PTCB studyfrom quizlet
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| If you have 25% dextrose and 10% dextrose, how many ml of each would you need to make 1000ml of a 20% solution? | 667ml of 25% and 333ml of 10%
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| An IV has been ordered to run at 2.5gtts/min. The IV contains 875mg of Amoxicillin in a total of 250ml. How many mg of Amoxicillin will be given to the patient per hour if the IV is set to deliver 15gtts/ml? | 35mg/hr
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| What is the term for the process by which substances are taken up and transported to the bloodstream? | Absorption
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| If a prescription calls for 375mg of penicillin per day for 10 days how much of a 250mg/5ml suspension should be dispensed? | 75ml
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| The expiration date on a bottle of Vicodin is 5/99. When does this drug expire? | 5/31/99
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| What is the sig code for every night at bedtime? | qhs
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| The directions for a medication read, "i-ii gtts as q 4 h x 10 days". What is the meaning of "as"? | left ear
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| The doctor prescribes Robitussin AC, one pint. How many mls are needed for one pint? | 480ml
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| A prescription reads "ii gtts au qid." What auxillary label should be affixed to the container? | for the ear
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| Pseudoephidrine is contrandicated with which of the following? | high blood pressure
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| If the dose for Quaifenesin is 2.5ml, how many doses will a patient receive if given a 12 ounce bottle? | 144
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| What does enteric coated mean? | special coating to prevent dissolution is stomach
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| The dose of Penicillin V for a 7 year old is 35mg/kg/day, divided into doses every 6 hours. How many mg/day should a 60lb child receive? | 954mg/day
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| How many 1 ounce bottles of Cheratussin can be made from a 3 liter container of Cheratussin? | 100
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| A phamacy receives a Cardinal Invoice reading "$6,000, net 30." Under those payment terms the pharmacy will be charged... | No interest if paid in full within 30 days
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| Phenytoin, Carbamazepine and Phenobarbital are all ____________. | anticonvulsants that may be used to treat generalized seisures.
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| Formula for testing DEA #'s authenticity. | 1st+3rd+5th numbers= A 2nd+4th+6th #'s x2=B the add together A+B. Thelast numbershould be the last number of the DEA number.
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| Isoptin, Cardizem and Vascor are all _________________. (class) | examples of Calcium Channel Blockers
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| If you pay $35 for Verapamil and the selling price is $50, what is the markup for the drug? | $15.00
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| If you pay $35 for Verapamil and the selling price is $50, what is the percentage markup based on cost? | 43%
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| If you pay $35 for Verapamil and the selling price is $50, what is the percent gross profit? | 30%
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| The initial dose of Rebif is 0.7mg/kg/hr for 12 hours. How many ml of Rebif IV solution containing 400mg/ml would be needed for an adult male weighing 154lbs during this 12 hour period? | 147ml
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| Some rules pertaining to Nitroglycerin tablets are as follows... | needs to be stored at room temperature, sublingual tablets need to be dispensed in original glass containers and must be replaced after 6 months of opening.
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| The appearance of crystals in a mannitol injection would indicate that the product ___________. | was exposed to excessive cold.
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| Antacids, milk and Tetracycline can all __________________. | interfere with the absorption of iron.
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| Pseudoephedrine is classifed as a ____________. | decongestant
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| 66lbs is equal to __kg. | 30
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| Insulin should be stored _____________. | in the refrigerator.
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| In what ratio should 50% alcohol be mixed with 10% alcohol to obtain a 30% alcohol solution? | 1:1
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| If a vial of heparin contains 20,000U/ml, how many ml are needed for a 12,500U dose? | 0.625ml
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| Accutane, Premarin and Proventil | do not require a PPI each time they're dispensed.
