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NBME (all) Review

        Help!  

Question
Answer
Polio   CSF=Lymphocytic Pleocytosis  
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MS   oligonal bands on electophoresis  
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ALS (Lou Gherig's Disease)   defect of superoxide dismutase 1  
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EBV   china kissing monoclonal carcinoma of the nasopharynx  
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Internal Iliac   branch ligation required to control heavy vaginal bleeding  
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Streptococcus Pneumoniae   prophylaxis required if pt has a splenctomy  
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Locked-in Syndrome   basilar artery  
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Inhaled glue   "pt not themself" confusion, clumsiness, frequent falls ataxic gait  
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Xanthoma/ Achielles Tendon   absence of functional LDL receptors in hepatocytes  
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Middle Meningeal Artery   pupils 4 mm in diameter and not reactive to light; due to trauma in temporal area  
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Activation of Adenylyl Cyclase Toxin   stool shows gram negative, comma-shaped bacteria (Vibrio Cholerae)  
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Alveolar Macrophage HALLMARK   shipyard workers  
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NSAIDs use in hypertensive pt with bilateral renal artery stenosis   vasodilating prostaglandins at the afferent arteriole  
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Calcitonin   marker to monitor for thyroid neoplasm  
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Aortic Stenosis   cardiac valve defect and concentric left ventricular hypertrophy (systolic murmur)  
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MS   Charcot's Triad  
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Aldoesterone-secreting Adrenal Adenoma   decreased plasma renin activity  
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Malignant Hyperthermia   decreases release of Ca+ from the SR  
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9mo. old Baby   pincer grasp finger feeding standing while holding onto a table playing peek-a-boo  
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Leptin   suppresses appetite by its action in the CNS  
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21-Hydroxylase   female; facial hair chest hair clitoromegaly normal uterus increased concentrations of 17-hydroxyprogesterone and androstenedione  
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Trypanosoma Cruzi   brazil organism (think cruziero soccer)  
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Resolution of Pneumococcal Pneumonia   metaplasia of mesenchymal cells to pneumocytes  
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Interstitial Pulmonary Fibrosis   Increased radial traction on airways  
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Early Septic Shock Rx   IV 1 liter of isotonic saline (clean the blood)  
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Dissecting Aneurysm X-ray   widened aortic arch  
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Ascites Rx in addition to loop diuretics   spironlactone  
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Randomized clinical trial   subjects assigned by coin toss to one of two groups  
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Tumor Necrosis Factor   antibodies directed against in monocolonal antibody preparation  
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Ezetimibe MOA   cholesterol decreasing drug inhibiting the transport of cholesterol through the intestinal wall  
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DVT Rx   potentiates the action of antithrombin III  
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First Degree Burn   severe erythema of back and extremities NO BLISTERS  
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Osteomyelitis   predominance of neutrophils persistent FOOT PAIN  
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Alendronate MOA   inhibition of osteoclast-mediation bone resorption  
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Vagus Nerve   protude the tongue and say "Ah"  
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GI Blood Loss labs   Hemoglobin: 9.5g/dL Leukocyte: 5400 Platelets: 350,000  
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Left Achilles Tendon Reflex   strong with lower extremity is immobilized in a cast  
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Loperamide   opioid antidiarrheal agent with little CNS effect  
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IgM   antibody isotype most likely causing agglutination; the isotype in anemia  
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Nephrolithiasis (Kidney Stones)   can occur due to gout  
🗑
Major Depressive Disorder   low energy; irritability; crying spells; difficulty falling asleep; waking up frequently at night  
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Proliferative Endometrial Tissue seen in   biopsy of ovarian cyst and/or peritoneal cyst  
🗑
5a-reductase gene mutation   labia majora would develop into scrotum  
🗑
Parietal cell absence   after gastrectomy  
🗑
Rosacea   erythema over nose, cheeks, and scattered telangiectasia and a few papules  
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Pelvic Splanchnic Nerve Dysfunction Sx   constipation abdominal distension  
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Listeria MonOCYTOgenes   gram positive rod fever, chills, and muscle aches can occur in pregnant women  
🗑
Ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis and dilated ureters   increased hydrostatic pressure in bowman space leading to renal failure  
🗑
AflAtoxin   china peanut farmer  
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Delirium   pt is confused by everything and is known to not behave in such a manner at home  
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Bronzing of Skin   increased intestinal iron absorption  
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Inferior Rectal Artery   15-mm, blue-tinged, rounded mass at the anal margin  
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Newborn with absence of bowel gas in abdomen   incomplete formation of pleuroperitoneal membrane  
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Dynein arms   absent in epithelium in pts. with Kartagener Syndrome (Cystic Fibrosis)  
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Metastatic Tumor to Cerebellum   ataxia of the left upper and lower extremities  
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Vitamin B12 Deficiency   spasticity in arm and legs impaired proprioception in feet increased muscle stretch reflexes in arms and knees absence of muscle stretch reflexes in ankles bilateral extensor plantar responses  
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Farmer with 7-mm red scaly plaque on the helical rim of left ear   actinic keratosis  
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Tick Bite in Farmer Rx   doxycycline  
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Renal Cell Adenocarcinoma   hypervascular mass 12-cm solid mass on kidney Sx include flank pain gross hemateuria  
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Physician response to pt.'s Rx noncompliance   "using something twice daily can be difficult. I assume you are like most patients who miss at least 10% of treatments"  
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Sacroiliac Joint Inflammation sx   lower back pain with stiffness stiffness when sat for prolonged periods of time pain radiates down to buttocks  
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Ringing of Ears sx   salicylate/ asprin poisioning  
🗑
Ulcers Rx   sulfasalazine  
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Ubiquitin Ligase MOA   promotes cell growth and malignancy by causing cellular p53 protein degradation  
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Trophoblastic tissue   necrotic intrauterine mass and metastatic nodule in the lungs  
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Bilateral Bell's Palsy   adverse effect of: Lyme Disease and Guillan-Barre  
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Nephroblastoma sx   congenitial urethral obstruction; marked dilation of ureters and renal pelvis minimal renal function  
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Thyroidectomy Consequences   decreased PTH decreased Calcium parenthesis of hands and feet  
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Pudendal Nerve Block   Ischial spine injection with lidocaine alternative to epidural in labor  
🗑
Increased JVP and mild ankle edema   increased capillary hydrostatic pressure  
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Tricuspid Valve   2/6 holosystolic murmur, left fifth intercoastal space ajacent to sternum and increases with inspiration  
🗑
Camping Trip results in itchy rash in arms and legs   activation of T lymphocytes  
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CMV infevction sx   petechial RASH, microcephaly, and HEPATOSPLENOMEGALY  
🗑
Puberty begins when   breast buds develop  
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Hyperthyroidism sx   thyroid antibodies  
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HSV sx in Males   broken blisters and open sores on penis  
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Beta-Thalassemia   disruption of normal splicing by creation of a new 3' splice site mutation from G --> A at position 355  
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Post Par-tum Depression Rx   SSRI  
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Fibrinous Pericarditis sx   pericardial friction rub after acute myocardial infarction  
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Cervical Biopsy in Microinvasive Cervical Carcinoma   neoplastic cells in sub-basement membrane connective tissue  
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Increased amniotic fluid volume   tracheoesophageal atresia  
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IL-8 responsibility   recruitment of neutrophils to inflammatory site  
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Warfarin MOA   VII (proconvertin) clotting factor first to be decreased by 50% after initiation of therapy  
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Ectopic Pregnancy   vaginal bleeding direct and rebound tenderness with guarding b-hCG elevated closed cervical os  
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Overdose of Triiodothyronine in Primary Hypothyroidism   decreased TSH, Free Throyxine Increased Free Triiodothyronine  
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Cocaine Users   predisposition to myocardial ischemia  
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The binding site and action of hCG that causes gynecomastia   testicle; produces estradiol  
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Strings of Beads HALLMARK   fibromuscular dysplasia  
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Bacterial sx are a result of systemic release of   IL-1 and TNF-alpa  
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Clostridium Difficle toxin   intestinal tract will contain pseudomembranes of fibrin and inflammatory debris  
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Lost in Menopause   ovarian secretion of 17beta-estradiol  
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PTT prolongation   defect in factor 8 (VIII) antihemophilic factor  
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Organs glucose produced in   liver + kidney  
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Elderly pulmonary function   increased residual volume and alveolar-arterial Po2 difference decreased arterial Po2  
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Methylamphetamine (street drug Meth) MOA   increased release of dopamine and norepinephrine  
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Asthmatic Pt. with Pollen Allergy Rx   Albuterol (acute resolution)  
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Ibutilide Adverse Effect   Torsades de Pointes  
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Mallory Hyaline in biopsy seen in   alcoholic hepatitis  
🗑
The right eye does not adduct past the midline on horizontal gaze when looking to the left indicates a lesion involving   abducens nerve  
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The persistence of leukocytosis in the absence of infection indicates impairment in   leukocyte adhesion and transmigration  
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Urethral Prolapse   seen in elderly women with vulvar itching that has not resolved with treatment physical examination with show atrophy and thinning of labia minora  
🗑
Rx inhibiting 30s ribosome binding   gentamicin (class of aminoglycoside)  
🗑
H. Influenzae Type B Vaccine   T-independent antigens to T-dependent forms to enhance protection  
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Condition causing ANEMIA and SPLEEN to increase 5x it's normal size   Hereditary Spherocytosis  
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Antihypertensive causing descreased serum potassium concentration   hydrocholorthiazide  
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1,25-Dihydroxycholecaciferol   active form of vitamin D  
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Calcified 80% Stenois can occur in   pts who smoke, are hypertensive and experience continued extertional chest pain that is relieved by rest  
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Sepsis Rx   0.9% Saline  
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Indication for a Pacemaker   third-degree atrioventricular block, hypotension and variable intensity S1  
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Erectile dysfunction Rx MOA   inhibition of phosphodiesterase (PDE5 inhibitor)  
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Autoantibody with affinity for acetylcholine receptor seen in   myasthenia gravis  
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Physician answer to pt inquiry on whether weight gain is hereditary   "Yes, your weight gain can be caused by genes and enviromental factors"  
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Alcoholic Liver Disease adverse effect   gynecomastia  
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Surgical intervention shows half of the small intestine is found to have a dark purple-red hemorrhagic appearance   Mesenteric venous thrombosis  
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Epinephrine   stimulates hormone-sensitive lipase in adipocytes that resulted in the accumulation of metabolites  
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Systemic Amyloid   renal biopsy will show beta-pleated sheet structure  
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Defective Heme Synthesis   porphyria; ALA rate limiting enzyme  
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Rx for Urinary Urgency   inhibit of muscarinic receptors  
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Naloxone   antidote for NARCOTIC OVERDOSE in an emergency situation  
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Tardive Dyskinesia   grimaces rigid jerking purposeless movements of fingers  
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Osteogenesis Imperfecta   type 1 collagen  
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Cyclosporine MOA in transplant patients   suppresses early response of T lymphocytes to activation  
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Schizoid Disorder   condition in which pt. avoid interacting with others and social activities in addition to being cold and detached  
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First Generalized Tonic-Clonic Seizure occurs from abnormality in   CalCium  
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Loraradine Rx used to treat   allergies; runny nose, itchy and watery eyes  
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Physiological changes when in water of 60F for 20 mins   increased ADH and ANP decreased central blood volume  
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Sepsis after abortion causation   decreased plasma fibrinogen concentration  
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Physician response when pt claims diagnosis is bad news   "Yes, it is"  
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Diagnosing possible defect in fatty acid oxidation   measurement of serum amino acid concentrations  
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Myocardinal infarction (CK-MB; troponin) markers result from   protease inactivation by cytoplasmic free calcium ions  
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Neurofibromatosis Type 1   autosomal dominant  
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Chandelier Sign (cervical motion tenderness)   gonorrhea, PID, or ectopic pregnancy dx  
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Physician response to pt in denial   "It must be difficult for you to ACCEPT this diagnosis when you feel healthy"  
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Criteria for informed consent   family agreement, competence, and cost  
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Renal stone composition when urine analysis pH is 8   struvite  
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Cellular production in second-degree burn precipitated by which component   C5a; produced increased fibroblast migration and proliferation, increased synthesis of collagen and fibronectin, and decreased degradation of extracellular matrix by metalloproteinases  
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Damage to right subthalamic   Hemiballisum; uncontrollable irregular movements of the LEFT side of the body  
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Damage to posterior pituitary gland   progressive thirst and urinary frequency  
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Abnormality in 6 week old baby vomitting a small amount of milk 2 to 3 times a day   immature lower esophageal spinchter  
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Poxvirus sx   firm, smooth, umbilicated papules 2 to 4 mm in diameter in clusters  
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Bullous Pemphigoid results from   development of autoantibodies against desmosomal proteins  
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Bulimic patients will have enlargement of   parotid gland  
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HCO3- levels in advanced phase of COPD   increased urinary excretion  
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Most common benign tumor of connective tissue   myoxma  
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Dysphagia causing difficulty swallowing solids, dilated cardiomyopathy would be as a result of enlargement where   left atrium  
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Agent used to slow the DNA replication process of neoplastic cells in cancer patients   cyclophosphamide  
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Weakness of grasp is indicative of   rheumatoid arthritis  
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This casual virus replicates its genome within the cell's nucleus    
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Caspofungin MOA   beta-glucan carbohydrates in the cell wall  
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Stool analysis showing increased fat concentration indicative of deficiency in   Vitamin E  
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Physician response when pt. complains about tardiness   "I'm sorry I got delayed. I hope I haven't made you late somewhere else"  
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L3 to L4 herinations causes pain   down the distal anterior thigh knee medial leg and foot  
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Africa trip + Wright Stain dx   Malaria  
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Subclavian Central Catheter bacterial infection   Staph Aureus + Enterococcus Facalis  
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E-Coli Virulence Factor   Mannose-binding (type 1) fimbria  
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Pellagra   3 D's: dermatitis, dementia, and diarrhea (confusion, rash, and diarrhea) lack of NICOTINIC ACID or its precursor, TRYPTOPHAN in their diet  
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Hypertensive patient already on hydrocholorthiazide if not responding to Rx should be put on this ACE inhibitor   Lisinopril  
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Pt. experiencing proteinuria and elevated hemoglobin is likely to have which elevated marker?   Creatine Kinase  
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Vertebra region in the lower right quadrant about 5 cm superomedial to the anterosuperior iliac spine?   T10  
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Which area should be avoided during ablation to leave the sinoatrial (pacemaker) node intact in a pt.?   the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium  
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Marked increase in dopamine concentration when rising from a supine position to standing marks a deficiency of?   dopamine beta-hydroxylase  
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Most common bacterial infection from breast feeding   staphylcoccus aureus  
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Embryology: Syncytiotrophoblast secretes which hormone   hCG  
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Embryology: Trophoblast acquisitions energy from   mother  
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Embryology: Inner Cell mass will   establish order  
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Embryology: Progesterone maintains the endometrial lining to prevent   menstration  
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Embryology: Neural Crest derived from ECTODERM, but which layers make this even happen   notocord + mesoderm  
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Neural Crest derivatives   PNS, ear, eye adrenal gland, mouth, heart, digestive system, thyroid, and skin  
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Embryology: Germ layers serving as secondary energy reservoire   endodermal yolk sac  
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Embryology: Week 10   sex of fetus  
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Teratogenic Rx: Aminoglycosides   Ototoxicity  
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Teratogenic Rx: ACE inhibitors   renal malformations  
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Teratogenic Rx: Fluroquinolones   cartilage damage  
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Teratogenic Rx: Tetracyclines   discolored Teeth  
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Teratogenic Rx: Cyclophosphamide   facial anomalies, limb hypoplasia, absence of digits  
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Teratogenic Rx: Methotrexate   abortion, NTD  
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Teratogenic Rx: Carbamazipine   NTD  
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Teratogenic Rx: Valporic Acid   NTD  
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Teratogenic Rx: Phenytoin   fetal hydration syndrome  
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Teratogenic Rx: Lithium   ebsteins anomaly  
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Teratogenic Rx: Statins   cns and limb anomalies  
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Teratogenic Rx: Wafarin   facial/ limb/ CNS anomalies, spontaneous abortion  
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Teratogenic Rx: Diethylstilbestrol (DES)   clear cell vaginal adenocarcinoma  
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Teratogenic Rx: Thalidomide   phocomelia; rare congenital deformity in which the hands or feet are attached close to the trunk, the limbs being grossly underdeveloped or absent.  
