Which of the following therapies recognizes the central influence of current relationships on mental health?	Interpersonal Therapy
66) The great advantage of SSRIs compared with earlier antidepressant drugs is that they	have fewer side effects.
67) Among all the symptoms found in somatization disorder, pseudoseizures are	highly uncommon.
Chapter Five
68) Which of the following is the most commonly diagnosed somatoform disorder?	Undifferentiated
69) Individuals with body dysmorphic disorder	have an exaggerated sense of deformity in one feature.
70) Body dysmorphic disorder in adolescence	leads to higher suicide rates.
71) According to proponents of dissociative identity disorder, a failure of	normal personality development may cause the onset of the illness.
72) Select the statement that is TRUE of the relationship between severe childhood trauma and dissociative identity disorder.	There is a positive correlation.
73) The major distinction between dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue is that with dissociative fugue only	travel.
74) The diagnosis of dissociate identity disorder may depend on the	therapist beliefs.
75) Cognitive-behavioral therapy approaches the treatment of dissociative disorders by assuming that	misinterpret their symptoms.
76) Factitious disorders differ from somatoform and dissociative disorders in the that former	produces intentional symptoms.
77) One way to discriminate a factitious disorder from malingering would be to look for	personal gain.
Chapter Seven
78) Clinicians use the	BMI in determining the weight status of their clients
79) A particularly perplexing clinical feather of anorexia nervosa is the	intense fear of gaining weight though severely underweight.
80) An official diagnosis of anorexia nervosa requires 3 consecutive months of	amenorrhea.
81) Psychological features often associated with anorexia nervosa include	depression.
82) The most important personality trait found to be predictive of anorexia nervosa is	perfectionism.
83) The most important personality trait found to be predictive of bulimia nervosa is	impulsivity.
84) Key symptoms of bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a feeling of being “out of control” during binge episodes, and	compensatory behaviors.
85) Unlike overeating too much of a favorite food, people with bulimia nervosa	feel out of control.
86) Which of the following is TRUE of both anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa?	Both can include compensatory behaviors.
87) A compensatory behavior may be defined as	anything that expels caloric intake.
88) Compared with anorexia nervosa patients, persons diagnosed with bulimia nervosa have	normal to overweight BMIs.
89) Eating much more rapidly than normal is a key feature of which disorder listed below	binge eating disorder.
90) What structural brain abnormalities have researchers discovered in patients with anorexia nervosa when they are ill?	Reduced gray matter
91) Relatives of persons with anorexia or bulimia have an increased risk for eating disorders	10 times that of persons with no familial history of these disorders.
Chapter Eight
92) Until about 25 years ago, a homosexual orientation	was a psychological disorder.
93) There are sex differences in the strength of same-sex attraction, such that	men are more likely to be exclusively homosexual than women are.
94) Gender identity is a concept	of who you believe yourself to be.
95) Gender identity disorder is characterized by a strong and persistent cross-gender identification and	desire to be the opposite sex.
96) An extreme dislike to and avoidance of all (or almost all) genital contact with a partner is termed	sexual aversion.
97) Transvestic fetishism is the desire to dress in clothes of the opposite sex for sexual gratification. This disorder is	present in straight men.
98) The most common age of onset for all paraphilias is?	Adolescence
99) The most common pedophilic acts are	touching and fondling.
Chapter Nine
100) According to your text, substance use is defined as	moderate substance intake.
101) Substance abuse as a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis may include all of the following associated behaviors except	(withdrawal or tolerance).
102) Substance dependence involves the two characteristic features of	withdrawal and tolerance.
103) Worldwide, the most commonly used drug is	caffeine.
104) A prime factor in nicotine’s highly addictive potential is (are)	immediate effect on pleasure sensors.
105) According to your text, what percent of smokers that attempt to quit smoking will achieve sustained abstinence after 1 year?	2%
106) Alcohol is a	depressant.
107) Signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal include all of the following except	delusions.
108) Despite affecting many neurotransmitters, alcohol has a particularly powerful effect on the neurotransmitter	GABA.
109) THC is the active ingredient in marijuana. It produces a sense of euphoria by stimulating	canabinoid receptors.
110) Cocaine produces its euphoric effect by its impact on which neurotransmitter	dopamine.
111) The treatment model for substance abuse that encourages the patient to evaluate how their substance abuse interferes with their life goals and values is	motivation-enhancement therapy.
Chapter Ten
112) Psychotic disorders are characterized by unusual thinking, distorted perceptions, and	odd behaviors.
113) The 3 symptom categories in schizophrenia are	positive symptoms, negative symptoms, and cognitive impairments.