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| Which drug is used to prevent pregnant women with HIV from passing the virus to their babies? | Zidovudine
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| How many ounces would you be dispensing for a prescription requiring 180ml? | 6
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| A _____________ drug recall indicates that the product will cause serious adverse health conditions or death. | class I
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| Storage requirements after reconstitution for ceclor 125mg5ml. | 2
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| A product's NDC number is grouped into three sections. The first five digits identify... | drug manufacturer
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| The preferred method for treating flu and fever in children is ____________. | acetaminophen
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| After turning off the laminar flow hood, how long must it be turned back on before use? | 30 minutes.
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| Amiloride, Spironolactone and Triamterene are all _______________. | potassium sparing diuretics.
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| if a D5W/.45% NS 1000ml solution is administered over 6 hours, how many ml/hr would you need to set the flow rate for? | 167ml/hr
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| The study of the rates at which drugs and their metabolites are absorbed into, distributed through and eliminated from the body. | Pharmacokinetics
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| 1 grain is equal to ___ mg. | 65
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| A patient weighing 110lbs is ordered to recieve 5mcg/kg/min of an iv solution containing 600mg in 250ml D5W. The IV dose rate is ________. | 0.25mg/min
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| A drug is available in a concentration of 50mg/10ml. How many ml are needed for a 3mg dose. | 0.6ml
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| A major source of contamination in a clean room is ___________. | the people in the room.
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| A compound prescription requires using 10 Tetracycline capsules which cost $25 per 50 capsules and 100 gr of Triamcinolone ointment which costs $9 per pound. If there is a $4 dispensing fee what would the total cost be for this prescription? | $10.89
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| What is the appropriate size HEPA filter used in a laminar flow hood? | 22 micron
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| An acetaminophen elixer is available in a 0.05mg/ml concentration. How many mls are needed for a 0.125mg dose? | 2.5ml
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| How much 90% alcohol must be mixed with 10% alcohol to make 473ml of a 40% alcohol solution? | 177ml of 90% and 296ml of 10%
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| Heparin 25,000U in 250 ml D5W is running through an administration set delivering 60gtts/ml. What is the flow rate required to deliver 15U/min? | 9gtts/min
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| A common side effect of diuretic therapy is _____________. | loss of potassium
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| A side effect of polonged use of a topical decongestant could be ___________________. | rebound congestion.
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| If 15g of a 1% Hydrocortisone ointment is combined with 30g of a 2.5% Hydrocortisone ointment, what is the resulting percentage strength of the final product? | 2%
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| How much water should be added 95% ethanol to make 1 liter of a 30% ethanol solution? | 685ml
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| A doctor orders 125mg/5ml Dilantin suspension to replace an order that reads "Dilantin 100mg, dispense #30, SIG: i tid." What quantity of the suspension should be dispensed? | 120ml
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| How many tablets containing 250mg of Penicillin are needed to make 150ml suspension containing 100mg/ml? | 60
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| A prescription for Coumadin 7.5mg reads "ii ts po bid x 3 days, ii ts po qd x 3 days, i t po qd x 2 days" How many tablets should be dispensed? | 20
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| The process that moves a drug from the bloodstream to the area where it will exert its pharmacological effect is called what? | Distribution
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| When cleaning a laminar flow hood, this is the method that should be used. | Side to side from back to front.
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| Bumex, Dyazide and Lasix are classifed as _____________. | diuretics.
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| When preparing an IV solution is a laminar flow hood the technician should work at least this distance within the hood. | at least 6 inches
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| Codeine, Percocet and Demerol are all classified as what? | narcotic analgesics
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| Destromethorphan is classified as what? | Antitussive
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| This is the process of reducing solids into fine particles by rubbing them with a mortar and pestle. It is used to reduce the size of particles and to blend powders. | Trituration
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| Lanoxin would be classified into which category? | Antiarrythmic
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| If a pharmacist asks a technician to repack bulk solid dosage forms into unit dose packs, what expiration date should appear on the label? | 50% of original up to 1 year
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| What dosage form is designed to dissolve in the intestines rather than the stomach? | enteric coated tablets
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| Phenergan suppositores should be stored where? | refrigerator
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| When a vitamin is water soluble it means ______. | it will not accumulate in the body.