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Teratogenic Rx: Isotretinoin   spontaneous abortion  
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Holoprosencephaly Consequence from   ethanol  
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Limb Hypoplasia Consequence from   thalidomide; cyclophosphamide  
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Homebox (HOX) Genes   blueprint for skeletal morphology (where things are supposed to go); code for transcription regulator  
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Mutation HOXD-13 genes will result in   synpolydactyly (fused 3rd and 4th digit)  
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4 chamber heart begins to develop at week   4  
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Most common cause of NTD   folate deficency  
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Most common cause of congenital malformations in the US   alcohol use in pregnancy  
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Most common cause of congenital intellectual disability in the US   fetal alcohol syndrome  
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Vitamin A excess during pregnancy will lead to a   cleft palate  
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COP-II functions in the cell cycle to help move products   from ER to cis-Golgi; anterograde trafficking  
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This helps transport hydrolase enzymes from trans-Golgi to lysosome   clathrin  
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Mannose-6-phosphate deficency results in   I-cell disease  
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Mitchondria acts as buffer to   calcium  
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Intermediate Filament Structures: Vimenten   Structural component of: connective tissue  
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Progeria (Advanced Aging)   nuclear lamins mutation  
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Cholesterol makes up   50% of the plasma membrane  
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Membrane Bound Receptors   Tyrosine Kinase G-Protein-coupled Steroid receptors  
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PDGF and IGF-1 receptors   2alpha bound by disulfide bonds bidning extracellular ligand  
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Main Role of Plasma Membrane   keeps sodium out of the cell; potassium inside of the cell  
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Corticosteriods inhibits   phopholipase A2  
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Zileuton inhibits   lipoxygenase  
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Zafirlukast and Montelukast inhibits   leukotrienes  
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Cyclooxygenase inhibited by   NSAIDS, Acetomenaphin, COX-2  
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Cell membrane lipid converted to arachidonic acid by phospholipase A2   phosphatidylinositol  
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Which cells are constantly regenerating (stays in G1 phase and no G0 phase)   skin, hair follicles, and bone marrow  
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In apoptosis, the plasma membrane is   blebbing away via phagocytosis  
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Intrinsic pathway: bcl-2 is   anti-apoptotic  
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Intrinsic pathway: BAX is   pro-apoptotic; increase in mitochondrial permability  
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Extrinsic pathway: Death Receptor   TNF + Fas  
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Extrinsic pathway: Killer T Cells use   perforin  
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Result of Granzyme B entering cells   activation of caspases  
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Intrinsic pathway: Increased Mitochondrial permeability releases   Cytochrome C  
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Irreversible Cell Injuries   nuclear pyknosis karyolysis karyorrhexis Ca2+ influx leading to caspase activation  
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Neutrophils found in   acute inflammation  
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Collagen primarily needs   vitamin C  
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Leukocyte Adhesion Syndrome   delayed umbilicus seperate  
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Leukocyte Adhesion Syndrome   abnormal integrin molecules  
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Granulomas are found in   chronic inflammation  
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Collection of macrophages ultimately become   granulomas  
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Receptor for Rolling (inflammation)   E-Selection (endothelium)  
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Receptor(s) for tight binding (inflammation)   LFA-1; ICAM-1  
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Metals known to facilitate production of oxygen free radicals   iron and copper  
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Strong (I) Slippery (II) Bloody (III) BM (IV)   collagen  
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Step 1 in the production of collagen   precollagen sythesis alpha chains  
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Step 2 in the production of collagen   hydroxylation of lysine and proline  
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Step 3 in the production of collagen   glycosylation of hydroxylated lysine essentially making procollagen  
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Step 4 in the production of collagen   exocytosis  
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Collagen construction taken place in   fibroblasts  
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Step 5 in the production of collagen   cleavage of terminal collagen tropocollagen  
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Step 6 in the production of collagen   crosslink tropocollagen molecules to make collagen fibrils  
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Steroioids inhibit collagen   synthesis  
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Osteogensis Imperfecta is an abnormal or defect in   Type I collagen  
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Osteogensis Imperfecta   Autosomal Dominant  
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Osteogensis Imperfecta Hallmark   blue sclera  
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Ehlers Danlos Syndrome Hallmark   hyperjointibility  
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Kidney disease + Deafness + Eye problems   Alport Syndrome  
🗑
Alport Syndrome defecent in type   IV  
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Cant see, Cant pee, Cant hear high C   Alport Syndrome  
🗑
Marfan Syndrome   hyperELASTICITY  
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Marfan Syndrome defect in   fibrillin, which makes elastin  
🗑
Marfan Syndrome Hallmark   elasticity of skin  
🗑
a-1 antitrypsin deficency   defect elastin in alveoli  
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Hypothalamus: Nucleus Masterclock for Circadian Rhythm   suprachiasmatic nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: Nucleus making oxytocin   paraventricular nucleus  
🗑
Hypothalamus: Nucleus secretes ADH   supraoptic nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: Nucleus Dealing with Obesity + Savage behavior   dorsomedial nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: Nucleus inhibited by leptin   lateral nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: if Nucleus destructed leads to obesity   ventromedial nucleus  
🗑
Hypothalamus: Nucleus regulating dopamine and GHRH   arcuate nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: Nucleus conserving heat producing shivering in cold enviroments   posterior nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: destruction of this body will lead to   wernicke's encephalopathy  
🗑
Hypothalamus: Nucleus stimulating GI   dorsomedial nucleus  
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Posterior Pituitary otherwise known as   neurohyphysis  
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Posterior Pituitary is derived from which germ layer   neuroectoderm  
🗑
Hypothalamus: Nucleus receives input from retina   suprachiasmatic nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: Savage behavior + obesity from stimulation   dorsomedial nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: Savage behavior + obesity from destruction   ventromedial nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: Stimulation leads to eating and destruction further leading to starvation   lateral nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: Regulates release of LH and FSH   preoptic nucleus  
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Hypothalamus: Destruction results in neurogenic diabetes inspidius   supraoptic nucleus  
🗑
Hypothalamus: releases hormones affecting the anterior pituitary   arcuate nucleus  
🗑
Hypothalamus: which nucleus regulates appetite   lateral nucleus  
🗑
Neuro: decreased GABA + serotonin BUT increased norepinephrine is seen in   anxiety disorders  
🗑
Sleep stages: Stage N1   theta waves  
🗑
Sleep stages: Stage N2   bruxism (teeth grinding) sleep spindles and K complexes  
🗑
Sleep stages: Stage N3   delta waves sleep walking bed wetting  
🗑
Sleep stages: REM   beta waves lose muscle tone  
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Sleep stages: Relaxation   alpha waves  
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Sleep stages: Rx decreases bed wetting (nocturnal enuresis)   imipramine  
🗑
Sleep stages: Rx MOA of impramine   TCA  
🗑
Sleep stages: Desmopressin (DDAVP) can aslo be used as Rx for   decreasing urination  
🗑
Sleep stages: Rx indomethacin decreases   renal blood floow  
🗑
Sleep Rxs: this med gives vivid dreams and should not be used for more than 3 months   melatonin  
🗑
Sleep Rxs: herbal remedy found OTC   valerian  
🗑
Sleep Rxs: first-line treatment for difficulty sleeping   anti-histamines  
🗑
Sleep Rxs: this med increases risk of priaprism   Trazodone  
🗑
Sleep Rxs: this med increases REM sleep   Trazodone  
🗑
Sleep Rxs: TCAs such as amitriptyline, doxepin increases cardiac risk of   arrhythmais (obtain EKG prior to use)  
🗑
Sleep Rxs: ADDICTIVE med that should only be used short-term   benzodiazepines  
🗑
Sleep Rxs: Popular meds acting on benZo receptors   zolpidem + zalepon  
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Sleep Rxs: only med per FDA approved for long term   eszopiclone  
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Sleep Rxs: nonaddictive med because it works on melatonin receptors rather than GABA reeptors   ramelteon  
🗑
Narcolepsy Rxs: first-line treatment   modafinil  
🗑
Cataplexy Rx   vanlafaxine, fluoxetine, or atomoxetine  
🗑
Sleep Rxs: GHB can assist in sleep and reduce   cataplexy  
🗑
Brain embryology: Forebrain develops into   telencephalon -> cerebral hemispheres + diencephalon ->thalamus  
🗑
Brain embryology: Midbrain develops into   mesencephalon -> midbrain  
🗑
Brain embryology: Hindbrain develops into   metencephalon + myelencephalon -> cerebellum, pons, and medulla  
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Brain embryology: NTD avoided with routine   sonogram + quadruple screening  
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Brain embryology: NTD indicative when alpha fetoprotein levels are   elevated  
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Neuro Embyology: NTD defect indicative with AFP levels are   increased  
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Neuro Embyology: AFP levels when decreased are indicative of   down's syndrome  
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Neuro Embyology: Meningcele is a herniation JUST of the   meninges  
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Neuro Embyology: Myelomeningocele occurs with hernation of both   spinal cord + meninges  
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Neuro Embyology: No brain tissue separating amniotic fluid in the brain is indicative of   anencephaly  
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Neuro Embyology: Holoprosencephaly occurs when the hemispheres   of the brain fail to separate  
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Neuro Embyology: Cleft palate together with cyclopia are indicative of   holoprosencephaly  
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Neuro Embyology: Sonic Hedgehod Gene mutations will be seen in patients with   holoprosencephaly  
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Neuro Embyology: Posterior fossa (hindbrain) abnormalities are seen in   Chiari Malformations  
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Neuro Embyology: Chiari Malformations occurs when cerebellum herniates download through   forman magnum  
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Neuro Embyology: Syringomyelia is an enlargement of the central   canal in spinal cord  
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Neuro Embyology: Compression of the spinothalamic tract occurs and is referred to   syringomyelia  
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Neuro Embyology: HALLMARK: Cape-like, bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation are seen in   upper extremities  
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Neuro Embyology: HALLMARK: Anterior horn damage produces   weakness and atrophy of hands  
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Neuro Embyology: Spinal cord trauma over time can produce   syringomyelia  
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Neuro Embyology: Herniation of cerebellar tonsils are seen in   Chiari I Malformation  
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Neuro Embyology: BOTH herniation of cerebellar tonsils and vermis   Chiari II Malformation  
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Neuro Embyology: Hydrocephalus can be seen in patients with   Chiari II Malformation  
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Neuro Embyology: Stenosis of aqueduct caused by a Chiari II malformations along with which other abnormality   hydrocephalus  
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Neuro Embyology: Thoracolumbar Myelomeningocele is associated with   Chiari II Malformation  
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Neuro Embyology: Second Posterior Fossa malformation   Dandy-Walker Syndrome  
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Neuro Embyology: enlarged posterior fossa is indicative of   Dandy-Walker syndrome  
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Neuro Embyology: cerebellar vermis fails to develop is indicative of   Dandy-Walker syndrome  
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Neuro Embyology: Dilation of the 4th ventricle is associated with hydrocephalus indicative of which diagnosis   Dandy-Walker syndrome  
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Neuro Embyology: Brachial Apparatus is composed of how many tissues   six; 6  
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Neuro Embyology: Bracial Apparatus arch is derived from   Mesoderm  
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Neuro Embyology: Bracial Apparatus clef is derived from the   Ectoderm  
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Neuro Embyology: Bracial Apparatus pouch is derived from the   Endoderm  
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Neuro Embyology: Bracial Apparatus Pouch #1 will give rise to   Middle ear cavity Eutachian tubes Mastoid air cells  
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Neuro Embyology: Bracial Apparatus Pouch #2 will give rise to   epithelial lining of the tonsils  
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Neuro Embyology: Bracial Apparatus Pouch #3 will give rise to   inferior parathyroid gland + thymus  
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Neuro Embyology: Bracial Apparatus Pouch #4 will give rise to   superior parathyroid gland  
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Neuro Embyology: DiGeorge Syndrome occurs when abnormal development   3rd and 4th brachial pouches  
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Neuro Embyology: Pt. with absent thymus and parathyroid glands   DiGeorge Syndrome  
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Neuro Embyology: Hallmark Triad in DiGeorge Syndrome   Absent thymus + hypocalcemia + T-cell deficiency  
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Neuro Embyology: Brachial Arches are   Mesoderm derivatives  
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Neuro Embyology: Bracial Arch #1 produces CMN, which are   Cartilage + Muscle + Nerve  
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Neuro Embyology: Treacher Collins Syndrome   Series of facial abnormalities  
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Neuro Embryology: HALLMARK of Treacher Collins Syndrome includes   Abnormal mandible + malleus  
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Neuro Embryology: Brachial Arch #2 produces S structures such as   Stapes + Styloid Process + Stylohyoid ligament + lesser horn of the hyoid  
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Neuro Embryology: Hemispatial neglect indicates a lesion in the   Parietal lobe (non dominant)  
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Neuro Embryology: Pt. neglects half of a side of their body as nonexistent   Hemispatial neglect  
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Medical Term used for Crossed-Eyed pt.   Strabismus or tropia  
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Golgi Apparatus modifies with amino acids   S.A.T. Serine, Asparagine, Theronine  
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Astrocyte foot processes, basement membrane, capillary lumen are the components of the   basement membrane  
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Midbrain is composed of   red nucleus, medial meniscus, superior colliculus, cerebral aqueduct, medical geniculate body, spinothalamic tract, corticobulbar tract, corticospinal tract, substantia nigra  
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Inferior Colliculus is located in the   caudal midbrain  
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Superior Colliculus is located in the   rostral midbrain  
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CN located in the midbrain   Oculomotor and Trochlear Nerves  
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Pons contains the   abducens (CNVI) nerve  
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MLF is found in the   pons  
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Medial Lemnicus travels done the   medial aspect of the pons  
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Corticospinal tract is located in the   medial aspects of the pons  
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Lateral part of pons is supplied by   AICA  
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Cranial nerves will __________ as you go down the brainstem   increase in number  
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Medulla medial aspect contains   hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), medial lemniscus, and meduallry pyramid  
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Anterior Spinal Artery supplies the   medial aspect of the medulla  
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PICA supplies the   lateral aspect of medulla  
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Lateral aspect of medulla is composed of   vestibular (CN VIII) nuclei, inferior cerebellar peduncle, spinal trigeminal tract and nucleus and lateral spinothalamic tract  
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Spinal Tracts: Dorsal Columns are composed of   fasiculus cutaneous and fasciculus gracilis  
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Spinal Tracts: Dorsal Columns decussate in the medulla to then   ascend  
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Spinal Tracts: Dorsal Columns become what   medial lemniscus  
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Spinal Tracts: Medial Lemniscus goes into the   VPL of thalamus  
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Spinal Tracts: VPL is located in the   thalamus  
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Spinal Tracts: Dorsal Columns work on which side   contralateral  
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VPL is the _____ port of the thalamus   sensory  
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Spinothalamic tract decussates at the   anterior white commisure  
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Spinothalmic tract ascends   contralateraly  
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Which tract travels contralaterally in the brainstem   spinothalamic  
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Information to the Corticospinal Tract comes from   internal capsule  
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Spinothalamic tract ascends as Corticospinal Tract   desends  
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Norepinephrine is increase in anxiety and   mania  
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Norepinephrine is decreased in   depressionb  
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Raphe Nucleus is the center of   serotonin  
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In depression, serotonin is   decreased  
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The levels of serotonin are decreased in   anxiety  
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CPK, Adolase,and Myoglobin are   osteomarkers  
🗑
This condition prevents thymidine repair dimers from UV damages   xeroderma pigmentosa  
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Dexamethasone Suppression Test    
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Dopamine levels in Schizophrenia   increased  
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Dopamine levels in Depression   decreased  
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Dopamine levels in Parkinson's   decreased  
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Microglia HALLMARK seen in   HIV multi-nucleated giant cells  
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Bitemporal Temporal Lobe location of   HSV encephalitis  
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Decreased levels of Vitamin B6 lead to   seizures  
🗑
GABA is decreased n conditions such as anxiety and   huntington's  
🗑
The nucleus acubens houses neuroinhibitors such as   GABA  
🗑
Injury to axillary nerve results for damaged to the surgical   neck of the humerus  
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P. Circumflex Humeral Artery supplies the   surgical neck of the humerus  
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Perforin + Granzyme B is released as a result of   cytotoxic T cells and NK cells during bacterial infection  
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Clathrin works in the (hint: starts with a C)   cytosol  
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Process of receptor mediated endocytosis   clathrin is activated which activates adaptins  
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Center of Huntington's disease   caudate + putamen  
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Receptor locations: Tyrosine Kinase   plasma membrane  
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Receptor locations: G-protein coupled   cytosol  
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Receptor locations: steroids   cytoplasm  
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Retro peritoneal Organs   S.A.D.P.U.C.K.E.R  
🗑
Destruction of Alpha 3 chain of Type IV Collage results in   Goodpasture Syndrome  
🗑
Hypotension, Tachycardia, and Cool Extremities are sx of   hypovolemic shock  
🗑
How to diagnose lactose intolerance   pH of stool  
🗑
MOA inhibit substance flow across cell membranes thus inhibiting primary active transport   PPI  
🗑
Zileuton, Montelukast, Zafirlukast are agents used to treat   asthma  
🗑
Transplant rejections primarily occur due to preformed   antibodies against antigens  
🗑
Langerhans Histocytosis HALLMARK   birbeck granules  
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Tennis racket shaped cytoplasmic organelles   langerhans histocytosis  
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Encapsulated bacteria   Even Some Pretty Nasty Killers Have Shiny Bodies  
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The most injure organ in blunt trauma (not a foregut structure)   spleen  
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Bilateral temporal visual deficit seen in   pituitary adenomas  
🗑
Payer Patches seen in   small intestine (ileum)  
🗑
Rx producing antibody against CD20   rituximab  
🗑
Causative agent of barking cough   croup  
🗑
Meningiomas found in   parietal lobe  
🗑
Meningiomas produce lower limb sensory loss and   hemineglectp  
🗑
PICA Disorder   inability to consume food; pt consumes items that are non-food such as ice, hair, paper  
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Rx for phobia   benzodiapine  
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Agents in innate immunty   neutrophils, dendrites, macrophages, and complement  
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Hot T-Bone Steak   IL-1 (fever), IL-2 (T-cells), IL-3 (bone marrow), IL-4 (IgE + IgG production), IL-5 (IgA + Eosinophils production)  
🗑
Active Immunity involves   b + t cells  
🗑
IFNs released by virus infected cells   IFN-alpha and IFN-beta  
🗑
Rx immunosuppreant inhibiting calcineurin, production of IL-22, and T-Cell   Cyclosporin  
🗑
HALLMARK in Crohn's Disease   transmural inflammation  
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HALLMARK Ground Glass Apperance of lungs   NRDS (Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome)  
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HALLMARK Air Space and interstitial opacities in lungs   NRDS (Neonatal Respiratory Distress Syndrome)  
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Antidote for acetominophen overdose   N-Acetylcystine  
🗑
N-Acetylcystine leaves disulfide bonds within   muscous glycoproteins  
🗑
Extension seen in obstructive lung disease   expiratory phase (FEV down)  
🗑
Asthmatic antigen cross linking IgE on   pre-sensitized mast cells  
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Levels in COPD   FEV down; FVC same  
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Restrictive Lung Disease leads to decreased   TLC; normal FEV1:FVC ratio  
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Side effect of Tamoxifen   endometrial hyperplasia  
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Disorder in which pt. complains of symptoms that are not even there   somatization  
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Thrombocytopenia can be caused by this agent (hint: thrombolytic)   heparin  
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Thrombocytopenia can be caused by this agent (hint: antibiotic)   beta lactam antibiotics  
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Thrombocytopenia can be caused by this agent (hint: anti bacterial)   vancomycin  
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Splenomegaly seen in this kissing disease   EBV  
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Thrombocytopenia can be caused by this agent (hint: used to treat gram + bacteria)   linezolid  
🗑
Rx used in treatment of CMV   foscarnet  
🗑
Foscarnet does not require   intracelullar activation  
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Arsenie Poisioning is treated with this agent   dimercaprol  
🗑
Poision Ivy is mostly encountered in   hikers, forests, and wooded areas  
🗑
Neisseria Gonnorhea will elevate   neutrophils (think N in neiserria)  
🗑
Rx used treat general protozas   metrodiazole  
🗑
Rx used treat trophozoites   metrodiazole + tinidazole  
🗑
Rx used treat cysts   iodoquinol + paromomycin  
🗑
Rx swish and swallow method us used with nyacin to treat   oral candidasis  
🗑
Erythrocytosis in men should be   <52%  
🗑
Erythrocytosis in women should be   <48%  
🗑
Activation of Leukotriene C4 is found in   asthma  
🗑
HALLMARK for asthma histology   charcot-leyden crystals  
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Pharm: direct acting is an   agonist  
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Pharm: inhibition of action is a   anatagonist  
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Organophosphate Poisioning is seen primarily in   farmers  
🗑
Adenosine Deaminase Deficency results in this condition   SCID  
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A-1 Adrenergic causing adverse reaction of orthostatic hypotension   terazosin + doxazosin  
🗑
Raymonds phenomenon leads to   cerebral edema  
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Asprin given to children younger than the age of 12 will results in   raymond's phenomenon  
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Disease arsing from deficiency in mannose-6-phosphate   i-cell  
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Sx clouded cornea, restruct joint movement, and course facial features seen in   i-cell disease  
🗑
This bacteria's polysaccharies capsule gives it it's virulence   step. pneumo  
🗑
DNA mismatch repair will cause   hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer  
🗑
Rx agent used for motion sickness   scopolamine  
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HALLMARK fishy odor with thin discharge indicative of   bacterial vaginosis  
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HALLMARK frothy odor with green/white discharge indicative of   trichamonasis  
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HALLMARK cottage cheese discharge indicative of   candidasis vaginosis  
🗑
Water Deprivation Test is done to pt. who is suspected to have   diabetes insipidus  
🗑
Desmopressin (ADH) Challenge will indicate whether the dx is   central or nephrogenic  
🗑
This syndrome's onset may be due to an adverse reaction to steroids   cushings syndrome  
🗑
Amyloidosis stains congo   red  
🗑
HALLMARK apple green bigeringate   amyloidosis  
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HALLMARK histology showing rouleaux (poker chips like)   multiple myeloma  
🗑
Adverse Reactions: Anti-hypertensive Nifedipine   reflex tachycardia; useful for pt. with bradycardia  
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Adverse Reactions: Anti-hypertensive Beta Blocker   prolong PR interval  
🗑
Olgiodendrocyte destruction seen in   multiple sclerosis  
🗑
Retro peritoneal organ most injured in car accidents   pancreas  
🗑
Abnormalty seen in hereditary spherocytosis   RBC membrane cytoskeleton  
🗑
HALLMARK Interstitial Fibrosis   honeycomb lung on x-ray  
🗑
Honeycomb lung on x-ray is indicative of   intersistial fibrosis  
🗑
Rx acetylcysteine decreases levels of   mucous  
🗑
1st line indicator in diabetic nephropathy   albumin  
🗑
Generalized Anxiety Disorders are treated with   buspirone  
🗑
Crackles on lung auscultation mostly heard when pt has   pulmonary edema  
🗑
HALLMARK Asbestosis   dumb bells appearance  
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Asbestosis histology will show   enlongated structures with clubbed ends  
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Myocardial Infarction will produce   prostagladins  
🗑
Prostaglandins produced in MI will   inhibit platelet aggregation  
🗑
Cytochrome oxidase inducers include    
🗑
Rapid correction of HYPONATUREMIA will lead to this condition   central pontine myelinolysis  
🗑
MRI shows increased signal intensity to the pons indicating   rapid correcton of hyponatermia  
🗑
Sx of central pontine myelinolysis   paralysis, dysarthria, dysphagia, diplopia, loss of consciousness  
🗑
Low sodium levels need to be correct very   slowly  
🗑
Retinoic acid (vitmain A derivative) alters   HOX gene expression  
🗑
Which antibiotics are potentially teratogenic   F.A.T.; Fluroquinolones, Aminoglycosides, and Tertatogens  
🗑
Rx teratogenic in pregnant women   MTX, Statins, Warfarin, Isorebinoin, DES, Thalidomide  
🗑
Limb buds begin to form at week   21  
🗑
Fetal movement begins at week   8  
🗑
By which week does the mother begin to experience fetal movement   8  
🗑
Which vitamin should not be supplemented in large amounts during pregnancy   vitamin A; alters HOX gene expression  
🗑
Nuclear Localization Signals: Amino acids   rich in L.A.P: lysine, arginine and proline  
🗑
Nuclear Localization Signals: Essential component of protein bound for or residing in the nucleus   histones  
🗑
Where are histones located   nucleus  
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Nuclear Localization Signals: Nuclear pores recognize these signals and transport proteins into the   nucleus via ATPase  
🗑
ATPase is the signal of transportation of proteins and into the   nucleus  
🗑
A single AA mutation may prevent   nuclear transport  
🗑
A deficiency leading to I-Cell Disease   mannose phophorylation  
🗑
Mannose phosphorylation secretion out of   cell instead of into lysosomes for degradation  
🗑
I-Cell Disease leads to death by the childhood age of   8  
🗑
Chaperones assist in folding and transport of polypeptides in the   ER and Golgi, etc  
🗑
Stress Chaperones rescue shock-stressed proteins from   misfolding  
🗑
If folding is not successful, the chaperones facilitate   degradation of damaged protein  
🗑
Degradation of damaged proteins involves   ubiquitin  
🗑
This is also known as a heat shock protein   ubiquitin  
🗑
Peroxisomes provide beta oxidation of very long chain   fatty and branched chain fatty acids  
🗑
Which cyclin-CDK complexes assist in the progression from G1 phase to S phase   Cyclin D and Cycline E; CDK 4 + CDK 2, respectively  
🗑
Which cyclin-CDK complexes assist in the progression from G2 phase to M phase   Cycline A and Cycline B; CDK 2 + CDK 1, respectively  
🗑
What molecule does the Golgi add to proteins in order to direct the proteins to the lysosomes    
🗑
What are the different methods that a cell uses to break down proteins    
🗑
What is the most common cause of intellectual disability in infants   fetal alcohol syndrome  
🗑
Structural component of connective tissue L.E.F. (leukocytes, endothelium, fibroblasts)   Vimentin  
🗑
Desmin is the intermediate filament of structural component   muscle (smooth, skeletal, and heart)  
🗑
Cytokeratin is the intermediate filament of structural component   epithelial cells  
🗑
Glial fibrillary acid proteins is the intermediate filament of structural component   astrocytes, schwann cells, other neuroglia  
🗑
Peripherin is the intermediate filament of structural component   neurons  
🗑
Neurofilaments is the intermediate filament of structural component   axons within neurons  
🗑
Nuclear lamins is the intermediate filament of structural component   nuclear envelope and DNA within  
🗑
Which drugs act on microtubules (the microtuble growth voiding pure chemicals)   thiabendazole + mebendazole + griseofulvin + vincrestine + pacixtel + vinblastine  
🗑
What are the defects in Kartagner Syndrome aka immotile ciliary syndrome   primary ciliary dyskinesia  
🗑
During what week of fetal development does organogensis take place    
🗑
What molecule provide the structural framework for DNA and nuclear envelope   nuclear lamins  
🗑
The first step in the signaling cascade that it initiated by tyrosine kinase receptors is   autophosphorylation  
🗑
What type of protein is PDGF   single-pass transmembrane protein  
🗑
Insulin and Insulin Growth Factor-1 receptors   2 alpha subunits and 2b subunits  
🗑
Which arachiodonic acid product causes: increased bronchial tone   prostaglandins  
🗑
Which arachiodonic acid product causes: decreased bronchial tone   PGF-12  
🗑
Which arachiodonic acid product causes: increased platelet aggregation   thromboxane  
🗑
Which arachiodonic acid product causes: decreased platelet aggregation   PG-12  
🗑
Which arachiodonic acid product causes: increased uterine tone   prostaglandins  
🗑
Which arachiodonic acid product causes: decreased uterine tone   PG-12  
🗑
Which arachiodonic acid product causes: increased vascular tone   thromboxane  
🗑
Which arachiodonic acid product causes: decreased vascular tone   PG-12  
🗑
What are the two most abundant substances in the plasma membrane   phospholipids and cholesterol  
🗑
What drugs act on the arachidonic acid pathway   Cycloxygenase (NSAIDs)  
🗑
What are the stages that an embroy goes through between conception and the development of an inner cell mass   cleavage, blastula, and gastrulation stages  
🗑
The blastula eventually organizes itself into two layers   inner cell mass and outer trophoblast  
🗑
Trophoblast will become the   placenta  
🗑
Which cell types are constantly regenerating themselves due to an absence of the G0 phase and a short G1 phase   GI, bone marrow, hair follicles, nails  
🗑
BCL-2 is major anti-apoptotic regulator of   mitochondrial permeability  
🗑
Any DNA damage or apoptotic sign will activate   Bax (pro-apoptotic)  
🗑
Bax creates channels in   mitochondrial membrane  
🗑
Cytochrome C moves from the   mitochondria and into cytosol  
🗑
Cytochrome C activates   caspases  
🗑
The primary initator of apoptosis   caspases  
🗑
Name death receptors   TNF-a + Fas ligand  
🗑
Cytotoxic T-Cells recognize   foreign or infected cells  
🗑
Cytotoxic T-Cells release which agents   perforin and granenzyme B  
🗑
Mechanism of Cell Injury: influx of calcium will increase   mitochondrial permeability and activate phospholipases, proteases, endonucleases and ATPase  
🗑
Mechanism of Cell Injury: accumulation of oxygen-derived free radicals   cell damage through membrane lipid peroxidation, protein modification and DNA breakage  
🗑
Radiation Exposure may cause   cell injury; DNA breakage, protein modification  
🗑
What histology features may be seen in apoptotic liver cells   infiltrate only if cause is alcohol is steatohepatitis  
🗑
Apoptotic liver cells under the microscope will show   histologic changes including steatosis, inflammation, ballooned hepatocytes, Mallory–Denk bodies, apoptotic hepatocytes, and fibrosis or cirrhosis  
🗑
What damaging events can cause irreversible cell injury   mitochondria swell, lysosomes swell, damage to plasma membrane and lysosomal membranes leads to enzyme leakage  
🗑
What substances do cytotoxic T cells and NK cells use to induce apoptosis in the cells infected with a virus   perforin and granenzyme B  
🗑
Redox reaction may cause   cell injury; DNA breakage, protein modification  
🗑
What cellular enzymes are responsible for handling oxygen free radicals   superoxide dismutase  
🗑
Transition metals may cause   cell injury; DNA breakage, protein modification  
🗑
Nitric Oxide may cause   cell injury; DNA breakage, protein modification  
🗑
Leukocyte Oxidative Burst may cause   cell injury; DNA breakage, protein modification  
🗑
Reperfusion injury may cause   cell injury; DNA breakage, protein modification  
🗑
Acute inflammation: release of mediators   neutrophils, histamine, bradykinin, serotonin  
🗑
Acute inflammation: mediators in vasodilation   prostagladins and nitrix oxide  
🗑
Tissue remodeling by metalloproteinses contains   C5a  
🗑
Polymyalgia rhematica laboratory indication   elevated ESR  
🗑
C-Reactive Protein in the acute phase is synthesized by the   liver  
🗑
Oposonization of bacteria and activation of complement is done by   C-Reactive Protein  
🗑
Temporal arteritis laboratory indication   elevated ESR  
🗑
Acute inflammation: mediators increased vascular permeability fluid exudation   bradykinin, serotonin, histamin, C3a + C5a, Leukotrienes, PAF, oxygen free radicals  
🗑
Can C-Reative Protein be lowered by smoking cessation   yes  
🗑
Maliganancy laboratory indication   elevated ESR  
🗑
Elevations in this marker is a strong predictor or MI, Stoke, PAD, and sudden cardiac death   C-Reactive Protein  
🗑
True o False: C-Reactive Protein can be lowered by exercise/weight loss   true  
🗑
Which metals are known to faciltate the generation of oxygen free radicals   metallprotienases  
🗑
Which tumor suppressor proteins prevent the progression of the cell in S phase   p53 and Rb  
🗑
Cutaneous wound healing: week-months   collagen production (Type III and Type I)  
🗑
Cutaneous wound healing: 0-3 hours   hemorrhage and clotting  
🗑
Cutaneous wound healing: 1-3 days   macrophage infiltration, granulation tissue, epithelization  
🗑
Cutaneous wound healing: 12-24 hours   acute inflammation (PMNs)  
🗑
Infection, inflammation (e.g. osteomyelitis) laboratory indication   elevated ESR  
🗑
Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome sx (3-D pneumonic)   Type III collagen deficiency  
🗑
Diseases activity in RA and SLE   elevated ESR  
🗑
Which AA are found in large concentrations in collagen   proline + lysine  
🗑
What is the role of Vitamin C in collagen   hydroxylation of proline and lysine  
🗑
Sx hyperflexible koints, archnodactyly, aortic dissection, lens dislocation are all indicative of   ehlers danlos  
🗑
Sx hereditary nephritis, cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss    
🗑
What is the underlying dysfunction in Chediak-Higashi syndrome   Defect in lysosomal trafficking regulator gene (LYST); Microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion;  
🗑
Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is an   autosomal recessive  
🗑
How does having a high cholesterol content in the plasma membrane affect its function   separate the phospholipids so that the fatty acid chains can't come together and cyrstallize.  