114) Positive symptoms of schizophrenia refer to the	symptoms that exist in people with disorder that do not with unaffected people.
115) Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the follow except	psychomotor retardation.
116) Negative symptoms of schizophrenia refer to the	symptoms that do not exist in those with schizophrenia that do with unaffected people.
117) Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following except	delusions.
118) One symptom of schizophrenia is the ability to be “posed” in a certain position by another person and remain in that position until “reposed.” This symptom is called	waxy flexibility.
119) Of the following schizophrenia subtypes, which is characterized by only the presence of negative symptoms or previous positive symptoms that have lessened in severity or frequency?	Residual
120) Except for the length of the disorder and the degree of functional impairment, schizophrenia and	schizophreniform have the same symptomatology
121) In	schizoaffective disorder, patients exhibit symptoms of both schizophrenia and mood disorders.
122) Excessive amounts of	dopamine in the limbic area are thought to be one of the contributing factors in the development of the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
123) Genetically speaking, if both parents are diagnosed with schizophrenia, there is a	50% chance of their child also developing the disorder
124) The two structural brain abnormalities that are consistently found in individuals with schizophrenia are	enlarged ventricles and reduced gray matter.
125) MRI studies have demonstrated that changes in ventricle size and gray matter quantity among people with schizophrenia	occur before the onset of illness.
126) Prenatal exposure to the	influenza virus is thought to be a contributing factor in the development of schizophrenia
127) The term “expressed emotion” is used to describe the	emotional involvement and attitudes found among family members of persons with schizophrenic disorder
128) The treatment of choice for schizophrenia is typically	pharmacological.
129) Antipsychotic medications work by blocking	dopamine receptors.
130) A serious side effect associated with typical or first generation antipsychotic medications is a neurological condition characterized by abnormal and involuntary movements. This condition is called tardive dyskinesia.
131) A noninvasive technique has been developed to treat the symptoms of several psychiatric disorders, including schizophrenia. This treatment, which stimulates neurons in specific brain regions with a magnetic current, is called	TMS.
132) When medication is not entirely effective in treating psychotic symptoms, it may be supplemented with	CBT.
Chapter Eleven
133) The three Ps that are used to differentiate personality disorders from other psychological disorders include all of the following except	paranoid. (3 Ps: persistent, pervasive, and pathological)
134) The behaviors that are characteristic of Cluster A personality disorders are described as	odd or eccentric.
135) The behaviors that are characteristic of Cluster B personality disorders are described as	dramatic, emotional, or erratic.
136) The behaviors that are characteristic of Cluster C personality disorders are described as	anxious or fearful.
137) Which symptom differentiates paranoid schizophrenia from paranoid personality disorder?	Bizarre delusions
138) Schizoid	personality disorder involves a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional expression in interpersonal settings.
139) Which personality disorder revolves around a pervasive distrust and suspiciousness of others, including family members and friends?	Paranoid
140) Antisocial	personality disorder is a pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others.
141) The personality disorder that includes a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits marked by acute discomfort, reduced capacity for close relationships, cognitive or personal distortions, and behavioral eccentricities is called	schizotypal personality disorder.
142) Histrionic	personality disorder is a pervasive pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking.
143) Which personality disorder is marked by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration from others, and lack of empathy?	Narcissistic
144) When a patient’s symptoms include a pervasive pattern of unstable interpersonal relationships, self-image, affect, and impulsivity, the mostly likely personality disorder diagnosis is	borderline personality disorder.
145) Avoidant	personality disorder is a pervasive pattern of social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitity to negative evaluation
146) A pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control at the expense of flexibility, openness, and efficiency differentiates	obsessive-compulsive personality disorder from the other personality disorders
147) Which personality disorder is marked by a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, which leads to submissive and clinging behavior and fears of separation?	Dependent
148) In order for antisocial personality disorder to be diagnosed, the patient must be at least	18 years old with symptoms of conduct disorder before age 15.
149) The five dimensions of the Five Factor Model of personality include neuroticism, conscientiousness, agreeableness, openness, and	extraversion.
150) Functional impairments in personality disorders are most often seen in what area?	Social relationships.

Abnormal Psych Fin

Abnormal Psychology final

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