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| Calcium Carbonate is classified as a/an ____________. | antacid
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| Therapeutic equivalance means drugs are ________________________. | categorized in same therapeutic class and produce the same therapeutic effect
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| When cleaning a laminar flow hood which solution should be used? | isopropyl alcohol.
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| If the doctor ordered 100mg Dilantin qid, what's the total daily dose the patient will receive? | 400mg
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| Alpha and beta blockers and diuretics are all used to treat what? | hypertension
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| What classification best describes Fenoprofen, Ketoprofen and Ibuprofen? | NSAID
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| Regulates drug quality. | FDA
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| Codiene and Oxycodone are both classified as _______________ drugs. | Shedule II
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| The SIG code PRN means what? | as needed
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| Suprax suspension is available in 75mg/5ml. If a prescription calls for 300mg of Suprax, how many mls need to be dispensed? | 20ml
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| If a blood pressure monitor was found to cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences which type of recall would this be classified as? | Class II
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| The directions for use of Hyoscamine read "i-ii sl prn" what does "sl" mean? | sublingually
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| If Procrit is available in a 0.1mg.ml concentration, how many mls are needed for a 50mcg dose? | 0.5ml
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| Biaxin, Cefzil and Zithromax are all classified as what? | antibiotics
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| A drug that induces insensibility and relieves pain but is also addicting would be what? | Narcotic
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| Grain | gr
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| What medication may be given to induce vomiting? | ipecac syrup
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| An agent that promotes the discharge of mucus from the respiratory tract is called what? | Expectorant
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| Astemizole, Fexofenadine and Loratidine would all fit into this classification. | Antihistamine
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| age in years/ (age in years + 12) x adult dose= childs dose | Young's Rule for Child's Dosing
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| weight/150 x adult dose = childs dose | Clark's Rule for Child's Dosing
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| The movement of particles in a solution through permeaable membranes is called what? | dialysis
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| Why is Heparin used in a herarin lock? | keep blood from clotting in the device
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| _________ discovered penicillin could kill some bacteria. | Fleming
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| This defined what drugs require a prescription. | 1951 Durham Humphrey
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| This prohibited interstate commerce in adulterated and misbranded food, drinks and drugs. | Food and Drug Act of 1906
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| This came into effect because of fatal poisoning from liquid sulfanilamide, it required new drugs to be shown to be safe before marketing. | 1938 Food Drug and Cosmetic Act
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| The DEA is located within this branch of the US Government. | Justice Department
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| The manufacturer must follow _________ requirements to be able to market their drug without FDA new drug approval. | monograph
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| Responsible for pharmacist licensing in each state. | state board of Pharmacy.