🗑
A man working out at the gym building muscle would be considered   hypertrophy  
🗑
What can happen to the cells of the lower espohagus in response to chronic acid reflux   metaplasia of simple squamous to columnar epithelium leading to GERD or Barret's Esophagus  
🗑
What is lipofuscin granule   aging or "wear-and-tear" pigments, found in the liver, kidney, heart muscle, retina, adrenals, nerve cells, and ganglion cells  
🗑
Four major dopaminergic pathways   mesocortical pathway  
🗑
Four major dopaminergic pathways   mesolimbic pathway  
🗑
Four major dopaminergic pathways   nigrostriatial pathway  
🗑
Four major dopaminergic pathways   tuberoinfundibular pathway  
🗑
Which nervous system cell matches the follow description: fried egg under histology staining   olgiodendrites  
🗑
Which nervous system cell matches the follow description: form multinucleated giant cells in the CNS when infected with HIV   mircroglia  
🗑
Which nervous system cell matches the follow description: myelinates mutiple CNS axons    
🗑
Which nervous system cell matches the follow description: myelinates one PNS axon   schwann cells  
🗑
Which nervous system cell matches the follow description: damaged in Guillain-Barre syndrome   schwann cells  
🗑
Which nervous system cell matches the follow description: damaged in multiple sclerosis   ogliodendrites  
🗑
Which nervous system cell matches the follow description: macrophase of the CNS   microglia  
🗑
Which nervous system cell matches the follow description: cells of the blood-brain barrier    
🗑
What is the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS   GABA  
🗑
In which diseases is GABA altered   huntington's and anxiet  
🗑
What organelle becomes hypertrophied in hepatocytes with chronic phenobarbital use?   smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)  
🗑
What enzyme mitigates the aging effects of cellular division by maintaining chromosomal right   telomerase  
🗑
What is currently known as the most effective way of prolonging life span    
🗑
Which area of the hypothalamus regulate the autonomic nervous system   paraventricular nucleus  
🗑
Which neurotransmitter have altered levels in anxiety disorder   GABA  
🗑
Which collagen is typically deficient in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome   Type III  
🗑
Which collagen is typically deficient in osteogensis imperfecta   Type I  
🗑
Which drug is used to shorten Stage N3 sleep   imipramine  
🗑
What is the sleep pattern in a patient with narcolepsy    
🗑
In what stage of sleep are night terrors found   Stage N3  
🗑
What arachidonic acid product has actions that oppose that of prostacyclin   COX-1 + COX-2  
🗑
What brain structure is responsible for extraocular movements during REM sleep   paramedian pontine reticular formation/conjugate gaze center  
🗑
What two nerves are tested with the gag reflax   vagus + glossopharyngeal  
🗑
Unilateral facial drooping involving the forehead   bell's palsy; LMN facial nerve (CN VII) palsy; UMN lesions spare the forehead  
🗑
What organelle and cytochrome are particularly important in intrinsic apoptosis   mitochondria + cytochrome C  
🗑
During what sleep stage would a man have variable blood pressure, penile/clitoral tumescence, and variable EEG   REM  
🗑
A 19-year-old patient presents with a furnuncle on his philtrum, and the cavernous sinus becomes infected. What neurological deficits might you see in this patient?    
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Which areas of the hypothalamus regulate the autonomic nervous system?   Anterior hypothalamus : Parasympathetic Posterior: Sympathetic  
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Cranial nerve 1 (Olfactory) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Cribiform Plate Smell Cribiform plate fracture or Kallmann syndrome Smell something  
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Cranial nerve 2 (Optic) Site of exit from the skull? Function? How to test the function?   Optic canal; [Sight] [Smell] [Eye chart]  
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Cranial nerve 3 (Occulomotor) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Superior orbital fissure Parasympathetic: Cillary and sphincter muscles Innv. MR, SR, IR, IO (Extraoccular m.) Transtentorial/Uncal Herniation, Diabetes, Weber syndrome Follow my finger, pupillary light reflex, and convergence  
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Describe Weger Syndrome   Form of stroke that causes occlusion of PCA. Causes contralateral hemiparesis and CN 3 palsy  
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Cranial nerve 4 (Trochlear) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Superior orbital fissure Innv. SO Head trauma Move eye by following finger  
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Cranial nerve 5 (Trigeminal)-V1 Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   V1 (Opthalmic): Superior orbital fissure Sensory for Medial nose and forehead Path: Trigeminal neuralgia Test: Facial sensation  
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Cranial nerve 5-V3 (Mandibular) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Foramen ovale Motor fxn. of muscle of mastication (open and close jaw) Sensory: lower lip, lateral face, lower border of mandible Lesion: Jaw will deviate towards the side of lesion when opening Test: facial sensation, open jaw  
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Which muscle opens the jaw   Lateral Pterygoid  
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Which muscle closes the jaw   Masseter, Temporalis, Medial pterygoi  
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Cranial nerve 6 (Abducens) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Superior orbital fissure Innv. lateral rectus Medial inferior pontine syndrome (contralateral hemiparesis and loss of tactile and vibrations + lesion of CN 6) Test with follow my finger  
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Cranial nerve 7 (Facial) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Internal acoustic meatus Parasymp: Lacrimal, submandibular, and sublingual glands Innv. Facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid, posterior belly of digastric m. Taste anterior 2/3 of tongue Bells Palsy (includes muscle of forehead) Test:Wrink  
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Name the 5 branches of the Facial Nerve (CN VII)   Temporal Zygomatic Buccal Marginal mandibular Cervical  
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Cranial nerve 8 (Vesitbulacocchlear) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Internal acoustic meatus Equilibrium and Hearing Acoustic schwannoma (vertigo, nystagmus, nausea and vomiting) Hearing and nystagmus  
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Cranial nerve 9 (Glossopharynageal) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Jugular foramen Parasym: Parotid gland, stylopharyngeus m Sensory: pharynx, middle ear, auditory tube, carotid body and sinus, external ear, posterior 1/3 of tongue Lesions: PICA infarct Test: Gag relfex  
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Cranial nerve 10 (Vagus) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Jugular foramen Symp: body viscera, laryngeal & pharyngeal m. Sensory: Trachea, External ear, viscera of esophagus, epiglottis Lesion: Thyroidectomy, PICA infarct Test: Gag reflex and saying ahh (elevates palate) Uvula deviates away from lesion  
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Cranial nerve 11 (Accessory) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Jugular foramen Innv. SCM and Trapezius M. Lesion: PICA infarct Test: Turn head and shrug shoulders  
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Cranial nerve 12 (Hypoglossal) Site of exit from the skull? Function? Lesions? How to test the function?   Hypoglossal canal Intrinsic tongue muscles Lesions: Anterior spinal a. infarct Tongue protudes towards lesion Test: Lalalala  
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Corneal Reflex How to test? Normal reflex Afferent: Efferent:   Touch cornea with cotton N: Blink Afferent: V1 (opthalmic) Efferent: CN 7 (temporal branch)-closes eye (orbicularis oculi m.)  
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Lacrimal Reflex How to test? Normal reflex Afferent: Efferent:   Touch cornea with cotton N: Lacrimate Afferent: V1 (opthalmic) Efferent: CN 7 (temporal branch)  
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Jaw Jerk Reflex How to test? Normal reflex Afferent: Efferent:   Tap on chin Normal (no response) Afferent: V3 (Mandibular) Efferent: V3 (Masseter) UMN lesion if different  
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Pupillary Reflex How to test? Normal reflex Afferent: Efferent:   Shine light in eye Normal: Pupillary constriction Afferent: Optic nerve Efferent: Parasymp CN 3  
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Gag Reflex How to test? Normal reflex Afferent: Efferent:   Stick tongue depressor in mouth and say ahhh Normal: Gags Afferent: CN 9 Efferent: CN 10  
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Midbrain contains which CN nuclei?   CN 3 and 4  
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Pons contains which CN nuclei?   CN 5-8  
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Medulla contains which CN nuclei   CN 9, 10, 12  
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Spinal cord contains which CN nuclei?   CN 11  
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What does the Pineal body contain   melatonin secretion, circadian rhythm  
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What does the Superior colliculus contain   conjugate vertical gaze center  
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What does the Inferior colliculus contain   auditory information  
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What nerves run through Cavernous sinus   CN 3, 4, 6, branches (V1 and V2) of CN 5  
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What are other structures that run through Cavernous Sinus   Internal Carotid a optic chiasm pituitary gland sphenoidal sinuses  
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The reticular activating system include which areas   Reticular formation Mesencephalic nucleus Thalamic intralaminar nucleus Dorsal hypothalamus Tegmentum  
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The reticular activating system function   arousal and sleep awakening  
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The Vagal nuclei are   nucleus solitarius nucleus ambiguus dorsal motor nucleus  
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Nucleus solitarius   Nucleus solitarius Visceral sensory info: Taste Baroreceptors gut distension (CN 7,9,10)  
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Nucleus Ambiguus   Motor innv. Pharynx Larynx Upper Esophagus (CN 9,10,11)  
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Dorsal Motor Nucleus   Autonomic (Parasymp) info: Heart Lungs Upper GI (CN 10)  
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Which sympathetic chain starts from what spinal cord segment and ends at what segment   T1-L3  
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Horner Syndrome will cause   sympathetic denervation of the face  
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Describe Horner syndrome symptoms   Ptosis (drooping of eyelid) Anhidrosis (absence of sweating) and flushing (rubor) of affected side Miosis (constriction of pupils)  
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What is caused by Horner syndrome   Spinal cord lesion above T1 assc.(superior cervical ganglion). Pancoast tumor (pre-ganglionic) Brown-Sequard syndrome Late stage syringomyelia  
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What are the muscles of mastication   Open Jaw: Temporalis, medial pterygoid cLose Jaw: Lateral pterygoid Masseter m.  
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Unilateral facial drooping involving the forehead   Bell's Palsy  
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Sx Ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis are indicative of   Horner Syndrome  
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What G protein classes do alpha receptors stimulate?   • α1= Gq • α2 =Gi  
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What G protein classes do beta receptors stimulate?   • β1 =Gs • β2 =Gs  
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What G protein classes do muscarinic receptors stimulate?   • M1 =Gq • M2 =Gi • M3 =Gq  
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What G protein classes do dopaminergic receptors stimulate?   D2= Gs  
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What is the treatment for choriocarcinoma   methotrexate vincristine vinblastine  
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What is the treatment for AML   cytarabine (arabinofuranosyl)  
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What is the treatment for CML   imatinib  
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Which Rx prevents breast cancer   tamoxifen  
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What is the treatment for breast cancer   etopside, bleomycin, cisplatin, ifosfamide  
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What is the rate-limiting enzyme in purine synthesis?   Purine: PPRP (phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase II)  
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What is the rate-limiting enzyme in pyrimidine synthesis?   Pyrimidine: Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II  
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Case-Control study   Compares a group of people with the disease vs those without the disease Looks for prior exposure or risk factor Retrospective/Observational  
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Cohort Study   Compares a group with a given exposure or risk factor to a group without such exposure Can be prospective/retrospective Relative risk  
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Cross-sectional study   Collects data from a group of people to assess frequency of disease (and related risk factor) at a particular point in time Disease prevalence Can't estimate causality  
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Twin Concordance Study   Compares the frequency with which both monozygotic twins or both dizygotic twins develop the same disease  
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In which phase of meiosis is a primary oocyte arrested until just prior to ovulation?   Prior ovulation: Prophase of meiosis I  
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In performing a lumbar puncture to obtain a sample of CSF, what structures are pierced, starting with the most exterior?   Skin Subcutaneous fat Supraspinal ligament Interspinal ligament Ligamentum flavum Epidural space Dura Matter Subdural space Arachnoid matter Subarachnoid space  
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What medications are used in the treatment of pulmonary hypertension   Endothelin receptor antagonists (Bosetan) MOA: Competitive antagonize endothelin-1 receptor PDE-5 inhibitor (Sildenafil) MOA: Inhibit cGMP PDE5 and prolong vasodilatory effect of NO Prostacyclin analogs (epoprostenol & iloprost) MOA: Prostacyclin  
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Does the notochord become the neural tube   No, Notochord is derived from mesoderm; Notochord becomes nucleus pulposus of IV disk  
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From where does the amygdala receive inputs   Inputs: Limbic cortex Neocortex of parietal, temporal, and occipital lobe  
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To where does the amygdala send output   Output: Hypothalamus, Thalamus, Septum, Hippocampus  
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Narcoleptic sleep episodes begin with what stage of sleep   Narcolepsy sleep episodes start at REM sleep  
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What are the different stages of normal sleep   Awake: Beta waves Awake but relaxed: alpha waves Stage 1: Light sleep (Theta waves) Stage 2: Deeper sleep, Bruxism (Sleep spindles and K complexes) Stage 3: Deepest non-REM sleep (delta-slow wave)  
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Which T cell type regulates the humoral response   T-Helper Cells 2 -Augment humoral (Plasma cell) response Generate IL-4 and IL-5  
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What is a reason why a woman might have primary amenorrhea (hint: congential)   turner syndrome  
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What is a syringomyelia   Cystic cavity within spinal cord (C8-T1) Crossing anterior spinal commissural fibers are damaged  
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What symptoms are commonly seen in patients with syringomyelia   Cape-like bilateral loss of pain and temp sensation in upper extremities (fine touch preserved)  
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What type of skin cancer is associated with arsenic exposure in coal miners   Squamous cell carcinoma  
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Which one will be able to increase the blood pressure of a hypotensive patient   Phenylephrine  
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What are the steps in the conversion of vitamin D to its active form in the body   D3 from sun exposure in skin. D2 ingested from plants. Both converted to 25-OH in liver and to 1,25-(OH)2 (active form) in kidney  
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By what mechanism does vitamin D help prevent osteoporosis   Increases absorption of dietary Ca2+ and Phosphate Increases bone resorption -> Increased Ca2+ and Phosphate  
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What landmarks are used when placing an internal jugular central venous catheter   Between the medial and lateral heads of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and lateral to the carotid artery in most cases  
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What is a reason why a woman might have primary amenorrhea? (hint:hymen)   imperfortate hymen  
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What is a reason why a woman might have primary amenorrhea? (hint: congential)   mullerian delayed agenesis  
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What can occur if a MAO inhibitor (MAOI) is added to an SSRI   Serotonin syndrome  
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Rx for Serotonin Syndrome   Treatment: Stop serotonergic drugs Benzodiazepine Supportive care Cyproheptadine (5-HT2 receptor antagonist)  
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Clavulanic acid, sulbactam, and tazobactam aid penicillins in their activity against bacteria through what mechanism   Beta-lactamase inhibitor  
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What is the most common benign tumor of the salivary gland?   pleomorphic adenoma  
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What is a Warthin's tumor   Warthin tumor: (papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum) is a benign cystic tumor with germinal centers  
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What cranial nerve goes through the parotid gland   CN VII goes through parotid gland  
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Membranous glomerular diseases involve thickening of what structure   Basement membrane Membranous nephropathy  
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Which bacteria are most commonly responsible for sialadenitis   Bacteria: Staph a. and Viridans strep  
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What condition most commonly predisposes a patient to sialadenitis   Predisposes: sialolithiasis (stone obstruction of salivary gland)  
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What important secretory products are secreted from the following cells of the GI tract? (hint: G cells)   Gastrin  
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What important secretory products are secreted from the following cells of the GI tract (hint: I cells)   Cholecystokinin (CCK)  
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What important secretory products are secreted from the following cells of the GI tract? (hint: S cells)   Secretin  
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What important secretory products are secreted from the following cells of the GI tract? (hint: D cells)   Somatostatin  
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What important secretory products are secreted from the following cells of the GI tract (hint: pariteal cells)   Gatric acid and IF  
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What important secretory products are secreted from the following cells of the GI tract (hint: chief cells)   Pepsinogen  
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What is the antidote for warfarin anticoagulation or warfarin overdose   Warfarin overdose: Vitamin K, plasma (if active bleeding)  
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What is the antidote for heparin overdose   Heparin overdose: Protamine sulfate  
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Most common cause of neural tube defects   Folate Deficiency  
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Most common cause of congenital malformations in the US   Alcohol  
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Most common cause of congenital mental retardation in the US   Fetal Alcohol Syndrome  
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Sx Hyperflexible joints, arachnodactyly, aortic dissection, lens dislocation   Marfan's Syndrome  
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Sx Hereditary nephritis, cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss   Alport Syndrome  
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Sx Ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis   Horner's Syndrome  
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Amyloid deposits in gray matter of the brain   Senile plaques in Alzheimer's Disease  
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HALLMARK Drooling farmer   Organophosphate poisoning  
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Sx Inability to breastfeed, amenorrhea, cold intolerance   Sheehan's Syndrome  
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Sx Infertility, galactorrhea, bitemporal hemianopsia.   Prolactinoma  
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Most common causes of Cushing syndrome (4)   1) Exogenous Steroids 2) Ectopic ACTH--small cell lung cancer 3) Cushing Disease--pituitary tumor 4) Adrenal Adenoma  
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Most common tumor of the adrenal gland   Adrenal Adenoma  
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Most common tumor of the adrenal medulla (in adults)   Pheochromocytoma  
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Most common tumor of the adrenal medulla (in kids)   Neuroblastoma  
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Most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism   Adrenal Adenoma  
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Medical treatment for hyperaldosteronism   Spironolactone or Eplerenone  
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Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and hyperparathyroidism   MEN 2A  
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Pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and mucosal neuromas   MEN 2B  
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Adrenal disease associated with skin hyperpigmentation   Addison's Disease  
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HTN, hypokalemia, metabolic acidosis   Conn Syndrome  
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Most common thyroid cancer   Papillary Carcinoma  
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Cold intolerance   Hypothyroidism  
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Enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nuclei   Papillary Carcinoma of the thyroid  
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Most common infections seen in chronic granulomatous disease   Bugs producing catalase: Candida Aspergillus Staph aureus Klebsiella E. coli  
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Eczema, recurrent URI, high serum IgE   Hyper-IgE Syndrome aka Job's Syndrome  
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Large lysosomal vesicles in phagocytes   Chediak-Higashi Syndrome  
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Dark purple nodules on the skin in an HIV infected patient   Kaposi's Sarcoma  
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Large cells with owl's eye inclusions   CMW  
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Treatment of CMV   Ganciclovir  
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Most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients   PCP  
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Drug used to prevent Pneumocystis pneumonia   TMP-SMX  
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Dysphagia, glossitis, and Fe deficiency anemia   Plummer-Vinson Syndrome  
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Hematemesis with retching   Mallory-Weiss Tear  
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Specialized columnar epithelium seen in a biopsy from the distal esophagus   Barrett Esophagus  
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Biopsy of a patient with esophagitis reveals large pink intranuclear inclusions and host cell chromatin that is pushed to the edge of the nucleus   HSV  
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Biopsy of a patient with esophagitis reveals enlarged cells, intranuclear and cytoplasmy inclusions, and a clear perinuclear halo   CMV  
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An esophageal biopsy reveals lack of ganglion cells between the inner and outer muscular layers   Achalasia  
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Biopsy of a mass in the parotid gland reveals a double layer of columnar epithelial cells resting on a dense lymphoid stroma   Warthin's Tumor  
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Protrusion of the mucosa in the upper esophagus   Esophageal web  
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Outpouching of all layers of the esophagus found just above the LES   Epiphrenic Diverticulum  
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Basal cell hyperplasia, eosinophilia, and elongation of the lamina propria papilla seen in biopsy of the esophagus   Chronic GERD  
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Goblet cells seen in the distal esophagus   Barrett Esophagus  
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A PAS stain on a biopsy obtained from a patient with esophagitis reveals hyphate organisms   Candida  
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Esophageal pouch found in the upper esophagus   Zenker Diverticulum  
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Stomach biopsy reveals neutrophils above the BM, loss of surface epithelium, and fibrin-containing purulent exudate   Acute Gastritis  
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Stomach biopsy reveals lymphoid aggregates in the lamina propria, columnar absorptive cells, and atrophy of glandular structures   Chronic Gastritis  
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Diffuse thickening of gastric folds, elevated serum gastrin levels, biopsy reveals glandular hyperplasia without foveolar hyperplasia   Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome  
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Mucin-filled cell with a peripheral nucleus   Signet Ring cells  
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Most common type of stomach cancer   Adenocarcinoma  
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Ovarian metastases from gastric cancer   Krukenberg tumor  
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Gastric ulcerations and high gastrin levels   Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome  
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Acute gastric ulcer associated with elevated ICP or head trauma   Cushing Ulcer  
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Acute gastritis ulcer associated with severe burns   Curling Ulcer  
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Painless jaundice   Pancreatic Cancer  
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Most common cause of acute pancreatitis   Gallstones & alcohol  
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Most common cause of chronic pancreatitis   Alcohol  
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Small intestinal mucosa laden with distended macrophages in the lamina propria that are filled with PAS+ granules and rod-shaped bacilli seen by electron microscopy   Whipple's Disease  
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Gluten Sensitivity   Celiac Sprue  
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Total or subtotal atrophy of the small bowel villi, plasma cells, and lymphocytic infiltration into the lamina propria and epithelium, and hyperplasea/elongation of the crypts   Celiac Sprue  
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Weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy and hyperpigmentation   Whipple's Disease  
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Anti-transglutaminase/anti-gliadin/anti-endomysial antibodies   Celiac Disease  
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Vitamin given to pregnant women to prevent NT defects   Folate  
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Newborn with chronic diarrhea, failure to thrive, and chronic Candida   SCID  
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TG accumulation in hepatocytes   Fatty Liver  
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Eosinophillic inclusion in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes   Mallory Bodies from Alcoholic Hepatitis  
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Cancer closely linked to cirrhosis   Hepatocellular Carcinoma  
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Severe hyperbilirubinemia in a neonate   Crigler-Nagir, Type I  
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Mild, benign hyperbilirubinemia   Gilbert's or Crigler-Nagir, Type 2  
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Hepatomegaly, abdo pain, ascites   Budd-Chiari Syndrome  
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Green/yellow corneal deposits   Wilson's Disease  
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Low serum ceruloplasmin   Wilson's Disease  
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Cirrhosis, diabetes, and hyperpigmentation   Hemochromatosis  
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Preferred anticoagulant for immediate anticoagulation   Heparin  
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Preferred anticoagulant for long-term anticoagulation   Warfarin  
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Preferred antocoagulant during pregnancy   Heparin  
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A boy with self-mutilating behavior, mental retardation, and gout   Lesch-Nyan Syndrome  
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Elevated Uric Acid Levels (4)   Gout Lesch-Nyhan Tumor Lysis Loop or Thiazide Diuretics  
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Bluish-colored lines on the gingivae   Lead Poisoning: Berton's Lead Lines  
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Causes of hypochromic, microcytic anemia   Fe Deficiency Thalassemia Lead Poisoning  
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Hypersegmented neutrophils   Megaloblastic Anemia: B12 or Folate Deficiency  
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Skull x-ray shows a "hair-on-end" appearance   Marrow hyperplasia: Sickle-Cell Anemia or B-Thalassemia  
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Basophilic Stippling of RBCs   Lead Poisoning  
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Painful cyanosis of the fingers and toes, with hemolytic anemia   Cold agglutinins  
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Red urine in the morning, and fragile RBCs   Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria  
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Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs   Howell-Jowell Bodies  
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Autosplenectomy   Sickle Cell Disease  
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Drug used to treat sickle cell disease   Hydroxyurea (blocks ribonucleoside reductase stopping UDP->dUMP)  
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Antiplatelet Antibodies   Immune Thrombocytopenic Purpura  
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Bleeding disorder with GpIb deficiency   Bernard-Soulier  
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Most common inherited bleeding disorder   von Willebrand Disease  
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Cancer most commonly associated with noninfectious fever   Hodgkin Lymphoma-exhibits B symtpoms  
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HALLMARK "Smudge" Cells   CLL  
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HALLMARK "Punched out" lytic lesions   Multiple Myeloma  
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HALLMARK Sheets of lymphoid cells with a "starry sky" appearance   Burkitt Lymphoma  
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HALLMARK RBCs clumped together like a stack of coins   Rouleaux Formation-Multiple Myeloma  
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HALLMARK Monoclonal AB spike   Multiple Myeloma MGUS Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia  
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HALLMARK Reddish-pink rods in the cytoplasm of leukemic blasts   Auer Rods-AML  
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HALLMARK Large B Cells with bilobed nuclei and prominent "owl eye" inclusions   Reed-Sternberg cells-Hodgkin Lymphoma  
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Most common leukemia in children   ALL  
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Most common leukemia in adults   CLL  
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HALLMARK Characteristic Auer Rods   AML  
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Myelodysplastic syndromes have a tendency to progress to this   AML  
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Myeloproliferative disorders may progress to this   AML  
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More than 20% blasts in the marrow   Acute Leukemia  
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Leukemia with more mature cells and <5% blasts   Chronic Leukemia  
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HALLMARK PAS (+) acute leukemia   ALL  
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HALLMARK Commonly presents with bone pain   ALL  
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HALLMARK Numerous basophils, splenomegaly, and negative for leukocyte alkaline phosphatase   CML  
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HALLMARK Always positive for the Philadelphia Chromosome   CML  
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Acute leukemia positive for peroxidase   AML  
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Solid sheets of lymphoblasts in marrow   ALL  
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PAS (-) acute leukemia   AML  
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Rx Treatment choice for Rickets or Osteomalacia   Vit D  
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Swollen gums, poor wound healing, bleeding mucous membranes, and spots on the skin   Scurvy- Vit C deficiency  
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Most common cancer of the appendix   Carcinoid Tumor  
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Most common surgical emergency   Appendicitis  
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GI hamartomas, hyperpigmentation of the mouth, hands and genitalia   Peutz-Jegher's  
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Multiple colon polyps, osteomas, soft tissue tumors   Gardner's Syndrome  
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Severe RLQ pain with rebound tenderness   Appendicitis  
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HALLMARK Apple core" lesion on barium enema   Colon Cancer  
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Most common cause of RLQ pain   Appendicitis  
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Most common cause of LLQ pain   Diverticulitis  
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Most common cause of RUQ pain   Cholecystitis  
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Colonoscopsy reveals very friable mucosa extending from the rectum to the distal transverse colon   Ulcerative Colitis  
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Most common site of colonic diverticula   Sigmoid colon  
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HALLMARK "String sign" on contrast x-ray   Crohn's Disease  
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HALLMARK "Lead pipe" appearance of colon on contrast x-ray   Ulcerative Colitis  
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Food poisoning due to exotoxin   B. cereus [rice]; S. aureus [all others]  
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Osteomyelitis in sickle cells disease   Salmonella  
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Food poisoning as a result of mayonnaise sitting out too long   S. aureus preformed toxin  
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Diarrhea caused by gram (-) nonmotile organism that does not ferment lactose   Shigella  
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Rice-water stool   Vibrio cholera  
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Diarrhea caused by an S-shaped organism   Yersinea  
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Food poisoning from reheated rice   B. cereus  
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Diarrhea caused by gram (-) motile organism that doesn't ferment lactose   Salmonella  
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Most common cause of "traveler's" diarrhea   ETEC  
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Diarrhea after a course of antibiotics   C. difficile  
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Diarrhea caused by gram (-) lactose fermenting bacteria, no fever   E. coli  
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Diarrhea caused by gram (-) comma-shaped organism, no fever   Vibrio  
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Diarrhea + recent ingestion of water from a stream   Giardia/Entamoeba histolytica  
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Food poisoning from undercooked hamburger meat   O157:H7  
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Ring-enhancing brain lesion in an HIV-infected patient   Toxoplasma  
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Treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis   Metronidazole for patient & sex partner  
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Most common protozoal diarrhea   Giardia Lamblia  
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Most common helminth infection in the US   Enterobius vermicularis  
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Second most common helminth infection in the US   Ascaris lumbricoides  
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Cause of malaria   Cause of malaria Plasmodium  
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What enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation during protein synthesis   rRNA (ribozyme) Peptidyl transferase  
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What conditions are associated with target cells (HALT)   HbC Thalassemia Aplenia Liver disease  
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What name is given to anemia resulting from mechanical destruction of erythrocytes due to aortic stenosis or prosthetic heart values   Macroangiopathic hemolytic anemia  
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Where do platelets come from   megakaryocytes  
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Primary hemostasis   platelet plug  
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What is inside an endothelial cell   vWF Factor VIII Thromboplastin tPA PGI2  
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What is vWF made up of   Several subunits linked by disulfide bonds, synthesized by endothelial cells and megakaryocytes  
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Where are vWF specifically stored in the endothelial cells   Weibel-palade bodies and alpha-granules of platelets  
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vWF function   Complexes with factor VIII Platelet adhesion to vessel wall and other platelets (def > Increased bleeding time)  
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A deficiency of vWF would look like what coagulation cascade def   Factor VIII (Increased PTT) Hemophilla A  
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vWF uses what glycoprotein to bind to platelets   GpIb  
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Platelet content (10)   vWF COX ADP, PDGF, serotonin, fibrinogen, lysosomal enzymes, thromboxane A2, calcium, thrombin  
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What does ADP do   Helps platelets adhere to endothelium by realising GpIIb/IIIa  
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GpIIb/IIIa function   Binds to fibrinogen and forms cross-links among platelets (aggregation)  
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Aspirin   NSAID Inhibits COX 1 and 2 (permanently by covalent acetylation)  
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Aspirin   Leads to inhibition of TXA2 (decreases platelet aggregation) and Prostaglandin  
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Aspirin   Increases BT, no effect on PT or PTT  
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Aspirin indications   Antipyretic (Reduce fever) Analgesic (reduce pain) Anti-inflammatory Antiplatelet Acute MI Acute coronary syndromes Acute thrombotic stroke MI prevention  
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Aspirin side effects   Gastric ulceration Tinnitus Hyperventilation Respiratory alkalosis Chronic use: Acute renal failure, interstitial nephritis, Upper GI bleeding  
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Why should one not give children with a viral sickness aspirin   Reye syndrome (Hepatic encephalopathy Liver problems Hypoglycemia Mitochondrial abnormalities  
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Ticlopidine, Clopidogrel, Ticagrelor, Prasugrel   Blocks ADP receptors -Prevents expression of GpIIb/IIIa - Inhibits platelet aggregation  
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Why would you give an ADP receptor inhibitor instead of aspirin   You give them these drugs in case of allergy to aspirin  
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ADP receptor inhibitor indications   Acute MI Coronary stenting Decreased incidence or recurrence of thrombotic stroke (Post-MI) Aspirin allergy  
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ADP receptor inhibitor side effects   Neutropenia (ticlopidine) TTP (ticlopidine)  
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Abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Inhibitors   Inhibits Gp IIb/IIIa (directly) - Inhibits platelet aggregation  
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What is Abciximab made from   Monoclonal antibody Fab fragments  
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What are Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Inhibitors indications   Unstable angina (NSTEMI) Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty  
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Platelet disorder labs   PT, PTT, INR= Normal Bleeding time = increased  
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Platelet disorder clinical presentation   Bleeding from mucous membranes Epistaxis Petechiae (microhemorrhages) Purpura  
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Platelet disorders   Immune thrombocytopenia purpura (ITP) Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura (TTP) Bernard-Souiler syndrome Glanzmann thrombashenia  
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ITP lab findings   Low platelet count Increased bleeding time Increased megakaryocytes (biopsy)  
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ITP be either acute or chronic. Who is more prone to acute ITP and chronic ITP   Acute= children Chronic= women of childbearing age  
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ITP can be associated with   Viral sickness or Lupus  
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ITP treatment   Steroids IV Ig Splenectomy  
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TTP lab findings   Decreased platelet count Increased bleeding time Schistocytes Increased LDH  
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TTP is assc. with what other disorder   HUS (Hemolytic Uremic syndrome)  
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What bacteria is HUS associated with; especially kids   E. coli O157:H7  
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Bernard-Soulier disorder labs   No change/decreased platelet count Increased Bleeding time Also no agglutination on ristocetin cofactor assay  
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Glanzmann thrombasthenia   Defect in platelet plug formation Decreased GpIIb/IIIa (defect in platelet-platelet formation) Low aggregation  
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Glanzmann thrombasthenia labs   Increased bleeding time Normal platelet count Agglutination with ristocetin cofactor assay  
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Thrombocytopenia caused by other factors (Low platelet count)   Heparin induced Aplastic anemia  
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von Willebrand disease (AD)   Defect in vWF > Increased PTT (similar to Factor 8 def) Defect in platelet plug formation: decreased vWF > defect platelet-vWF adhesion  
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von Willebrand disease lab findings   No change in platelet count Increased bleeding time No change in PT Increased PTT  
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Mixed platelet and coagulation disorders   von Willebrand disease DIC  
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von Willebrand disease diagnosis   Ristocetin cofactor assay (Decreased agglutination= (+)  
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von Willebrand disease treatment   (DDAVP) Desmopressin: releases vWF from Weibel-pallade bodies in endothelium  
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DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation)   Widespread activation of clotting Consumes platelets and coagulations factors Hypercoagulable (Bleed time increased)  
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DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) lab findings   Low platelets Increased bleeding time Increased PT and PTT Schistocytes Increased fibrin split products (D-dimers) Decreased fibrinogen (consuming) Decreased factors V and VIII (consuming)  
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DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation) causes   STOP Making New Thrombi Sepsis (Gm -) Trauma Obstetric complications acute Pancreatitis Malignancy Nephrotic syndrome Transfusion  
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What else can increase d-dimers (fibrin split products)   Snake Venom  
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What cytokines are increased in DIC   TNF and IL-1  
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Platelet Stimulation   Activation - Secretion of ADP, PDGF, serotonin, fibrinogen, lysosomal enzymes, thromboxane A2, calcium, thrombin - Thrombin: fibrinogen → fibrin - Thromboxane A2 → vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation  
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What is the underlying pathophysiology in thrombotic throbocytopenic purpura (TTP)   Deficiency of the metalloprotease ADAMTS 13  
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What is the cause of ITP   Anti-GpIIb/IIIa antibodies binds to receptors on platelets and then immune systems removes platelets by splenic macrophages  
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What is the classic triad of HUS?   Hemolysis Uremia Thrombocytopenia  
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What is the classic pentad of TTP   Nasty Fever Torched His Kidneys  
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What is the defect in Bernard-Soulier disease   Decreased GpIb = defect in platelet to vWF adhesion  
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What is the life span of a platelet (which is also the maximum life of platelets after a transfusion)   8-10 days  
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What molecule is expressed on the surface of a platelet after it becomes activated   GpIIb/IIIa  
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NSAIDs inhibit the production of which substance important in platelet aggregation?   Thromboxane A2  
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After a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery,the new mom bleeds profusely from her vagina and later from her gums. What abnormal lab values would you suspect   DIC: Decreased platelets Increased bleeding time Increased PT and PTT Increased D-Dimer  
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What is the mechanism of action of each of the following drugs? Streptokinase   Directly or Indirectly aid conversion of plasminogen to plasmin  
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What is the mechanism of action of each of the following drugs? Aspirin   Inhibits COX 1 and 2  
🗑
What is the mechanism of action of each of the following drugs? Clopidogrel   ADP receptor inhibitor  
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What is the mechanism of action of each of the following drugs? Abciximab   Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Inhibitor  
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What is the mechanism of action of each of the following drugs? Tirofiban   Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Inhibitors  
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What is the mechanism of action of each of the following drugs? Ticlopedine   ADP receptor inhibitor  
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What is the mechanism of action of each of the following drugs? Enoxaparin   Low-molecular weight heparin Activatior of antithrombin (decreases thrombin and factor Xa)  
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What is the mechanism of action of each of the following drugs? Eptifibatide   Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa Inhibitors  
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Antiplatelet antibodies   ITP  
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Bleeding disorder with gpIb deficiency   Bernard-Soulier syndrome  
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Most common inherited bleeding disorder   vWF disease  
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What are the 3 different mechanisms cells employ to break down proteins   Ubiquitin protein ligase Lysosomes Calcium-dependent enzymes  
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Which medication used in the treatment of HIV is known for causing bone marrow suppression   NRTIs (Zidovudine)  
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What is the treatment for lead poisoning   Adult vs Children Adult: EDTA and Succimer Children: Succimer, EDTA, Dimercaprol  
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Intravascular hemolysis is going show   A decrease in serum haptoglobin Increase LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) Schistocytes Increased reticulocytes Hemoglobinuria/Hemosiderinuria Urobilinogen in urine  
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Intravascular hemolysis is going show   a decrease in serum haptoglobin Increase LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) Schistocytes Increased reticulocytes Hemoglobinuria/Hemosiderinuria Urobilinogen in urine  
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Extravascular hemolysis is going show   Macrophages in spleen clear RBCs Spherocytes in peripheral smear Increase LDH (lactate dehydrogenase) No hemoglobinuria/hemosiderinuria Increased unconjugated bilirubin (jaundice)  
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Intravascular hemolysis is caused by   Mechanical hemolysis (Prosthetic valve) Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia  
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Extravascular hemolysis diseases (5)   Hereditary spherocytosis G6PD deficiency Pyruvate Kinase Def HbC defect Sickle cell anemia  
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Intrinsic hemolytic normocytic anemia diseases (Problem within RBCS)   Hereditary spherocytosis G6PD deficiency Pyruvate Kinase Def HbC defect Sickle cell anemia Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria  
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Hereditary spherocytosis   Defect in protein interacting with RBC membrane skeleton and plasma mem.  