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| During clinical trials a propsed drug is called what? | IND (Investigational New Drug)
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| This requires drug manufacturers to provide proof of safety and efficacy. | Kefauver Harris
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| An example of a trade journal would be this. | Pharmacy Times
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| This is an encyclopedic source of chemical substance data. | The Merck Index
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| This is the most comprehensive text covering pharmaceutical sciences. | Remington, The Sceince and Practice of Pharmacy
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| The drug manufacturer assigns this to each drug it produces. | NDC
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| This provides comprehensive and timely drug information about prescriptions and OTC products. | Drug Facts and Comparisons
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| This is published by the ASHP (American Society of Health systems Pharmacists). | Model Curriculum for Pharmacy Technician Traning
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| This provides national recognized AWP's and NDC's for FDA approved drugs. | The Red Book
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| __________ literature contains condensed works based on primary literature such as textbooks and monographs. | Tertiary
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| HIPAA, Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act contains regulations related to what? | Protected Health Information (PHI)
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| both ears | au
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| both eyes | ou
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| left ear | as
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| right ear | ad
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| left eye | os
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| right eye | od
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| In managed care, care is managed by who? | insurer
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| CPhTs need _____ of continuing education ever ____ years to renew certification. | 20 hours, 2 years
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| This protects against illegal copying of new discoveries. | patenting
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| The death of cells is referred to as what? | Necrosis
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| This is the blood concentration needed to produce a response. | minimum effective concentration
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| the stomach's pH is around ____. | 1
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| This type of reaction can occur the first time a drug is given to a patient. | Idosyncratic
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| This can occur when two drugs with similar pharmacological effects produce greater effects when taken together. | Synergism
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| This can occur when two drugs with similar pharmacological actions reults in an effect equal to the sum of their individual effects. | Additive effects
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| Children between the ages of 1 and 12 metabolize certain drugs more _________ than adults. | rapidly
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| This protects people from unsanitary and poorly labled food. | Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906
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| This calls for classification, safety and efficacy of medical devices. | Medical Device Amendment of 1976
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| Passed for drugs that treat diseases that affect very few people to help with tax relief and other incentives for manufactures to develp and market such drugs. | Orphan Drug Act of 1983
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| What are the two main parts of a syringe? | barrel and plunger
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| To maintain sterility these parts of the syringe should not be touched. | tip and plunger
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| What are the two main parts of a needle? | bevel and hub
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| This is the part of the needle that connects to the syringe. | hub
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| What kind of compounds liquefy when they're brought together? | eutectic
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| Medication carts commonly provide how many hours of medication for specific patients? | 24
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| A patient is taking three 100mg capsules of phenytoin (Dilantin) each day. How much Phenytoin would the patient take in 20 days? | 6000mg
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| Verapamil is classified as what? | Calcium Channel blocker
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| What is a medication type used to relieve a dry hacking cough called? | Expectorant
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| After reconstituion, Ceclor 123mg/5ml should be __________. | refrigerated
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| Intraocular, intranasal and vaginal are all examples of what? | parenteral routes
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| The amount of a drug that is available to the site of action and the rate at which it is available is known as what? | bioavailability
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| The rate at which the solution is administered to the patient. | flow rate
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| The slow continuous introduction of a solution into the blood stream. | infusion
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| A small volume solution added to an LVP (Large volume parenteral) | piggyback
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| Wearing a gown, wearing gloves and swabbing the vial with alcohol are all examples of what? | proper aseptic techniques
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| This type of drug has no accepted medical use in the United States. | Schedule I
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| According to federal law, in the event of suspected theft of a Shedule II medication the pharmacy is required to notify who? | DEA and State Board of Pharmacy
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| This should be avoided in patients who are allergic to Cefaclor (Ceclor). | Cephalexin (Keflex)
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| This should be recommended by the pharmacist to treat simple headache in patients who are taking naproxen for inflammation. | Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
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| The area of the hospital responsible for distributing supplies to all areas of the facility is called what? | central supply or materials management
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| Stock such as large volume parenterals stored on a nursing unit that does not require specific labeling is called what? | floor stock
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| Consists of doctors, pharmacists, nurses and other health care professionals whose responsibilites inclue reviewing medications for the formulary and providing guidlines for medication use throughout the institution. | Pharmacy and Therapuetics Committee
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| A sudden condition requiring immediate treatment is called a/an ______ condition. | acute
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| kg x 2.2 = lb or lb/2.2 = kg | weight conversion
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| This includes state identification numbers and affiliations with facilities and insurers. | prescriber profile
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| The pharmacuetical manufacturing industry devotes about ___ of its income to research and development. | 1/6
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| The length of time from the beginning of development of a new drug to FDA approval is often more than __ years. | 10 yrs
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| An authoritive listing of drugs and issues related to their use is called what? | pharmacopeia
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| The Egyptian God of Medicine | Imhotep
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| The ancient Greek Goddess of Medicinal Herbs. | Panacea
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| Who provides inventory management systems to their customers as part of their service? | Wholesalers
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| Identified the structures of DNA. | Watson and Crick
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| Substances produced by the body to regulated bodily functions and processes. | Hormones
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| How many phases of testing in humans does the FDA require? | Three
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| The inactive substance given in place of a medication in clinical trials is called what? | placebo
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| Two drugs that have the same active ingredients, same dossage form, same route of administration and same strength are said to be what? | Pharmacuetically equivalent
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| _______ are listed in the weekly FDA Enforcement Report. | Recalls
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| Literature that contains general reference works based upon primary literature. | Secondary
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| Last set of numbers in the NDC indicate what? | package size
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| Second set of numbers in the NDC indicate what? | drug
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| A complex protein that catalyzes chemical reactions into other substances. | enzyme
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| The placebo effect is called a ______ variable. | psychological
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| This is the pH of an alkaline substance. | 7
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| Nothing must interupt the flow of air between the ___________. | HEPA filter and a sterile object.