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What is MCHC   Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration  
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Hereditary spherocytosis clinical findings   Splenomegaly Aplastic crisis (Parvovirus B19  
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Hereditary spherocytosis diagnostic test?   Osmotic fragility test- Increase lysis  
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Hereditary spherocytosis treatment?   Splenectomy (HOWELL-JOLLY bodies)  
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G6PD deficiency   Most common enzymatic disorder of RBCs X-linked recessive Defect in G6PD > Decreased glutathione > increased RBC susceptibility to oxidant stress  
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Oxidative stress factors are   Sulfa drugs, antimalarials, infections, fava beans  
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G6PD deficiency labs   Blood smears shows RBCs with Heinz bodies (clumps of hemoglobin) and bite cells (macrophages cause this)  
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G6PD deficiency symptoms   Back pain, hemoglobinuria a few days after oxidant stress  
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Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency   AR Decreased ATP > rigid RBCs (swelling & hemolysis) Swelling due to defect in Na+/K+ ATPase Common in newborns  
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Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria Characteristics What test would you use to test for it?   Increased complement-mediated RBC lysis (impaired synthesis of GPI anchor for decay-accelerating factor that protects RBC membrane from complement) Missing CD55 and CD59 = flow cytometry (+) Ham's test=RBC lysis at low pH  
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Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria triad   Coomb (-) hemolytic anemia Pancytopenia Venous thrombosis  
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Sickle cell disease   HbS point mutation causes a single amino acid replacement in Beta chain (Sub. glutamic acid with valine)  
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What factors cause sickling of RBCs   Low O2 tension Dehydration High altitude Acidosis  
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What infectious disease are people with sickle cell anemia resistant to? What type of people are more prone to this trait?   Heterozygous (sickle cell trait) = resistance to malaria 8% of African americans  
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Why are newborns at first asymptomatic to sickle cell disease   Because of the increased HbF in and decreased HbS  
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Sickle cell complications   Aplastic crisis (parvovirus B19) Autosplenectomy (howell-jolly bodies) and Infections from SHiNE SKiS Salmonella osteomyelitis Painful crises (vaso-oclusive) Renal papillary necrosis due to hypoxemia and microhematuria  
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What can be seen on skull x-ray in sickle cell patients   "Crew cut" on skull due to marrow expansion from increased erythropoiesis  
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Sickle cell disease treatment   Hydroxyurea (increased HbF) Hydration  
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HbC defect Common in newborn   Heterozygous for hemoglobin C: Asymptomatic Homozygous for hemoglobin C: -Mild hemolysis and splenomegaly HbC point mutation causes a single amino acid replacement in Beta chain (Sub. glutamic acid with lysine)  
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Extrinsic hemolytic normocytic anemia diseases (Problem outside RBCS)   Autoimmune hemolytic anemia Microangiopathic anemia Macroangiopathic anemia Infections  
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Autoimmune hemolytic anemia   Warm agglutinin (IgG) Cold agglutinin (IgM) Coombs (+)  
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Microangiopathic anemia   RBCs are damaged when passing through obstructed or narrow vessel lumina  
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Microangiopathic anemia can be caused by   DIC, TTP/HUS, SLE, and Malignant HTN  
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Schistocytes   "Helmet cells" Seen on blood smear due to mechanical destruction of RBCs  
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Macroangiopathic anemia   Prosthetic heart valves and aortic stenosis may cause hemolytic anemia, secondary to mechanical destruction Present with schistocytes  
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Infections causing hemolytic anemia   Malaria (Plasmodium spp.) Babesia  
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A child anemic since birth has now been cured with splenectomy. What is the disease   Hereditary spherocytosis  
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What is the difference between the hemoglobin S defect and the hemoglobin C defect?   HbS is a point mutation of B-globin (by sub. of glutamic acid for valine) HbC is a point mutation of B-globin (by sub. of glutamic acid for lysine)  
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Coombs' (+)   RBC agglutination with the addition of antihuman antibody because RBCs are coated with immunoglobulin or complement proteins  
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Direct Coombs' (DAT)   "Type and screen"  
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What is the difference between a warm agglutinin and a cold agglutinin   Cold: Antibodies against RBCs that interact more strongly at low temps (4°C) than at body temp Warm: Antibodies that react against RBC protein antigens at body temperature  
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What are schistocytes   Mechanically destructed RBCs  
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What are two protozoal diseases that can cause hemolytic anemia   Plasmodium spp. Babesia  
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What findings are associated with hereditary spherocytosis   Anemia Jaundice Pigmented gallstones Splenomegaly (+) osmotic fragility test Coomb (-) Spherocytes in peripheral smear  
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Cold Agglutinins   Antibodies against RBCs that interact more strongly at low temps (4°C) than at body temp  
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Warm Agglutinins   Antibodies that react against RBC protein antigens at body temperature = chronic anemia  
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HALLMARK Ham's test   Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria  
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HALLMARK Heinz bodies   G6PD deifcency  
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HALLMARK DEB test   Fanconi anemia  
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HALLMARK Osmotic fragility test   Hereditary spherocytosis  
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HALLMARK Basophilic stippling   Lead poisoning Thalassemia  
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Sx Painful cyanosis of the fingers and toes, with hemolytic anemia   Cold agglutinins  
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Autosplenectomy   Sickle cell disease  
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Drug used to treat sickle cell disease   Hydroxurea  
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What is the target HgbA1C for every diabetic patient   <7.0  
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What are the fiver hereditary thrombosis syndrome   Antithrombin deficiency Factor V Leiden Protein S deficiency Protein C deficiency Prothrombin gene mutation  
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Which Mycobacterium spp. fits each of the following description? Causes leprosy   Mycobacterium leprae  
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Which Mycobacterium spp. fits each of the following description? Causes pulmonary TB-like symptoms in COPD patients   M. tuberculosis  
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Which Mycobacterium spp. fits each of the following description? Causes cervical lymphadenitis in children   M. Scrofulaceum  
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Which Mycobacterium spp. fits each of the following description? Causes a disseminated disease in AIDS patients   M. avium-intraceullulare  
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Which Mycobacterium spp. fits each of the following description? Hand infection in aquarium   M. marinum  
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Atrial fibrillation What are some charcteristics?   Irregularly spaced ORS complexes Irregular baseline No steady rhythm (SA node dysfunction) (Multiple SA nodes) No coordinated atrial contraction = no discrete P waves  
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Atrial fibrillation can cause   Atrial stasis (pooling) and lead to thrombosis>emboli  
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Atrial fibrillation can also cause SVTs? What is an SVT? How is it caused?   SVT= Supraventricular tachycardia It is caused by the increased signals by the multiple SA nodes to the AV node can cause frequent ventricular depolarization  
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Atrial fibrillation treatment? New vs Chronic   New: <48 hrs = synchronized cardioversion  
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Rate control drugs? Rhythm control drugs?   Chronic: Heparin, enoxaparin Coumadin Rate control (digoxin, Beta-blockers, CCBs) Rhythm control (sotalol, amiodarone)= Potassium channel blockers  
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Why do you not cardioverse a chronic atrial fib   This can cause a thrombus to dislodge and form emboli, due to the heart resetting the contraction  
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HALLMARK Atrial flutter characteristics   Sawtooth appearance on EKG  
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First Degree Heart Block   PR interval prolonged (>200 msec or 5 little boxes) Asymptomatic  
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First Degree Heart Block can be caused by what drug   CCBs (Toxicity= Increased PR interval)  
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What bacterial infection can cause an AV node block   Borrelia burgdorgeri (Lyme disease)  
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Second degree (Mobitz 1) Heart Block (Wenckebach) What is the major fact about it?   Unsteady rhythm PR intervals increase, until beat drop Every QRS complex is followed by a P-wave, but every P-wave doesn't followed by a QRS complex Benign  
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What type of pattern is seen in Second degree (Mobitz 1) Heart Block   Regularly Irregular  
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Second degree (Mobitz 2) Heart Block Characteristics? What can is progress to? What is it treated with?   Unsteady rhythm No increae in PR intervals except for DROP (abrupt) Can progress to 3rd degree block Treated with pacemaker  
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Third degree heart block Characteristics? What bacterial disease assc. with? Treatment?   Steady rhythm Decreased HR Atria and Ventricular beat independently (SA no communicating with AV) Narrow QRS complex Ventricular rate is slower, atrial faster Treated with pacemaker Lyme disease  
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Wolf-Parkinson-White Syndrome   Ventricular pre-excitation syndrome Accessory conduction pathway from atria to ventricle Bypass AV node (shortened PR interval) Goes through bundle of Kent Ventricles partially depolarize earlier  
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Ventricles partially depolarizing earlier brings about what characteristics   Delta waves with widened QRS and shortened PR intervals  
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Wolf-Parkinson-White Syndrome can result it in   Reentry ciruit > SVTs  
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Wolf-Parkinson-White Syndrome treat with   Class IA (procainmide) and III (amiodarone)  
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Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia Caused by   Originates above the AV node Can be caused by AV nodal reentrant tachycardia Narrow QRS  
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Junctional Escape Rhythm   Delayed heartbeat no originating from SA node, signal is coming from AV junction Protective mechanism is SA node is dysfunctional, then another area of heart fires off heart beats P-wave location can change depending on where signal originated from  
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Ventricular premature beats or PVC (Premature ventricular contraction)   Early occurring wide QRS complexes Microentery at Purkinje fibers No P waves, widened QRS  
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Ventricular bigeminy   Occurs when a ventricular premature beat follows each sinus beat  
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Ventricular trigeminy   2 sinus beats followed by a ventricular premature beat  
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Ventricular Escape Rhythm   Failure for SA and AV nodes So no P waves and get widened QRS complexes Longer than avg R to R intervals persistent rhythm leads to ventricular complexes Persistence can lower rate < sinus rhythm  
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Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)   3 or more successive ventricular complexes  
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Nonsustained vs Sustained   Nonsustained VT: -Series of repetitive ventricular beats -Duration <30secs Sustained VT: Duration >30secs  
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Monomorphic VT   Rhythm is normal Slight irregularity of R-R intervals QRS axis shifted to left Width of QRS >0.6 secs  
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What happens if Monomorphic VT is sustained? treat with?   hemodynamic collapse; Treat: async defibrillation and CPR  
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Torsades de Pointes   Polymorphic VT Shifting sinusoidal waveforms Progress to V. Fib Wide QRS and tachycardia Long QT interval predisposes  
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What causes Torsades de Pointes? Treatment?   Hypokalemia Hypomagnesemia Drugs Treat: Magnesium sulfate  
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Ventricular Fibrillation   A completely erratic rhythm with NO identifiable waves. Fatal w/o CPR or defib  
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What is the initial treatment for ventricular fibrillation   Monomorphic: defibrillation and CPR  
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What is the hallmark of a third degree heart bloc   independent beating of atrium and ventricle  
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What drugs are know to prolong QT interval, increasing the likelihood of torsades in those at risk   Antibiotics (macrolide) Antiemetics (ondansetron) Antidepressants (TCA) Antiarrhythmics (Class 1A and 3) Antipsychotics (haloperidol)  
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What are the two different types of second degree AV block? How do they differ?   Mobitz type 1: Increasing PR interval then drop Mobitz type 2: No warning, normal PR interval + drop  
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Why is warfarin anticoagulation important in patients with chronic atrial fibrillation?   Prevents any thrombosis to form due to atrial stasis (pooling)  
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What is the fibrous band attached to the testis and scrotum that aids in normal testicular descent? What is this structure called in females?   Gubernaculum Female Remnant: Ovarian ligament + Round ligament of uterus  
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What is Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?   Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia AD disorder of blood vessels. Findings: telangiectasia, recurrent epistaxis, skin discolorations, arteriovenous malformations (AVMs), GI bleeding, hematuria.  
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Which studies use odds ratios, and which use relative risks?   Case-control uses Odds ratio Cohort uses Relative Risk  
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What are the effects of NSAIDs' inhibition of PGE2?   Increased vascular tone-vasoconstriction Increased bronchial tone- bronchoconstriction  
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What role do prostaglandins and angiotensin II play on the renal arterioles?   prostaglandins: Dilate afferent arteriole (Increases RPF, GFR, so FF remains constant) Angiotensin II: Constricts efferent arteriole Decreases RPF, Increases GFR, so FF increases)  
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What is the mechanism of action of the following antiemetics? Scopolamine   Antimuscuranic (M1)  
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What is the mechanism of action of the following antiemetics? Promethazine   Histamine antagonist D2 dopamine antagonist  
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What is the mechanism of action of the following antiemetics? Prochlorperazine   D2 dopamine antagonist  
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What is the mechanism of action of the following antiemetics? Metoclopramide   D2 receptor antagonist  
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What is the mechanism of action of the following antiemetics? Ondansetron   5-HT3 antagonist  
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What are the 3 endogenous androgens, in order from the most potent to the least potent   DHT > testosterone > androstenedione  
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How does a decrease in renal artery pressure cause an increase in blood pressure   JG cells secrete renin in response to decreased renal blood pressure, decreases NaCl delivery to distal tubule, and Increases sympathetic tone (β1). Angiotesinogen > Angiotensin I > Angiotensin II  
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What physiologically is taking place in decompression sickness   Gases (especially nitrogen) that had dissolved in the blood at high pressures form gas bubbles that can occlude blood vessels  
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Is a 34-year-old schizophrenic patient having active hallucinations, who is not oriented to time, place, or person, able to legally agree to a plan of care?   No  
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What factors must be in place in order for a patient to have the capacity to make a decision?   Patient is ≥ 18 years old or otherwise legally emancipated Patient makes and communicates a choice Patient is informed (knows and understands) Decision remains stable over time Decision is consistent with patient's values and goals, not clouded by a m  
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The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for each of the following body sensations/activities? Auditory sensation   MGN (Medial Geniculate)  
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The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for each of the following body sensations/activities? Visual sensation   LGN (Lateral Geniculate)  
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The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for each of the following body sensations/activities? Motor to the body   VL (Ventral Lateral)  
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The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for each of the following body sensations/activities? Facial sensation   VPM (Ventral Posteromedial)  
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The thalamus is a relay station that conducts signals to and from the brain. Which thalamic nuclei are the relay stations for each of the following body sensations/activities? Body sensation   VPL (Ventral Posterolateral)  
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What is PPAR-γ   Peroxisome Proliferator-activated Receptor Gamma  
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How is it relevant to the treatment of diabetes mellitus?   Plays a role in adipocyte differentiation Nuclear transcription regulator Through Glitazones/thiazolidinediones It increases the insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissue  
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A 23-year-old man recently finished treatment to eradicate the lice infestation that he acquired during a recent trip to Mexico. What organism might be responsible for this man's recurrent fever?   Borrelia recurrentis  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Retina Neuroectoderm  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Salivary glands Surface ectoderm  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Pancreas Endoderm  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Muscle of Abdominal wall Mesoderm  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Thymus Endoderm  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Spleen Mesoderm  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Aorticopulmonary septum Neural Crest  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Anterior pituitary Surface ectoderm  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Posterior pitutary Neuroectoderm  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Bones of skull Neural Crest  
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What germ layer gives rise to each of the following adult structures   Cranial nerves Neural Crest  
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Left to Right Shunts; what are they? (3)   ASD, VSD, PDA  
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What are the clinical uses for 1st (PEcK), 2nd (HEN PEcKS), 3rd, and 4th generation cephalosporins   1st gen- Gm (+), Proteus m., E.coli, Klebsiella  
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What are the clinical uses for 2nd gen-cephalosporins   Haemophilus influenzae, Enterobacter a., Neisseria spp., Gm (+), Proteus m., E.coli, Klebsiella, Serratia m.  
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What are the clinical uses for 3rd gen-cephalosporins   Serious gram-negative infections resistant to other Beta-lactams, Pseudomonas, Neisseria gonorrhea  
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What are the clinical uses for 4th gen cephalosporins   (Cefepime)- Gm (-), increase activity against Pseudomonas and Gm (+) organisms  
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What are the classic symptoms of carcinoid syndrome   (BFDR) Brochospasm and wheezing cutaneous flushing Diarrhea Right-sided valvular disease  
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Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) is caused by   Hole in the interatrial septum  
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What type of murmur do you hear in an ASD?   Loud S1; wide fixed spilt S2  
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What can be seen on X-ray in ASD?   RVH  
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Ventricular septal defect   Most common congenital heart defect  
🗑
Defect in intraventricular septum   40% close in first 6 months of life  
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Ventricular septal defect can cause what   If lesion is too large it can cause LV overload or HF  
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Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) is caused by   Prostaglandin synthesis and low O2 tension f infant is born through C-section  
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What type of murmur do you hear in a Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)   Continuous, "machine-like" murmur Left upper sternal border of the newborn  
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Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) treatment   Indomethacin (blocks PGE synthesis)  
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When is PDA to remain open   When a patient has Transposition of the great vessels, to allow some oxygenated blood to mix with the deoxygenated blood (systemic)  
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Eisenmenger Syndrome Severe   long-standing L to R shunt Increased pulmonary flow> pathologic remodeling of vasculature > pulmonary arterial htn RVH occurs to compensate > shunt becomes right to left  
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Eisenmenger Syndrome symptoms   Later cyanosis, clubbing, polycythemia, and SOB  
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Coarctation of the Aorta (infantile)   Infantile: Aortic narrowing near intersection of ductus arteriosus ("juxtaductal") - only blood flowing to distal aorta is from PDA. (Req open PDA)...Assc. with Turner Syndrome  
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Coarctation of the Aorta (adult)   Distal to ductus arteriosus, Once PDA is closed remnant = Ligamentum aretiosum  
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Once PDA is closed the remnant is   Ligamentum aretiosum  
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Coarctation of the Aorta symptoms   Hypertension in upper extremities and weak delayed in lower extremities (brachial-femoral delay) Rib notching on chest X-ray (Dilated intercostal arteries) Can also lead to aortic regurg.> HF  
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Right to Left shunts   Early cyanosis- "blue babies" (bypass pulmonary circuit)  
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Requires surgery or an open PDA   right to left shunts  
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Right to Left Shunt Diseases (5 Ts) (hint: TAPVR (5 letters in name)   Truncus arteriosus (1 vessel) Transposition (2 switched vessels) Tricuspid atresia (3= Tri) Tetralogy of Fallot (4 =Tetra) TAPVR (5 letters in name)  
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Persistent truncus arteriosus   Failure of truncus arteriosus to divide into pulmonary trunk and aorta Deoxy blood of RV mixes with Oxy blood of LV Cyanosis, Respiratory distress, HF May have VSD  
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D-transposition of Great Vessels (TGA) What does it req. to be compatible with life? What medication should be give to help shunts?   Aorta and Pul. artery are switched so Aorta leaves RV and Pulmonary a. leaves LV. Separation of pulmonary and systemic circulation Cyanosis is significant Prostaglandins  
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Who are more prone to TGA?   Infant Diabetic Mothers  
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LGA (Large for gestational age)   Infants suffer from shoulder dystocia, clavicular fractures, brachial plexus injury (Erb or Duchenne's palsy) Increased C-section  
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Tricuspid atresia   Absent tricuspid valve and hypoplastic RV Require ASD and VSD  
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Tetralogy of Fallot   Caused by anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum (MC cause of early cyanosis)  
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4 components of Tetraology of Fallot   Pulmonary infundibular stenosis RVH Overriding aorta VSD  
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What helps with the spells of cyanosis in Tetralogy of Fallot   Squatting=Increase SVR, Decreases R>L shunt, improves cyanosis  
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Tetralogy of Fallot classic x-ray finding is   RVH or Boot-shaped heart in infant  
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Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR) Open or closed loop? What is needed to keep patient alive?   Pulmonary veins drain into right atria circulation (SVC, Coronary sinus) Closed loop Without shunt patient will die  
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What is the most common congenital cardiac anomaly   VSD  
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Ebstein anomaly   Associated with Maternal Lithium use Physical exam: widely split S2, tricuspid regurgitation  
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Explain how the great vessels are attached in a transposition of the great vessels   Aorta and Pul. artery are switched so Aorta leaves RV and Pulmonary trunk leaves LV. Separation of pulmonary and systemic circulation  
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What heart defect is associated with deletion of Chromosome 22q11 deletions   Tetralogy of Fallot Persistent Truncus arteriosus  
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Describe blood flow through a PDA   L > R shunt Aorta > Pulmonary artery  
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What heart defect is associated with Down syndrome   Endocardial cushion defect; Can cause abnormal connection of all 4 chambers of the heart  
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A 45-year-old man presents with a BP of 160/90 on the right arm and 170/92 on the left arm.There are no palpable pulses in the feet/ankle. What problem does this patient most likely have?   Coarctation of the Aorta  
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What heart defect is associated with each of the following disorders: Congenital rubella   PDA Pulmonary artery stenosis  
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What heart defect is associated with each of the following disorders? Turner syndrome Infantile coarctation   Bicuspid aortic valves Infective endocarditis  
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What heart defect is associated with each of the following disorders? Marfan syndrome   Aortic insufficiency Continuous machinery-like heart murmur PDA  
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HALLMARK "Boot-shaped heart"   RVH or Tetralogy of Fallot  
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HALLMARK Rib notching   Coarctation of aorta  
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Most common congenital cause of early cyanosis   Tetralogy of Fallot  
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Where does erythropoiesis take place in the fetus (4)?   Fetus: Yolk Sac. Liver, spleen, bone marrow  
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Which bones in adults synthesize RBCs (7)?   Adults:Vertebrae, Sternum, Pelvis, Ribs, cranial bones, and tibia & femur  
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Rx Next step in treatment of otitis media if resistant to amoxicillin   Amoxicillin + Clavulanic acid (beta-lactamase inhibitor)  
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Rx Prophylaxis against bacterial endocarditis   1st gen cephalosporin, Aminopenicillins, and Penicillin V  
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Rx Increases the nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides   Cephalosporins  
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Rx Sufficient for the treatment of syphilis   Penicillin G  
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Rx Single dose treatment for gonorrhea   Ceftriaxone  
🗑
What divides the right and left atria   Septum primum and secundum  
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How is blood shunted from the right atrium to the left atrium in an embryo   Foramen ovale and ostium secundum  
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What structure grows to close the opening/canal between the atrial chamber and ventricular chamber into two smaller openings   Superior and Inferior endocardial cushion  
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What genetic abnormality is commonly associated with endocardial cushion defects   Trisomy 21  
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Truncus arteriosus and Aorticopulmonary septum arises from what type of cells   Neural crest cells  
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Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to each of the following adult structures? Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk   Truncus arteriosus  
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Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to each of the following adult structures? Smooth parts of the left and right ventricles   Bulbis Cordis  
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Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to each of the following adult structures? Trabeculated parts of the left and right ventricles   Primitive Ventricle  
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Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to each of the following adult structures? Trabeculated left and right atria   Primitive Atrium  
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Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to each of the following adult structures? Coronary sinus   Left horn of sinus venosus  
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Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to each of the following adult structures? Smooth part of the right atrium   Right horn of sinus venosus  
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Which embryologic structure of the heart gives rise to each of the following adult structures? SVC   R. common cardinal vein and right anterior cardinal vein  
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What vessel carries oxygenated blood from placenta to fetus   Umbilical vein  
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Areas of shunting in fetal blood flow   Ductus venosus Foramen Ovale Ductus arteriosus  
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What starts shutting down fetal circulation, and gives rise to adult circulation   Breathing (respiration)  
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Common to hear what murmur in the first 24 hrs of life, and then it disappears   PDA  
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Which fetal vessel has the highest oxygenation   Umbilical Vein  
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What structure divides the truncus arteriosus into the aortic and pulmonary trunks? What is the cellular origin of this structure?   Aorticopulmonary septum (Spiral) Neural Crest cells  
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What causes the ductus arteriosus to close   Breathing Increased O2 and decreased prostaglandins [Indomethicin] (Drug to help close PDA)  
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What causes the foramen ovale to close   Breathing Decrease resistance in pulmonary vasculature > increase in left atrial pressure vs. right atrial pressure  
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Order of oxygenation from highest to lowest (3)   Umbilical Vein> Ductus venosus> IVC> R. atrium  
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What are some of the clinical uses for somatostatin   Pituitary excess: Acromegaly, TSH-secreting tumor, ACTH-secreting tumor GI endocrine excess: Carcinoid syndrome, ZES syndrome, VIPoma, glucagonoma, insulinoma Diarrhea Reduce splanchnic blood circulation: Cirrhosis with bleeding esophageal varices  
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What is the name given to a thyroid hormone-secreting teratoma   Mature teratoma (struma ovarii)  
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Hypothyroidism symptoms   Constipation Lowering of the voice Menorrhagia Slowed mental and physical function Dry skin with coarse, brittle hair Reflexes showing slow return phase Myxedema (facial/periorbital) Weight gain Cold intolerance  
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Levothyroxine   Synthetic analog of thyroxine (T4)  
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Why should you start Levothyroxine at a low does for elderly patients   Can cause tachycardia, heat intolerance, arrythmias  
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Triiodothyronine   Synthetic analog of T3  
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Cretinism findings? (6 P's)   Poor brain development Pot-bellied Pale Puffy-faced Protuding umbilicus Protuberant tounge  
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Hashimoto thyroiditis   Most common cause of hypothyroidism in the U.S. Autoimmune disorder Painless goiter (nontender)  
🗑
Hashimoto thyroiditis diagnosis   Antithyroglobulin and Antithyroid peroxidase antibodies Assc. with HLA-DR5 and HLA-B5  
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Hashimoto thyroiditis histology findings? What are these cells called?   Dense infiltrates (germinal centers) of lymphocytes into thyroid. Hurthle cells  
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Hashimoto thyroiditis can cause an increased risk in what lymphoma?   Non-Hodgikin lymphoma (Marginal Zone) (B-cell)  
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Hashimoto thyroiditis can start off as hyperthyroidism because?   Thyrotoxicosis during follicular rupture  
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Hashimoto thyroiditis can also be assc. with what other diseases (3)   Diabetes, Sjrojen syndrome, and Pernicious anemia  
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Subacute (de Quervain) Thyroiditis   Hypothyroidism with a PAINFUL (tender) goiter Self-limited disease  
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Subacute (de Quervain) Thyroiditis can start off as what?   Hyperthyroidism  
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Subacute (de Quervain) Thyroiditis causes what to the thyroid?   Focal destruction with Granulomatous inflammation  
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Subacute (de Quervain) Thyroiditis has an increase or decrease of ESR?   Increase  
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Subacute (de Quervain) Thyroiditis is associated with?   HLA-B35, Effects Females (3:1)  
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Subacute (de Quervain) Thyroiditis often follows what?   Viral infection (Flu-like) or URI  
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Riedel's thyroiditis caused by?   Riedel's thyroiditis caused by? Chronic inflammation of thyroid > fibrous tissue (Hypothyroid or euthyroid)  
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Riedel's thyroiditis presents as? Histology?   Fixed, hard, rock-like thyroid Painless goiter Histology: Macrophages and Eosinophils  
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Prolonged Riedel's thyroiditis in a younger patient can lead to? Mimics what cancer?   Extension of fibrosis which may extend to airway or other structures. Anaplastic carcinoma  
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Radioiodine uptake scan increased   Grave's disease or multinodular goiter , or even a single toxic adenoma  
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Radioiodine uptake scan decreased   Adenoma or Carcinoma or thyroid  
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Papillary carcinoma   Most common thyroid cancer Great prognosis Female predominance MC during 30s-50s  
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HALLMARK Papillary carcinoma   "Orphan Annie" eyes or "Ground Glass" appearance or Psammoma bodies (concentric calcfications)  
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Papillary carcinoma risk factor   Exposure to childhood irradiation Increased RET and BRAF mutation  
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Follicular carcinoma   2nd most common thyroid cancer Worse prognosis  
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Follicular carcinoma diagnosis   Uniform cubodial cells lining the follicles Invade thyroid capsule  
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What differs follicular carcinoma and follicular adenoma   Invasion of capsule occurs in carcinoma  
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How does Follicular carcinoma spread   Hematogenously  
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Follicular adenoma of thyroid   Benign tumor of thyroid Proliferation of follicles surrounded by capsule NO invasion  
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Medullary carcinoma of thyroid   Proliferation of parafollicular "C" cells  
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Parafollicular "C" cells like to secrete   Calcitonin  
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Medullary carcinoma of thyroid assc. with   MEN 2A and 2B (RET mutations)  
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Anaplastic carcinoma of thyroid   Anaplastic undifferentiated neoplasm Older patients  
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Thyroidectomy complications? (3)   Hoarseness (Recurrent laryngeal nerve) Hypocalcemia (removal of parathyroid glands) Transection of recurrent and superior laryngeal nerves (during ligation of inferior thyroid artery and superior laryngeal artery)  
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What type of thyroid cancer matches each of the following statements? Most common type of thyroid cancer (70-75%)   Papillary carcinoma  
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What type of thyroid cancer matches each of the following statements? Second most common type of thyroid cancer (10%)   Follicular carcinoma  
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What type of thyroid cancer matches each of the following statements? Activation of receptor tyrosine kinases   Papillary and Follicular carcinoma  
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What type of thyroid cancer matches each of the following statements? Hashimoto thyroiditis is a risk factor   B-cell Lymphoma  
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What type of thyroid cancer matches each of the following statements? Cancer arising from parafollicular C cells   Medullary carcinoma  
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What type of thyroid cancer matches each of the following statements? Commonly associated with either a RAS mutation or a PAX8-PPAR gamma 1 rearrangement (LY)   Follicular carcinoma  
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What type of thyroid cancer matches each of the following statements? Commonly associated with rearrangements in RET oncogene or NTRK1   Papillary carcinoma  
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What type of thyroid cancer matches each of the following statements? Most common mutation in the BRAF GENE (serine/threonine kinase)   Papillary carcinoma  
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Cold tolerance   Hypothyroidism  
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Enlarged thyroid cells with ground-glass nuclei   Papillary carcinoma  
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Hypothyroidism will cause elevation LDL and cholesterol. Why?   (Hypercholesterolemia) Due to decreased LDL receptor expressio  
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What are the characteristics of narcolepsy   Excessive daytime sleepiness Rapid progression from walking state to REM sleep Cataplexy (sudden muscular weakness) Hallucinations  
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What is the treatment for narcolepsy   Daytime stimulants:(Amphetamines/Modafinil) and Nighttime sodium oxybate (GHB)  
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What is the first-line treatment for a patient with erectile dysfunction   Phosphodiesterase inhibitors Sildenafil Vardenafil Tadalafil If hypogonadal: Testosterone replacement  
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What other drugs are used to treat Crohn disease that target TNF-α   Infliximab and adlimumab  
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With what physical exam finding must you presume scaphoid fracture despite a normal initial x-ray   Anatomical snuffbox tenderness = scaphoid fracture  
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What might result in a proximal fracture of the scaphoid if left untreated   Avascular necrosis in the proximal fragment  
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During what week of fetal development will the fetus reach the following landmarks? Implantation   Week 1  
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During what week of fetal development will the fetus reach the following landmarks? Organogensis   Week 3-8  
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During what week of fetal development will the fetus reach the following landmarks? Heart begins to beat   Week 4  
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During what week of fetal development will the fetus reach the following landmarks? can distinguish male or female genetalia   Week 10  
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During what week of fetal development will the fetus reach the following landmarks? gastrulation   Week 3  
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During what week of fetal development will the fetus reach the following landmarks? Formation of primitive streak and neural plate   Week 3-4  
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What is a cholesteatoma, and how does it present   Overgrowth of desquamated keratin debris within middle ear space May erode ossicles, mastoid air cells > conductive hearing loss and vertigo Grayish-white pearly lesion behind TM  
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What are the adverse reactions of exogenous testosterone in males   Premature puberty in children Premature closure of epiphyseal plate Erythrocytosis Worsening of sleep apnea Suppression of spermatogenesis Increased LDL and Decreased HDL  
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What is the initial medical treatment for the arrhythmia known as torsades de pointes   IV Magnesium sulfate  
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What structures give rise to the blood brain barrier   Tight junctions between nonfenestrated capillary endothelial cells Basement membrane Astrocyte foot processes  
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Which diuretics are most appropriate for patients with hyperaldosteronism? What are their important side effects?   K+-sparing diuretics Spironolactone, Amiloride, Triamterene, Eplerenone Competitive aldosterone receptor antagonist Hyperkalemia:SE  
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Diagram the pathway by which the cochlea communicates a signal to the primary auditory cortex.   Cochlea > Cochlear nuclei > Contralateral superior olivary nucleus > Lateral lemniscus > Inferior colliculus > Medial geniculate body > Primary auditory cortex  
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What clinical presentation might lead you to suspect a patient may have lymphoma   Weight loss, night sweats, fever, and painless lympadenopathy  
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Most common leukemia in children   ALL  
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Most common leukemia in adults in US   CLL  
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Characteristic Auer rods   AML  
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Greater than 20% blasts in marrow   Acute Leukemia  
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Leukemia with more mature cells and less than 5% blasts   Chronic leukemia  
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PAS (+) acute leukemia   ALL  
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Always positive for the Philadelphia chromosome (t 9;22)   CML  
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Acute leukemia positive for PEROXIDASE   AML  
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Solid sheets of lymphoblasts in marrow   ALL  
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Always associated with the BCR-ABL genes   CML  
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What histological change takes place in the trachea of a smoker   Meteplasia (columnar to squamous)  
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Major Depressive Disorder   Self-limited episode that must be present for atleast 2 weeks Decreased NE and Serotonin  
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Common Antidepressants   SSRI- inhibits reuptake of serotonin SNRI- inhibits reuptake of serotonin and NE TCA- inhibits reuptake of serotonin and NE MAOI- monoamine oxidase inhibitor  
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Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)   Used for depression that isn't responding to any other treatments  
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Treatment for atypical depression   First-line: SSRI  
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"Maternal (postpartum) blues"   50-85% incidence rate Depressed affect, tearfulness, and fatigue (2-3 days after delivery) Resolves in a week Support + follow-up= treatment  
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What is postpartum depression   Postpartum depressive symptoms that persist for more than or equal to 2 weeks 10-15% incidence rate Depressed affect Anxiety Poor conc.  
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Postpartum psychosis   0.1-0.2% incidence rate Mood-congruent delusions Hallucinations Thoughts of harming baby/self Few days to few weeks Rx. Antipsychotics/Antidepressants  
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Dysthmia   Persistent depressive disorder Often milder Lasts at least 2 years  
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Seasonal affective disorder   Mild depression during winter months (due to decreased sunlight) Rx. Go outside or go on vacation  
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Risk factors for Suicide   SAD PERSONS scale: Sex (male) Age (under 19 or over 45) Depression Previous attempts Ethanol (alcohol/drug use) loss of Rational thinking Sickness Organized plan No social support Stated future intent  
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Who tries to commit suicide more? Who succeeds?   Women: try Men: succeed  
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What is atypical depression   Hypersomnia Hyperphagia Mood reactivity Hypersensitivity to rejection Leaden paralysis Common subtype of Depression  
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A 28-year-old woman has symptoms of mild depression for 6 years. What's the diagnosis   Dysthymia  
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A 55-year-old man who is a smoker and heavy drinker presents with a new cough and flu-like symptoms. Gram-stain shows no organisms; silver stain of sputum shows gram-negative rods. What is the diagnosis?   Legionairres disease  
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What is the classic presentation of a patient with temporalis arteritis? What lab findings help diagnose temporalis arteritis   Migranes (unilateral), loss of vision, pain when chewing Increased ESR and Biopsy (definitive)  
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SSRIs   Used for Depression, Bulimia, general anxiety, and OCD, Premenstrual dysmorphic disorder Inhibit re-uptake of serotonin Takes weeks for it have any effect Less toxic  
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Side effects of SSRI   Sexual dysfunction and Serotonin syndrome  
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Drugs associated with Serotonin Syndrome? (8)   SSRIs SNRIs MAOIs St. Johns Wort Kava Kava Tryptophan Cocaine Amphetamines  
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Treatment for Serotonin Syndrome   Cool patient down and provide benzodiazepine (first line) Or Cyproheptadine (5-HT2 receptor blockers)  
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Side effects of SNRIs   Increased BP, sedation, nausea  
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TCAs (Tricyclic Antidepressants)   Inhibit serotonin and NE re-uptake (Amitrptyline and Clomipramine-OCD) Older drug Depression Imipramine= bedwetting (enuresis)  
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Side effects of TCAs   Sedation Alpha blocking effects Anticholinergic effects Decrease seizure threshold (desipramine and nortripyline not as much)  
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Rx Treatment for TCA overdose   NaHCO3 to prevent arrhythmia (to alkalinized the urine)- excretes TCAs  
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Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOI)   Nonselective MAO inhibition which increases levels of amine neurotransmitter (NE, 5-HT, and Dopamine)  
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What is Selegiline used for   Parkinsonism-like symptoms, so it increases dopamine  
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MAOI side effects? What is "wash-out" period   Tachycardia and arrhythmia Must wait 2 weeks after stopping MAOI before starting new drug  
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Bupropion   Used for smoking cessation Increases NE and dopamine by decreasing reuptake NDRI (NE and Dopamine reuptake inhibitor) Lowers seizure threshold NO sexual dysfunction  
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Mirtazapine   Alpha-2 antagonist (pre-synaptic nerve terminals of adernergic neurons) Increase NE and 5-HT Also potent 5-HT2 & 5-HT3 receptor blockers Sedation, Increased appetite, weight gain  
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Trazodone   Blocks 5-HT2 and alpha-1 receptors Good for Insomnia Side effect: priapism, sedation, postural hypotension  
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What is the MOA of each of the following medication classes? SSRI   5-HT inhibition re-uptake  
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What is the MOA of each of the following medication classes? SNRI   Inhibit serotonin and NE re-uptake  
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What is the MOA of each of the following medication classes? TCA   Inhibit serotonin and NE re-uptake (older)  
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What is the MOA of each of the following medication classes? MAOI   Nonselective MAO inhibition which increases levels of amine neurotransmitter (NE, 5-HT, and Dopamine)  
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SSRI drugs (5)   Fluoxetine, Sertraline, Paroxetine, Citalopram, Fluvoxamine  
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TCA drugs   Notriptyline, Imipramine, Amitriptyline, Desipramine, Clomipramine, Doxepin  
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MAOI drugs (3)   Selegiline, Tranylcypromine, Phenelzine  
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NDRI drugs   Bupropion  
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SNRI drugs (3)   Venlafaxine and Duloxetine, Milnacipran  
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Tetracyclic drugs (2)   Mirtazapine and Trazodone  
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Which antidepressant matches each of the following statements? SE:priapism   Trazodone  
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Which antidepressant matches each of the following statements? Lowers the seizure threshold   Burpropion and TCAs  
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Which Rx matches each of the following statements? Works well with SSRIs and increases REM sleep   Trazadone  
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What are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome?   Hyperthermia Myoclonus Hyperreflexia Flushing and Diarrhea Autonomic instability (HTN and Increased HR) Mental status change Neuromuscular abnormalities  
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Which antidepressant matches each of the following statements? Appetite stimulant that is likely to result in weight gain   Mirtazapine  
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Which antidepressant matches each of the following statements? Bedwetting in children   TCAs (imipramine)  
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What are the symptoms of TCA overdose? Tri-Cs   Convulsions Coma Cardiotoxicity (arrhythmias) Respiratory depression Confusion and hallucination Hyperpyrexia  
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Which antidepressant matches each of the following statements? Smoking cessation   Bupropion  
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What happens if you ingest tyramine while on MAOIS?   Hypertensive crisis Hemorrhagic stroke Cardiac arrythmias  
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What drug is associated with the following side effects? Dry mouth, tinnitus, blurred vision, mania   Amitriptyline (due to anticholinergic effects)  
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Tendon xanthomas   Familial hypercholesteremia  
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Café-au-lait spots   NF-1 and Mccune albright  
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Tuft of hair on lower back   Spina bifida occulta  
🗑
What structures are at risk for injury with an anterior shoulder dislocation?   Axillary nerve Posterior circumflex a. Supraspinatus tendon Anterior glenohumoral ligament Glenoid labrum Posterolateral humoral head  
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What are the layers of the epidermis   Corneum Lucidum Granulosum Spinosum Basalis  
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Candida Albicans   Thrush found in top of mouth and tongue Can be scraped off (leave bleeding mucosa) Common in immunocompromised (AIDS, diabetes, steroids, neonates)  
🗑
Vulvovaginitis   Caused by Candida albicans Severe itching Edema and discomfort Vaginal discharge Acidic env  
🗑
Candida albicans deep infections? Cause what?   Common in Drug users Endocarditis Dissemiated candidiasis Chronic mucocutaneous candidasis (immundef)  
🗑
Candida albicans diagnosis   When placed in serum: Develops germ tubes at 37 degrees Pseudohypahe and budding yeasts at 20 degrees  
🗑
Candida albicans treatment   Topical azloe- vaginal Nystatin, Fluconazole, or Caspofungin - oral/esophageal Caspofungin, Fluconazole, and amphotericin B- systemic  
🗑
Cryptococcus neoformans How does it replicate? Where is it found? Cultured on?   Heavily encapsulated Narrow based-budding- Rep. Found in soil and pigeon dropping Cultured on Sabouraud agar  
🗑
Cryptococcus neoformans diagnosed using   India Ink (stains polysaccharide capsule) Mucicarmine (stains red)  
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Cryptococcus neoformans antigen test used   Latex agglutination test detects polysaccharide capsular antigen and is more specific  
🗑
Cryptococcus neoformans lesions look like? What is the disease assc.   Soap Bubble in brain (Cryptococcal meningoencephalitis)  
🗑
Cryptococcal meningitis treatment   Combo of Amphotericin B + Flucytosine and then followed by single-therapy Fluconazole  
🗑
Pneumocystis jirovecii What disease does it cause? Who does it affect?   Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP) Diffuse intersitisl pneumonia Aytpical pneumonia (walking pneumonia) Asymptomatic normally Symptomatic for Immunosuppressed  
🗑
Pneumocystis jirovecii diagnosis   Identified in tissue or bronchial lavage using silver stain Chest imaging shows: Ground-glass opacities of interstital infiltrates  
🗑
Pneumocystis jirovecii treatment   TMP/SMX (Bactrim)  
🗑
When do you start PCP prophylaxis on HIV patients? (TMP-SMX)   Start when CD4+ count drops <200 cells/mm3  
🗑
Aspergillus fumigatus (MOLD)   Can cause: Allergic reactions (ABPA) Colonized = Aspergilloma (fungus ball) after Tb Invasive aspergillus (immunocompromised)  
🗑
Aspergillus fumigatus diagnosis   Narrow septate hyphae that branch at acute angles (less than 45 degrees)  
🗑
Aspergillus fumigatus treatment   Combo ("-Azole" + Amphotericin B)  
🗑
Mucor and Rhizopus   Cause mucormycosis Cause disease in severely immunocompromised  
🗑
Mucor and Rhizopus diagnosis   Broad Irregular shaped, nonseptate hyphae branching at WIDE angles (90 degrees) -Ribbon-like Penetrate cribiform plate to enter bloodstream  
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Patients with diabetic ketoacidosis or leukemia are prone to develop   Rhinocerebral frontal lobe abcess: Facial pain and headache Black necrotic eschar on face Cranial nerve deficits and blindness  
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Mucor and Rhizopus treatment   Surgical debriment and amphotericin B High mortality Progression rapid  
🗑
Dermatophytes (diagnosis)   Branching septate hyphae visible on KOH prep. with blue fungal stain  
🗑
What are 4 molds that are considered dermatophytes (fungal species commonly found invading superficial layers of skin)   Trichophytin Microsporum (most prevalent) Epidermophytin Malassezia furfur  
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What infections are commonly caused by dermatophytes   Tina pedis- feet Tina cruis- groin Tinea corporis- body (ringworm) Tinea capitis- head (ringworm  
🗑
Simple cutaneous dermatophytosis treatment   Topical Terbinafine/Azoles Extensive infection or that involve scalp and hair require oral Terbinafine/Azoles  
🗑
Tinea unguium-(onchomycosis)-nails Treatment   Caused by Trichophyton rubrum Thickened discolored nails Terbinafine/Azoles (oral)  
🗑
Tinea Vesicolor Caused by? Type of yeast? Causes? Occurrence?   Caused by Malassezia furfur Lipophillic yeast Hypopigmented/hyperpigmented patches on body (back and shoulders) Effects trunk and proximal limbs Hot, humid weather  
🗑
Tinea Vesicolor diagnosis and treatment   KOH prep: spaghetti and meatballs look" Treat with topical azole (selenium sulfide)  
🗑
Systemic MYCOSES Causes? Type of fungi?   Pneumonia and disseminate Dimorphic fungi NO person to person transmission Granuloma formation (noncaseseating)  
🗑
Systemic mycoses treatment? Local: Systemic:   Local: Fluconazole/itraconazole Systemic: Amphotericin B  
🗑
Histoplama capsulatum "Histo hides"   Macrophages filled with Histoplasma (smaller than RBC) Hepatosplenomegaly  
🗑
Blastomyces dermatitidis   Inhaled Can disseminate to skin and bones Forms granulomatous nodules  
🗑
Coccidioides immitis   Exists as a spherule (filled with endospores) Arthroconidia (barrel shape) Bigger than RBC  
🗑
Coccidioides immitis can cause if severe   Desert bumps= erythema nodosum Desert rheumatism= arthralgias  
🗑
Paracoccidioides brasiliensis   Inhaled Disseminates widely Severe pneumonia, infection of mucus membranes and skin Captain Wheels formation  
🗑
Sporothrix schenckii Can cause   Sporotrichosis Dimorphic fungus Lives in soil and on vegetation Rose garderner's disease  
🗑
Rose garderner's disease How is it caused? What forms   Caused by pricks from thorns or sphagnum moss Small pustule/ulcers Nodules (painless) also form along draining lymphatics  
🗑
Sporotrichosis treatment   Itraconazole or Potassium iodide  
🗑
Found in SW U.S. including West Texas and California   Coccidiomyces  
🗑
Found in Mississippi and Ohio River basins   Histoplasma  
🗑
Found in rural Latin America   Paracoccidiomyces  
🗑
Associated with plant thorns and cutaneous injury   Sporothrix schenckii  
🗑
Causes San Joaquin Valley fever   Coccidiomyces  
🗑
Found in states east of the Mississippi River (Central America-Canada)   Blastomyces  
🗑
Found in bird and bat droppings   Histoplasma  
🗑
Causes thrush in immunocompromised patients and vulvovaginitis in women   Candida albicans  
🗑
Mold form contains barrel-shaped arthroconidia   Coccidiomyces  
🗑
Multiple budding of yeast form   Paracoccidiomyces b.  
🗑
Opportunistic mold with septate hyphae that branch at a 45° angle   Aspergillus fumigatus  
🗑
Yeast known for causing meningitis in AIDS patients   Cryptococcus meningitis  
🗑
Opportunistic mold with irregular nonseptate hyphae that branch at wide angles (>90 degrees)   Mucor and Rhizopus  
🗑
Associated with dust storms and earthquakes   Coccidiomyces  
🗑
An HIV (+) patient with CSF showing 75/mm3 lymphocytes suddenly dies. Yeast is identified in the CSF. What is the most likely diagnosis?   Cryptococcus neoformans  
🗑
Broad-based budding of yeast   Blastomyces  
🗑
What infections are associated with birds   Histoplasma capsulatum Cryptococcus neoformans Chlamydophila psittaci H5N1 Influenza (Bird Flu) West Nile Virus  
🗑
Causes diaper rash   Candida albicans Erythematous skin Satellite lesions  
🗑
Known for causing pneumonia in AIDS patients start Bactrim prophylaxis when CD4 <200   Pneumocystis jirovecii  
🗑
Most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients   Pneumocystis jirovecii  
🗑
Prophylaxis for Cryptococcus in AIDS patients   Fluconazole  
🗑
Prophylaxis for PCP in AIDS patients   TMP-SMX  
🗑
Treatment for oral candidiasis   Nystatin/Fluconazole  
🗑
Treatment for systemic candidiasis   Amphotericin B  
🗑
Opportunistic fungal infections   Candida albicans Aspergillus Cryptococcus neoformans Mucor & Rhizopus spp.  