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| after meals | pc
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| add sufficient quanity | qsad
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| drop | gtt
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| micrograms | mcg
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| dextrose 5% water | D5W
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| elixir | elix
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| normal saline | NS
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| ointment | UNG
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| around the clock | ATC
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| 1/2, one | half
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| every morning | qam
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| every evening | qpm
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| every hour | qh
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| every day | qd
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| antibiotics | oxacin
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| local anesthetics | caine
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| penicillins | cillin
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| antipsychotics | peridol
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| antihyperlipidemics | vastatin
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| steroids | olone
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| diuretics | thiazide
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| tranquilizers | bamate
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| This required that all manufacturers, importers and physicians prescribing narcotics be licensed and taxed. | Harrison Narcotic Act of 1914
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| Requires pharmacists to offer counseling to Medicaid patients. | OBRA (1990 Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act)
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| Drugs that require a prescription are referred to as ______ drugs. | legend
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| This is the FDA reporting service for adverse effects that occur from use of approved drugs. | MedWatch
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| Red blood cells that trasport oxygen from the lungs to the body and carbon dioxidefrom the cells to the lungs. | Erthrocytes
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| White blood cells that fight bacterial infections by producing antibodies. | Leukocytes
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| liver | hepa
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| blood | hemat
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| muscle | myo
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| increase | osis
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| inflammation | itis
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| pain | algia
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| tumor | oma
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| skin | derma
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| breast | mast
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| stomach | gastr
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| nerve | neur
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| kidney | neph, ren
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| bladder | cyst
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| lung | pulmon, pneum
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| condition of | osis
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| pertaining to | ary
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| chest | pect, pector
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| around | para
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| nose | nas
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| high | hyper
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| low | hypo
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| eye | ocul, ophthalm
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| ear | otic, ot
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| fungal infection | mycosis
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| study of | ology
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| eyelid | blephar
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| equal | iso
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| beyond, after, changing | meta
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| disease | pathy
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| relieves heart pain | antianginal
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| dissolves or prevents blood clots | anticoagulant
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| relieves intestinal cramping | antispasmodic
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| prevents nausea and vomiting | antiemetic
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| prevents and relieves itching | antipruritic
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| lowers high cholesterol levels | antihyperlipidemic
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| destroys hard skin layers such as warts | keratolytics
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| changes mental state | pyschotropic
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| Insulins, estrogens and thyroid medications are all examples of this drug classification. | hormones and modifiers
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| Antihistamines, decongestants, antitussives and bronchodilators are all classifications of drugs used to treat disorders related to this system of the body. | Respitory
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| Sedatives are drugs that are intended to relax and calm. Antianxiety medications such as diazepam and chlordazepoxide are included in this group. | Benzodiazepines
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| A decrease in hemoglobin or red blood cells. Hematopoietics are drugs that would be used to treat this condition. | anemia
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| ACE inhibitors | pril drugs (i.e Verapamil, Quinapril, Lisinopril)
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| Classification of drugs that act to increase blood pressure. | vasopressors
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| albuterol hfa inhalers | proventil and/or proair
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