🗑
What is the classic clinical presentation of a thyroglossal duct cyst   Presents as anterior midline neck mass that moves with swallowing or protrusion of tongue (asymptomatic) <30 yrs Can become infected (abcess)  
🗑
What conditions are associated with an elevated ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)   Most anemias Infections (osteomyletis) Polymyagia rheumatica Inflammation (Temporal arteritis) Cancer Pregnancy Autoimmune disorders (Rheumatoid)  
🗑
What is the clinical use for tiotropium   Anti-muscuranic Respiratory COPD, asthma Relax airway  
🗑
1st order velocity/kinetics   when reaction velocity is directly proportional to concentration of substrate  
🗑
Zero order velocity/kinetics   is when velocity is completely independent of concentration of substrate  
🗑
Vmax   maximum velocity the reaction can achieve Proportional to the amount of enzymes available  
🗑
Km   substrate concentration at 1/2 of Vmax Inversely related to the affinity of the enzyme for its substrate  
🗑
Lineweaver-Burk plot   x-axis: 1/S y-axis: 1/V Slope = Km/Vmax X-intercept: 1/-Km Y-intercept: 1/Vmax  
🗑
Increased y-intercept does what to Vmax   Decreases Vmax  
🗑
A shift to the right on the x-intercept (closer to zero) does what to Km and affinity   increases Km and Lowers affinity  
🗑
Competitive inhibitor does what to Vmax   it does nothing to Vmax and increases Km  
🗑
Noncompetitive inhibitor does what to Vmax   it decrease Vmax and does nothing to Km  
🗑
What 4 pharmacokinetics equations are most important to know for Step 1   1) Volume of Distribution= Amt of drug in body/plasma drug conc 2)Clearance= Rate of elimin/plasma drug conc= (0.7 x Vd/half-life) 3) Loading Dose= Conc at steady state X Vd 4)Maintenance dose= Conc at steady state x Clearance  
🗑
Half-life   the time required to change the amount of drug in the by body HALF during elimination or constant infusion  
🗑
94% steady state concentration can be achieved after how many half lives   4 Half-lives  
🗑
Efficacy   the maximal effect a drug can produce  
🗑
Potency   amount of drug needed for a given effect  
🗑
Competitive anatagonist   Shifts curve to right and lowers potency no change in efficacy Increased Km & same Vmax  
🗑
Noncompetitive antagonist or Irreversible antagonist   Shifts curve down (decrease efficacy) Decrease Vmax and same Km  
🗑
Partial agonist   Shifts curve down and left (decrease efficacy but increased potency) Decrease Vmax and Km  
🗑
What variable can you not compare between Agonist and Partial agonist   potency, because it is an independent variable  
🗑
Therapeutic index (TI)=   LD50= lethal dose to about 50% of people _____________________________________________ ED50= effective dose to about 50% of people  
🗑
Safer drugs have a   Higher therapeutic index (Increased LD50 or Decreased ED50)  
🗑
Examples of drugs with low TI? (5)   Digioxin Lithium Theophylline Warfarin Seziure drugs  
🗑
Therapeutic window   Measure of clinical drug effectiveness for a patient Higher therapeutic window= safer the drug  
🗑
How do you decreased target concentration by 1/2   you stop infusion of drug for 1 half-life  
🗑
If clearance is decreased, but Vd is unchanged, How does that effect loading dose and maintenance dose?   loading Dose would remain unchanged, but Maintenance dose would decrease.  
🗑
Where would you expect to find B cells in a lymph node   B-Cells located in Follicle of lymph node  
🗑
Where would you find T cell   T-Cell located in Paracortex of lymph node macrophages located in Medullary Sinus of lymph node Plasma cells located in Medullary Cords of lymph node  
🗑
Where would you find macrophages   macrophages located in Medullary Sinus of lymph node  
🗑
Where would you find plasma cells   plasma cells located in Medullary Cords of lymph node  
🗑
The protein derived from what gene serves as a transcription factor for the development and function of regulatory T cells   FOXP3- Found on X chromosome Codes for Forkhead Box Protein P3 Important for self-tolerance Absence= autoimmune diseases  
🗑
What is the female homologue to each of the following male structures? Corpus spongiosum   Vestibular bulbs  
🗑
What is the female homologue to each of the following male structures? Cowper's glands (bulbourethral glands)   Greater vestibular glands of Bartholin  
🗑
What is the female homologue to each of the following male structures? Prostate   Urethral and paraurethral glands of Skene  
🗑
What is the female homologue to each of the following male structures? Glans penis   Glans clitoris  
🗑
What is the female homologue to each of the following male structures? Ventral penile shaft   Labia minora  
🗑
What is the female homologue to each of the following male structures? Scrotum   Labia majora  
🗑
What important intracellular proteins are common to both the extrinsic and intrinsic apoptotic pathways?   Cytosolic caspases  
🗑
What ratio indicates fetal lung maturity? What is the proper name for the main component of pulmonary surfactant?   Lecithin:sphingomyelin ratio (>2:1) Surfactant main component = lecthins (dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine)  
🗑
What amino acids are necessary for purine synthesis   Glycine Aspartate Glutamine (GAG)  
🗑
What nutrient deficiency is associated with spooning of the nails (koilonychia)   iron  
🗑
What is the equation for determining a drug's clearance   CL= (0.7) x Vd ----------------- Half-Life  
🗑
Which bacteria are well known for being obligate intracellular bacteria   Rickettsia Chlamydia Coxiella  
🗑
Why can't obligate intracellular bacteria replicate extracellularly   because they rely on host ATP, can't make it on their own  
🗑
What is compartment syndrome, and how is it treated   Trauma/Burn/intense excercise to leg: Increased pressure within the fascial compartment Treatment: Fasciotomy  
🗑
Separates the greater and lesser sacs   Gastrohepatic ligament (right) Gastrosplenic ligament (left)  
🗑
May be cut during surgery to access the lesser sac   Gastrohepatic ligament  
🗑
2 ligaments that connect the spleen to other structures   Gastrosplenic and Splenorenal ligaments  
🗑
Contains the portal triad   Heaptoduodenal ligament  
🗑
Connects liver to the anterior abdominal wall   Falciform ligament  
🗑
Where are neurotrasmitters made   RER  
🗑
infant with failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegally, neurodegeneration   Neimann-Pick disease (genetic sphingomyelinase deficiency)  
🗑
infant with hypoglycemia, failure to thrive, and hepatomegaly   Cori's disease (debranching enzyme deficiency)  
🗑
infant with microcephaly, rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, and structural heart defect   Edward's syndrome (trisomy 18)  
🗑
infant with failure to thrive, hepatosplenomegally, neurodegeneration   Neimann-Pick disease (genetic sphingomyelinase deficiency)  
🗑
infant with hypoglycemia, failure to thrive, and hepatomegaly   Cori's disease (debranching enzyme deficiency)  
🗑
infant with microcephaly, rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, and structural heart defect   Edward's syndrome (trisomy 18)  
🗑
Jaundice, RUQ pain, fever   Charcot's triad (ascending cholangitis)  
🗑
Keratin pearls on a skin biopsy   squamous cell carcinoma (lung and cervix)  
🗑
large rash with bull's eye appearance   erythema chronicum migrans from Ixodes tick bite (Lyme Disease: Borrelia)  
🗑
Lucid interval after traumatic brain injury   epidural hematoma (middle meningeal artery rupture)  
🗑
male child, recurrent infections, no mature B cells   Bruton's disease (X-linked agammaglobulinemia)  
🗑
Mucosal bleeding and prolonged bleeding time   Glanzmann's thrombasthenia (defect in platelet aggregation due to lack of GpIIb/IIIa)  
🗑
Multiple colon polyps, osteomas/soft tissue tumors, impacted/supernumerary teeth   Gardner's syndrome (subtype of FAP)  
🗑
Necrotizing vasculitis (lungs) and necrotizing glomerulonephritis   Wegener's (c-ANCA positive) and Goodpasture's syndromes (anti-basement membrane antibodies)  
🗑
Neonate with arm paralysis following difficult birth or following clavicle fracture   Erb-Duchenne palsy (superior trunk [C5-C6] brachial plexus injury: "waiter's tip")  
🗑
no lactation postpartum, absent menstruation, cold intolerance   Sheehan's syndrome (pituitary infarction)  
🗑
Nystagmus, intention tremor, scanning speech, bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia   Multiple Sclerosis (Charcot's triad)  
🗑
Oscillating slow/fast breathing   Cheyne-Stokes respirations (central apnea in CHF or increased intracranial pressure)  
🗑
painful blue fingers/toes, hemolytic anemia   cold agglutinin disease (autoimmune hemolytic anemia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae, infectious mononucleosis)  
🗑
painful, pale, cold fingers/toes   Raynaud's syndrome (vasospasm in extremities)  
🗑
painful, raised red lesions on palms and soles   Osler's node (infective endocarditis)  
🗑
painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles   Janeway lesions (infective endocarditis)  
🗑
painless jaundice   cancer of the head of the pancreas obstructing the bile duct  
🗑
palpable purpura, joint pain, abdominal pain (child)   Henoch-Schonlein purpura (IgA vasculitis affecting skin and kidneys)  
🗑
pancreatic, pituitary, parathyroid tumors   Wermer's syndrome (MEN I)  
🗑
precocious puberty, cafe-au-lait spots, multiple unilateral bone lesions   McCune-Albright syndrome (a form of Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia)  
🗑
pink complexion, dyspnea, hyperventilation   "pink puffer" (emphysema: centroacinar [smoking], panacinar [alpha1-antitrypsin deficiency])  
🗑
polyuria, acidosis, growth failure, electrolyte imbalances   Fanconi's Syndrome (proximal tubular reabsorption defect)  
🗑
Positive anterior "drawer sign"   Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury  
🗑
ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis   Horner's Syndrome (sympathetic chain lesion)  
🗑
pupil accommodates but doesn't react   Argyll Robertson pupil (neurosyphilis)  
🗑
Rapidly progressive leg weakness that ascends (following GI/upper respiratory infection)   Guillain-Barre syndrome (autoimmune acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy)  
🗑
Rash on palms and soles   Secondary Syphilis, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, Coxsackie Virus  
🗑
Recurrent colds, unusual eczema, high serum IgE   Job's syndrome (hyper-IgE syndrome: neutrophil chemotaxis abnormality)  
🗑
Red "currant jelly" sputum in alcoholic or diabetic patients   Klebsiella pneumoniae  
🗑
Red, itchy, swollen rash of nipple/areola   Paget's disease of the breast (represents underlying neoplasm)  
🗑
red urine in the morning, fragile RBCs   paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria  
🗑
renal cell carcinoma, hemangioblastomas, angiomatosis, pheochromocytoma   von Hippel-Lindau disease (dominant tumor suppressor gene mutation)  
🗑
resting tremor, rigidity, akinesia, postural instability   Parkinson's disease (nigrostriatal dopamine depletion)  
🗑
restrictive cardiomyopathy (juvenile form: cardiomegaly), exercise intolerance   Pompe's disease (lysosomal glucosidase deficiency)  
🗑
retinal hemorrhages with pale center   Roth's spots (bacterial endocarditis)  
🗑
severe jaundice in neonate   Crigler-Najjar syndrome (congenital unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia) and lots of other causes  
🗑
Severe RLQ pain with rebound tenderness   McBurney's sign (appendicitis)  
🗑
short stature, increased incidence of tumors/leukemia, aplastic anemia   Fanconi's anemia (genetically inherited; often progresses to AML)  
🗑
single palm crease   Simian Crease (Down Syndrome)  
🗑
Situs inversus, chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis   Kartagener's syndrome (dynein defect affecting cilia)  
🗑
skin hyperpigmentation   Addison's disease (primary adrenocortical insufficiency of autoimmune or infectious etiology)  
🗑
Slow, progressive muscle weakness in boys   Becker's muscular dystrophy (X-linked, defective dystophin; less sever than Duchenne's)  
🗑
small, irregular red spots on buccal/lingual mucosa with blue-white centers   Koplik spots (measles)  
🗑
smooth, flat, moist white lesions on genitals   condylomata lata (secondary syphilis)  
🗑
splinter hemorrhages in fingernails   bacterial endocarditis  
🗑
"Strawberry tongue"   Scarlet fever, Kawasaki disease, toxic shock syndrome=streak ovaries, congenital heart disease, horseshoe kidney=turner syndrome (XO, short stature, webbed neck, lymphedema)  
🗑
sudden swollen/painful big toe joint, tophi   gout/podagra (hyperuricemia)  
🗑
swollen gums, mucous bleeding, poor wound healing, spots on skin   scurvy (vitamin C deficiency: can't hydroxylate proline/lysine for collagen synthesis)  
🗑
swollen, hard, painful finger joints   osteoarthritis (osteophytes on PIP [Bouchard's nodes], DIP [Heberden's nodes])  
🗑
systolic ejection murmur (crescendo-decrescendo)   aortic valve stenosis  
🗑
Thyroid and Parathyroid tumors, pheochromocytoma   Sipple's Syndrome (MEN 2A)  
🗑
Toe extension/fanning upon plantar scrape   Babinski's sign (UMN lesion)  
🗑
Unilateral facial drooping involving forehead   Bell's palsy (LMN CN VII palsy)  
🗑
Urethritis, conjunctivitis, arthritis in a male   reiter's syndrome (reactive arthritis associated with HLA-B27)  
🗑
Vascular birthmark (port-wine stain)   Hemangioma (benign, but associated with Sturge-Weber syndrome)  
🗑
Vasculitis from exposure to endotoxin causing glomerular thrombosis   Shwartzman reaction (following second exposure to endotoxin)  
🗑
Vomiting blood following esophagogastric lacerations   Mallory-Weiss syndrome (alcoholic and bulimic patients)  
🗑
"Waxy" casts with very low urine flow   chronic end-stage renal disease  
🗑
WBC casts in urine   acute pyelonephritis  
🗑
weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy   Whipple's disease (tropheryma whippelii)  
🗑
"worst headache of my life"   subarachnoid hemorrhage  
🗑
WBCs in urine   acute pyelonephritis and cystitis  
🗑
Autosomal Chromosome 17 mutation in tumor suppressor gene that regulates "ras" signaling   Neurofibromatosis type I  
🗑
vitamin K dependent clotting factors   II, VII, IX, and X as well as proteins C and S  
🗑
anticentromere antibodies   Scleroderma (CREST)  
🗑
Antidesmoglein (epithelial) antibodies   pemphigus vulgaris (blistering)  
🗑
anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies   Goodpasture's syndrome (glomerulonephritis and hemoptysis)  
🗑
antihistone antibodies   Drug-induced SLE (hydralazine, isoniazid, phenytoin, procainamide)  
🗑
anti-IgG antibodies (IgM)   Rheumatoid arthritis (systemic inflammation, joint pannus, boutonniere deformity)  
🗑
antimitochondrial antibodies (AMAs)   Primary Biliary cirrhosis (female, cholestasis, portal hypertension) (also pANCA present)  
🗑
antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs)   vasculitis (c-ANCA: Wegener's; pANCA: microscopic polyangiitis, Churg-Strauss syndrome, Pauci-immune crescentic glomerulonephritis)  
🗑
Antinuclear antibodies (ANAs: anti-Smith and anti-dsDNA)   SLE (type III hypersensitivity)  
🗑
Antiplatelet antibodies   Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) (bleeding diathesis)  
🗑
Anti-topoisomerase antibodies   diffuse systemic scleroderma (not CREST)  
🗑
anti-transglutaminase antibodies   Celiac disease (diarrhea, distention, weight loss)  
🗑
antigliadin antibodies   Celiac disease (diarrhea, distention, weight loss)  
🗑
anti-endomysial antibodies   celiac disease (diarrhea, distention, weight loss)  
🗑
azurophilic granular needles in leukemic blasts   auer rods (acute myelogenous leukemia: especially the promyelocytic type)  
🗑
"Bamboo spine" on x-ray   ankylosing spondylitis (chronic inflammatory arthritis: HLA-B27)  
🗑
Basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs   Howell-Jolly bodies (due to splenectomy or nonfunctional spleen)  
🗑
Basophilic stippling of RBCs   Lead poisoning or siderblastic anemia  
🗑
Bloody tap on LP   Subarachnoid hemorrhage  
🗑
"Boot-shaped" heart on x-ray   Tetralogy of Fallot, RVH  
🗑
Branching gram-positive rods with sulfur granules   actinomyces israelii  
🗑
bronchogenic apical lung tumor   pancoast's tumor (can compress sympathetic ganglion and cause Horner's syndrome)  
🗑
"Brown" tumor of bone   Hemorrhage (hemosiderin) causes brown color of osteolytic cysts. Due to: 1. hyperparathydoidism 2. Osteitis fibrosa cystica  
🗑
Cardiomegaly with apical atrophy   Chagas' disease (typanosoma cruzi)  
🗑
cellular crescents in Bowman's capsule   rapidly progressive crescentic glomerulonephritis  
🗑
"chocolate cyst" of ovary   endometriosis (frequently involves both ovaries)  
🗑
circular groupoing of dark tumor cells surrounding pale neurofibrils   Homor Wright rosettes (neuroblastoma, medulloblastoma, Ewing Sarcoma)  
🗑
Colonies of mucoid Pseudomonas in lungs   Cystic fibrosis (CFTR mutation in Caucasians resulting in fat-soluble vitamin deficiency and mucous plugs)  
🗑
abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly   Budd-Chiari syndrome (posthepatic venous thrombosis- no JVD)  
🗑
Achilles tendon xanthoma   familial hypercholesterolemia (increased LDL leads to deposits)  
🗑
Adrenal hemorrhage, hypotension, DIC   Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (meningococcemia)  
🗑
arachnodactyly, lens discoloration, aortic dissection, hyperflexible joints   Marfan's syndrome (fibrillin defect)  
🗑
athlete with polycythemia   erythropoietin injection  
🗑
back pain, fever, night sweats, weight loss   Pott's disease (vertebral tuberculosis) with caseating granulomas  
🗑
Bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis    
🗑
blue sclera   Osteogenesis imperfecta (type I collagen defect)  
🗑
bluish line on gingiva   Burton's line (lead poisoning)  
🗑
bone pain, bone enlargement, arthritis, increased alk phos   PAGET'S DISEASE of bone (increased osteoblastic and osteoclastic activity)  
🗑
Bounding pulses, diastolic heart murmur, head bobbing   aortic regurgitation  
🗑
Cafe-au-lait spots, Lisch nodules (iris hamartoma)   Neurofibromatosis type I (+pheochromocytoma, optic gliomas) Neurofibromatosis type II (+bilateral acousitc neuromas)  
🗑
Cafe-au-lait spots, polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, precocious puberty   McCune-Albright syndrome (mosaic G-protein signaling mutation)  
🗑
Calf pseudohypertrophy   muscular dystrophy (most commonly Duchenne's)  
🗑
"Cherry-red spot" on macula   Tay-Sachs (ganglioside accumulation) or Niemann-Pick (sphingomyelin accumulation), central retinal artery occlusion  
🗑
Chest pain, pericardial effusion/friction rub, persistent fever following MI   Dressler's syndrome (autoimmune-mediated post-MI fibrinous pericarditis, 1-12 weeks after acute episode)  
🗑
Child uses arms to stand up from squat   Gowers' sign (Duchenne muscular dystophy: X-linked recessive deleted dystrophin gene)  
🗑
Child with fever develops red rash on face that spreads to body   "Slapped cheeks" (erythema infectiosum/fifth disease: parvovirus B19)  
🗑
chorea, demetnia, caudate degeneration   Huntington's disease (autosomal-dominant CAG repeat expansion)  
🗑
chronic exercise intolerance with myalgia, fatigue, painful cramps   McArdle's disease (muscle phosphorylase deficiency)  
🗑
Cold intolerance   hypothyroidism  
🗑
conjugate lateral gaze palsy, horizontal diplopia   internuclear ophthalmoplegia (damage to MLF; bilateral [multiple sclerosis], unilateral [stroke])  
🗑
continuous "machinery" heart murmur   PDA (close with indomethacin; open with misoprostol)  
🗑
cutaneous/dermal edema due to connective tissue deposition   myxedema (hypothyroidism, Graves' disease)  
🗑
Dark purple skin/mouth nodules   Kaposi's sarcoma (usually AIDS patients [gay men]: associated with HHV-8)  
🗑
Deep, labored breathing/hyperventilation   Kussmaul breathing (diabetic ketoacidosis)  
🗑
Dermatitis, dementia, diarrhea, death   pellagra (niacin [vitamin B3] deficiency)  
🗑
dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, polyneuropathy   wet beriberi (thiamine [vitamin B1] deficiency) -> dry is without dilate cardiomyopathy and edema  
🗑
dog or cat bite resulting in infection   Pasteurella multocida (cellulitis at inoculation site)  
🗑
dry eyes, dry mouth, arthritis   Sjogren's syndrome (autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands)  
🗑
Dysphagia (esophageal webs), glossitis, iron deficiency anemia   Plummer-Vinson syndrome (may progress to esophageal squamous cell carcinoma)  
🗑
elastic skin, hypermobility of joints   Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome (collagen defect, usually type III)  
🗑
enlarged, hard left supraclavicular node   virchow's node (abdominal metastasis)  
🗑
erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, atypical T cells   Sezary syndrome (cutaneous T-cell lymphoma) or mycosis fungoides  
🗑
facial muscle spasm upon tapping   Chvostek's sign (hypocalcemia)  
🗑
fat, female, forty, and fertile   Chvostek's sign (hypocalcemia)  
🗑
fever, chills, headache, myalgia following antibiotic treatment for syphilis   Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction (rapid lysis of spirochetes results in toxin release)  
🗑
Fever, cough, conjunctivits, coryza, diffuse rash   measles (morbillivirus)  
🗑
fever, night sweats, weight loss   B symptoms (lymphoma) or TB  
🗑
Fibrous plaques in soft tissue of penis   Peyronie's disease (connective tissue disorder)  
🗑
gout, mental retardation, self-mutilating behavior in a boy   Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (HGPRT deficiency, X-linked recessive)  
🗑
Green-yellow rings around peripheral cornea   Kayser-Fleischer rings (copper accumulation from Wilson's disease)  
🗑
Hamartomatous GI polyps, hyperpigmentation of mouth/feet/hands)   Peutz-Jeghers syndrome (genetic benign polyposis can cause bowel obstruction; increase cancer risk  
🗑
Hepatosplenomegaly, osteopososis, neurologic symptoms   Gaucher's disease (glucocerebrosidase deficiency)  
🗑
Hereditary nephritis, sensorineural hearing loss, cataracts   Alport's syndrome (type IV collagen mutation)  
🗑
hypercoagulability (leading to migrating DVTs and vasculitis)   Trousseau's sign (adenocarcinoma of pancreas or lung)  
🗑
Hyperphagia, hypersexulaity, hyperorality, hyperdocility   Kluber-Bucy syndrome (bilateral amygdala lesion)  
🗑
Hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis   Conn's syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)  
🗑
hypoxemia, polycythemia, hypercapnia   "blue bloater" (chronic bronchitis: hyperplasia of mucous cells)  
🗑
indurated, ulcerated genital lesion   NONPAINFUL: chancre (primary syphilis, Treponema pallidum); PAINFUL: painful, with exudate: chancroid (Haemophilus ducreyi)  
🗑
Degeneration of dorsal column nerves   tabes dorsalis dorsalis (tertiary syphilis)  
🗑
Depigmentation of neurons in substantia nigra   Parkinson's disease (basal ganglia disorder: rigidity, resting tremor, bradykinesia)  
🗑
desquamated epithelium casts in sputum   curschmann's spirals (bronchial asthma; can result in whorled mucous plugs)  
🗑
disarrayed granulosa cells in eosinophilic fluid   Call-Exner bodies (granulosa-theca cell tumor of the ovary)  
🗑
back pain, fever, night sweats, weight loss   Pott's disease (vertebral TB)  
🗑
big toe extension/fanning upon plantar scrape   Babinski's sign (UMN lesion --> spastic paralysis)  
🗑
Bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis   sarcoidosis (noncaseating granulomas)  
🗑
elevated D-dimers can be due to...   thrombosis, DIC, PE, DVTs, Budd Chiari  
🗑
abdominal pain, ascites, hepatomegaly   Budd-Chiari syndrome (posthepatic venous thrombosis - looks like CHF but no JVD)  
🗑
Bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis   sarcoidosis (noncaseating granulomas)  
🗑
bluish line on gingiva   Burton's line (lead poisoning)  
🗑
What is deficient in I- cell disease?   Phosphitransferase - tags enzymes with mannose 6 phosphate  
🗑
what bacterial structure is the space between the inner and outer cell walls of gram negative bacteria   periplasmic space  
🗑
what bacterial form provides resistance to dehydration, heat, and chemicals   (endo)spore  
🗑
what bacterial structure forms attachment between two bacteria during conjugation (transfer of DNA material)   (F or sex) pilus  
🗑
what bacterial structure is genetic material within the bacteria that contains genes for antibiotic resistance   plasmid  
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what stain is required to see chlamydia   giemsa stain  
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which organisms are not well visualized with gram stain   treponema (too thin), legionella (fatty acids), mycoplasma (no cell wall), mycobacteria (high lipid content) [also chlamydia and rickettsia]  
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By what method are plasmids exchanged between bacteria   conjugation  
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which exotoxin inhibits acetylcholine release at the neuromuscular junction, resulting in flaccid paralysis   botulinum toxin  
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which exotoxin is a phospholipase that causes gas gangrene   alpha toxin of clostridium perfringens  
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which exotoxin inhibits the inhibitor of adenylyl cyclase, causing whooping cough   pertussis toxin  
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which exotoxin stimulates adenylyl cyclase, resulting in chloride and water entering the intestinal lumen, causing diarrhea   cholera toxin, heat labile ETEC toxin  
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Which exotoxin destroys leukocytes   PV leukocidin and gamma-hemolysin of staph aureus  
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which exotoxin is composed of edema factor, lethal factor, and protective antigen   anthrax toxin of bacillus anthracis  
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Myelodysplastic Syndrome   A group of disorders caused when something disrupts the production of blood cells  
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70yo M dies in a motor vehicle collision. Was undergoing evaluation for occult blood in the stool. Dx?   tubular adenoma  
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38yo M with 1-week hx of watery, itchy eyes and a runny nose. Physical shows inflamed nasal mucosa. No congestion in lower lung. Pharmacotherapy?   Loratidine  
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24yo M with small tender blisters on his penis 3 days after unprotected sex. Photograph shown. Causal agent?   Herpes simplex virus type 2  
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42yo F with 3-year hx of an intermittent facial rash, including the forehead, eyelids, nose, and cheeks. Rash seems to be getting worse since she moved from New York to Florida last year. Spicy foods precipitate a flushing reaction that seems to exacerba   Rosacea  
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53yo M returned from Africa, has fever, headache, and abdominal discomfort. Received appropriate vaccinations prior to the trip. T 39.4C. A wright-stained peripheral smear shown. Dx?   Malaria  
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68yo F with T2DM and hypertension that has even poorly controlled despite hydrochlorothiazide treatment. BP 150/96, Labs show serum glucose concentration of 130 and proteinuria. In addition to current Rx, which is most appropriate pharmacotherapy?   Lisinopril  
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66yo M with stage IV colon cancer with 3-day hx of severe diarrhea after receiving chemotherapy with flourouracil, leucovorin, and irinotecan. perscribed opioid antidiarrheal agent with no CNS effects. Which med?   Loperamide  
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35yo M in ED with 2-hour hx of sever fatigue and dizziness. Had profuse, watery diarrhea for 8 hours despite a lack of oral intake. Recently returned from a medical relief trip to a remove village in Honduras. T 36.7 C, P 122/min, BP 90/50. PE shows dry s   Activation of adenylyl cyclase  
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59yo F with gradual onset of lack of muscle control in her left arm and leg. Sx 1 mo ago after dx with metastatic breast cancer. PE shows ataxia of left upper and lower extremities. Muscle strength, DTR, sensation, proprioception normal. Metastatic tumor   Cerebellum  
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Newborn delivered at 38 weeks' gestation weighs 1800 g. PE shows petechial rash, microcephaly, and hepatosplenomegaly. Serologic test for CMV: IgG + in mother, + in newborn; IGM - in mother, + in newborn. Explanation?   CMV  
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Female newborn is delivered at 38 weeks' gestation. Apgar 8 and 8 at 1/5 min. PE shows a bulging, fluod0filled mass approximately 5 cm in diameter in the midline over the lumbosacral region. No spontaneous movements of the lower extremities. Abnormality m   15 to 40  
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64yo M in ED 3 hours after SOB with exertion and extreme fatigue. Has ischemic heart disease. P 125/min, BP 105/60. ECG shows atrial fibrillation. Intravenous ibutilide is administered. Ten minutes later, ECG shows normal sinus rhythm. Risk for which drug   Torsades de Pointes  
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65yo F with 20-year hx of osteoarthritis of the hands now has pain radiating down the distal anterior thigh, knee, medial leg, and food. Bony outgrowth of vertebrae compressing one of the spinal nerves is suspected. Nerve root in which intervertebral for   L-3 to 4  
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38yo M with 3-year hx of T2DM. Taking an oral antihyperglycemic agent, he has tried diet and exercise. BMI 32. PE normal. Hb A1c is 10%. Physician recommends initiation of insulin injections. Responds, "I know that insulin would help control my blood suga   Contemplation  
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24yo M with 2-day history of an itchy rash on his arms and legs. Returned from a camping trip in the woods 5 days ago. PE shows edematous, erythematous rash with linear vesicles. Cause is activation of which cell types?   T lymphocytes  
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70yo M from china with poorly differentiated monoclonal carcinoma of the nasopharynx. DNA probes of neoplastic cells are most likely to detect genome of which virus?   Epstein-Barr virus  
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24yo M with hx of IVDA could not be aroused. Friend reports that the patient injected himself with a drug 6 hours ago. Labs show drug concentration of 0.3. Assuming first-order one-compartment kinetics, has a half-life of 2 hours, and a volume of distribu   480  
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Compound is taken up by bacterial cells. No energy is necessary for uptake, and the compound is not concentrated in the cell. Which describes this mechanism of transport?   Carrier-mediated diffusion  
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Newborn has male genital ducts but female external genitalia. Cytogenetic analysis shows a 46,XY karyotype, and genetic testing shows a mutation of the gene encoding 5alpha-reductase. In absence of this mutation, labia majora would have been?   Scrotum  
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Study designed to evaluate the efficacy of coenzyme Q10 in improving cardiac output in patients with CHF. Sixty patients with CHF are recruited. Each assigned by coin toss to one of tw groups. Design?   Randomized clinical trial  
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12yo boy immersed up to his neck in 60F water for 20 minutes. Physiological changes?   Central blood volume DECREASED, ADH (vasopressin) INCREASED, Atrial Natriuretic Peptide INCREASED??  
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Tells patient he has lung cancer. The patient reponds, "How can this be happening to m? I eat right and exercise." Appropriate response?   "It must be difficult for you to accept this diagnosis when you feel healthy."  
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18mo girl. Separation of the umbilical cord was delayed after birth. Has had four severe skin infections Staphylococcus aureus; No pus formation at infection sites. Persristent leukocytosis in absence of infection. Mechanisms impaired?   Leukocyte adhesion and transmigration  
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32yo M with 6-month hx of low back pain and stiffness, worse in morning and improve during the day; the pain radiates to his buttocks but not down his legs. Back stiffness if he sits for prolonged periods. Which to confirm diagnosis?   X-rays of the sacroiliac joints  
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17yo boy with 8-kg weight gain during the past year. No medical illness. BMI is 32. He asks, "Do you think that my weight gain is inherited from my father?" Appropriate response?   "Yes, your weight gain can be caused by genes and environment combined."  
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52yo M neighbors have reported that he has been confused and not taking care of himself. 4-mo Hx of diarrhea. PE shows extreme muscle wasting, stomatitis, and a diffuse rash that is worse in sun-exposed areas. Diagnosis?   Pellagra  
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80yo F with suspected temporal arteritis (TA). ESR is 100, Pretest probability for TA is 50% in this patient. In the evaluation of TA, ESR has a sensitivity of 99% and specificity of 60%. Based on the restults of the ESR testing, most appropriate next ste   Additional testing to confirm the diagnosis of TA  
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Sequence surrounding the first two exons of the human beta-globin gene shown, with exons in bold. Translation start codon is underlined. A mutation from G-->A at position 355 is most likely to lead to beta-thalassemmia by which mechanism?   Disruption of normal splicing by creation of a new 3' splice site??  
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42yo M in ED because of a 10-day history of progressive fever, SOB, and nonproductive cough. 20-kg weight loss. Immigrated to USA from the Ivory Coast 4 years ago. T 38C. Lungs clear, CXr shows diffuse interstitial infiltrate. Silver stain obtained via br   Infection with HIV-2  
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27yo F with vaginal bleeding for 3 weeks. First pregnancy ended with a spontaneous abortion 8 months ago. No Rx since dilatation and curettage at that time. PE shows enlarged uterus, beta-hCG markedly increased. Ultrasonagraphy of pelvis shows material w   Trophoblastic tissue  
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65yo M emigrated from Brazil with 8-month history of shortness of breath and fatigue, edema of lower ext. CXR shows cardiomegaly. endomyocardial biopsy specimen shows myofiber necrosis with a mixed inflammatory infiltrate of PMNs, T lymphos, m.phages, and   Trypanosoma cruzi  
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40yo F with mole on her back that has increased in size during past 4 months. PE shows raised irregular lesion with variegated black-tan pigmentation and ill-defiined margins. Pleomorphic, hyperchromatic cells within clear islands that tend to collapse. E   Melanoma  
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42yo farmer has a 7-mm red scaly plaque on helical rim of left ear. Photomicrograph shown. Dx?   Actinic keratosis  
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30yo F training for a marathon, running 20 mild/day. Fasting glucose is 60. After her glucose stores have been depleted, which organ, in addition to liver, releases glucose?   Kidney  
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Male newborn at 28 weeks'. Given ventilatory support with up to 80% oxygen for the next 72 hours, but dies of resp. failure. Cause is inadequate secretion from which labeled cell types?   Not sure about this one. Looking for surfactant.  
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9yo girl with poor growth during the past year. < 3rd %ile for height and at 10th percentile for weight. PE normal. Visual field testing shows bitemporal hemianoia. Labs show GH deficiency. MRI shows calcified cystic mass in suprasellar region. Tumor deri   Diverticulum of the roof of the embryonic oral cavity  
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28yo F G1P1 with 2-day history of a painful mass in her right breast. Delivered healthy female newborn 3 weeks ago, and been breast0-feeding since. T 37C, PE shows 3-cm tender mass surrounded by an area of erythema beneath the right areola. Causal org?   Staphylococcus aureus  
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3yo boy with bacterial colitis caused by Salmonella enterica serovar arizonae. Which factor accounts for recruitment of PMNS to inflammatory site by intestinal epithelial cells?   Interleukin-8 (IL-8)  
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27yo F with fever, malaise, abdominal pain, and vaginal d/c for 4 days. LMP 5 days ago. Had ectopic 1 year ago. T 38.3 C, bilateral lower quadrant tenderness with rebound and guarding. Pelvic exam with cervical motion tenderness and bilateral adnexal tend   Gonorrhea  
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20M with 3-month hx of progressive thirst (drinking a lot of fluids) and urinary frequency during past 3 days. U/A shows specific gravity less than 1.006. Most likely has dysfunction of which endocrine structure?   Posterior pituitary gland  
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21yo M in ED with excruciating anal pain for 4 hours. Exam shows 15-mm, blue tinged rounded mass at anal margin. Represents thrombus in a tributary of which blood vessel?   Inferior rectal vein  
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6-week-old girl with 6-day hx of vomiting small amount of milk 2 to 3 times daily. 50 %ile for length and weight. Cause?   Immature lower esophageal sphincter  
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37yo M with 4-day hx of diarrhea and abdominal pain, worse in past 24h, with watery-brown stools. Completed a 10-day course of amoxicillin for a sinus infection 5 days ago. Stool shows: Fecal fat negative; ova and parasites negative; Cx for infx negative;   Pseudomemnbranes of fibrin and inflammatory debris  
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28yo M in ED 30 minutes after SOB. 3-year hx of cocaine abuse. T 38.1, P 100/min, BP 150/45. PE: diminished pulses in left upper extremity. Crackles heard over all lung fields. 2/6 diastolic murmur at left sternal border. CXr shows a widened aortic arch.   Dissecting aneurysm  
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1-week-old girl. screening showed a possible defect in fatty acid oxidation. PE normal. Next step?   Measurement of serum acylcarnitine concentrations  
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79yoM 30 minutes after LOC for 30 seconds. Alert, but dizzy. No urinary or fecal incontinence. Pulse 40/min, BP 92/56. PE shows no tongue biting. Lungs clear, Variable intensity S1. Oriented X3. ECG shows a third-degree atrioventricular block. Next step?   Insertion of transvenous pacemaker  
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55yo M with chronic bronchitis in ED after being unresponsive. Found bottles of albuterol, ampicillin, codeine, and theophylline bedside. T 37.2 C, p 112/min, respirations are 6/min, BP 95/60. Acute Rx should include?   Naloxone  
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50yo man has persistent cough for 2 months. He has had a 5 kg (11 lb) weight loss. He is a farmer and on itraconazole 4 weeks for histoplasmosis from chicken coops. Medications: hydrochlorothiazide, enalapril, atenolol, omeprazole, and metoclopramide for   Omeprazole  
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20yo man with 6-hour difficulty breathing and vomiting. 10-year history of type 1 diabetes on insulin. Pulse 90, respirations 30 and deep, bp 90/60. Physical shows dehydration. Labs: Na+ 130, K+ 6.5, HCO3 5, glucose 500, pH 7.2, pCO2 25 mm Hg. Which compo   Epinephrine  
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Physician sad to inform patient of progression of carcinoma to the terminal phase. Physician's face makes patient cry and ask, "It's bad news, isn't it?" Which is best response?   "Yes, it is."  
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75yo man 2-year history of decreased force of urinary stream, urinate several times throughout night. BUN 55, Cr 5.0. Ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis and dilated ureter. Mechanism of renal failure?   Increased hydrostatic pressure in Bowman space  
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4yo boy two bacterial urinary tract infections past year. Physical exam normal. Radiologic studies show dilation of left ureter and renal pelvis, minimal left-sided renal function. Left nephrectomy done. Photo: dilated renal pelvis and ureter. Which is ca   Congenital ureteral obstruction  
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45yo man poorly controlled type 2 diabetes 1-month low-grade fever. Getting hemodialysis for end-stage renal disease. T 37 C (98.6 F), pulse 72, bp 144/92. Physical subclavian catheter below right clavicle. Lungs clear. Cardiac exam no murmurs. Blood cult   Enterococcus faecalis  
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3yo boy sickle cell disease with fever and pain over left foot 3 weeks. Hematocrit stable. Leukocyte count 15,000 predominance of neutrophils. Which is most likely explanation for findings?   Osteomyelitis  
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45yo woman follow-up exam after 8 weeks tamoxifen therapy for estrogen- and progesterone-positive invasive ductal carcinoma of breast. 50yo sister also hormone-sensitive breast cancer. Physical exam normal. Serum decreased concentrations of endoxifen, act   25%  
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60yo man progressive shortness of breath past 3 months. Worked in shipyard. Respirations 25. Bilateral basilar crepitant crackles. Xray chest reticulonodular pulmonary infiltrates consistent with interstitial fibrosis. Picture: sputum sample of elongate s   Alveolar macrophage  
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30yo woman 20 weeks gestation, uncomplicated pregnancy. Fundal height is greater than expected for gestational age. Ultrasound shows increased amniotic fluid. Which abnormality is cause?   Tracheoesophageal atresia  
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27yo woman 12-hour history of fever and abdominal pain. History of recurrent urinary tract infections. Temperature is 39 C (102.2 F). Physical exam tenderness of right flank. Abdominal xrays bilateral staghorn renal calculi. Urinalysis pH 8, many RBCs, WB   Struvite  
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48yo nulligravid woman with excessive uterine bleeding for 3 months. Bleeding during menses and at irregular intervals. Menses were regular before. BMI 27. Pelvic exam: adnexae are nonpalpable. Endometrial curettage shows abundant tissue. Which is cause o   Endometrial hyperplasia  
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55yo woman 6-week history low energy, irritability, crying spells, difficulty falling asleep, wakes up during night, cannot focus. Taking lorazepam for 15y for generalized anxiety disorder. Taking estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal symptoms.   Major depressive disorder  
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Ten years after total gastrectomy, 60yo man difficulty walking. Diffuse spasticity in arms and legs, impaired proprioception in his feet, increased muscle stretch reflexes in arms and knees, absence of muscle stretch reflexes in ankles, bilateral extensor   B12 (cobalamin)  
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80yo man type 2 diabetes 2-month history severe constipation. Laxatives haven't relieved symptoms. Abdominal exam shows distention. Colonoscopy shows no abnormalities. Patient has dysfunction of which nerve?   Pelvic splanchnic  
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34yo man lightheaded after running 12 miles of marathon hot day. Pulse 130 bp 80/60. Which changes to autonomic nervous system occurred?   Sympathetic efferent activity increased, parasympathetic efferent activity decreased  
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6-Mercaptopurine (6-MP) used to treat acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). 6-MP acted on by enzymes to make 6-thioguanine nucleotides (6-TGN). Efficacy and toxicity of 6-MP correlated with 6-TGN. 6-MP acted on by xanthine oxidase (XO), thiopurine methyltra   They may be given normal doses of 6-MP (?)  
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Ten human subjects given new oral drug to monitor drug effect and toxicity. Blood analyzed for human pharmacokinetics of drug for first time. Which trial type?   Phase I  
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15yo girl health maintenance exam. Mother dx squamous cell carcinoma face, maternal grandfather died of metastatic melanoma. In patient this age, which factor most predicts compliance with photoprotection?   Macrophages  
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44yo woman follow-up after two Pap smears showing atypical squamous cells of undetermined significant. Test shows viral E6 protein of human papillomavirus. This protein promotes cell growth and malignancy by causing cellular p53 protein degradation. This   Ubiquitin ligase  
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40yo woman hx of 6 month episodic sinusitis with 2-week intermittent headaches, fatigue, and generalized joint pain, worsening cough productive of blood-tinged sputum. Failed antibiotics, decongestants and nasal corticosteroids. Physical exam: erythema na   Wegener granulomatosis  
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25yo woman 6-month history of joint pain poorly responsive to aspirin. Physical exam: bilateral swelling of proximal interphalangeal joints, metacarpophalangeal joints, and wrists; weakness of grasp. Small nodules palpated beneath skin around joints of f   Rheumatoid Arthritis  
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50yo woman 1-year hx of hot flashes and irregular menses. Decreased bone mineral density. Alendronate prescribed. Mechanism of drug?   Inhibition of osteoclast-mediated bone resorption  
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Female newborn at 36 weeks gestation has respiratory distress. Apgar 3 and 5 at 1 and 5 minutes. Physical shows cyanosis. Endotracheal and NG tubes placed. Xray shows nasogastric tube in left hemithorax, mediastinum displacement to right, absence bowel ga   Incomplete formation of pleuroperitoneal membrane  
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65yo women progressive vulvar itching past 2 months; miconazole for yeast infections ineffective. Exam: atrophy of labia minora and thin, parchment-like skin over vulva and anus. Dx?   Lichen sclerosus  
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75yo man 2-day ear ringing, nausea, fatigue. Temp 37 C (98.6 F), pulse 100, respirations 24, bp 140/85. Physical: mild epigastic tenderness. ABG pH 7.42 pCO2 30 pO2 95 HCO3 19. Dx?   Salicylate poisoning  
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15yo girl 1-day hx redness and painful skin following sunbathing. She used sunblock. No medications. Physical exam: severe erythema of back and extremities, no blisters. Dx?   First-degree burn  
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58yo man supraventricular tachyarrhythmia refractory to pharmacotherapy gets ablation of accessory excitatory pathway in atrial endocardium. Which area should be avoided to leave sinoatrial (pacemaker) node intact?   The junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium  
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81yo woman massive pulmonary embolism from deep venous thrombosis. Platelet count 160,000. Appropriate pharmacotherapy is started. One week later, platelets 55,000. Thrombocytopenia most likely caused by a drug with which of the following mechanism of act   Potentiates the action of antithrombin III  
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22yo woman, g1p1, 2-day hx of fever, severe vaginal bleeding. four days ago delivered healthy male newborn. Temp 38.1 C (100.6 F). Pelvic exam: open cervix, heavy vaginal bleeding. US shows uterus with no placental tissue or thrombi. If operation required   Internal iliac  
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35yo woman abnormal Pap smear. Cervical biopsy shows microinvasive cervical carcinoma. Which microscopic features led to dx?   Neoplastic cells in sub-basement membrane connective tissue  
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17yo girl 1-day shortness of breath, weakness and muscle tenderness. Did triathlon previous day. BMI 19. Temperature 38 C (100.4 F), respirations 20, bp 150/90. Physical bilateral crackles lower lobes, muscle tenderness. Creatinine 4. Urinalysis 3+ protei   Myoglobin  
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16yo boy with no signs of puberty. Sex development Tanner stage 2. Physical exam: circumcised penis, soft small tests 5 mL, prostate firm, nontender, no discharge or lesions. Testosterone low. Which hormone is cause of decreased serum testosterone and lac   Luteinizing hormone  
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28yo woman wants to lose weight. She binges on high-carbohydrate foods 2 to 3 times a week, forcing herself to vomit after. BMI 23. Which physical finding is likely?   Parotid gland enlargement  
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15yo girl emigrated from India and with several lesions on neck for 2 weeks. Physical exam shows hypopigmented, hypoesthetic area on left side of forehead and 4-cm lesions on neck. Biopsy shows acid-fast bacilli. Best explanation why the organism results   Temperature senisitivity  
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59yo man has total thyroidectomy for 4-cm follicular carcinoma of thyroid. Twelve hours after procedure, has paresthesias of hands and feet. Vitals stable, carpal spasm on inflammation of bp cuff. Lab findings?   Decreased parathyroid hormone, decreased calcium  
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41yo man with asthma and allergy to grass pollen wheezes and difficulty breathing 10 min after mowing lawn. Drug for immediate relief of acute symptoms?   Albuterol  
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14yo boy daily headaches for 2 months. Headaches are bilateral aching in temples. "Has not been himself" for months. Confused, forgetting names, dates, places, clumsy, frequent falls. School performance declined. Physical exam: broad-based ataxic gait. Sl   Inhaled glue  
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40yo African American woman 2-week hx fever, malaise, dyspnea. Temperature 36.7 C (98 F), respirations 20. Physical exam: erythema nodosum, parotid enlargement, hepatosplenomegaly. Calcium 16. CT chest bilateral hilar adenopathy. Increased in which in ser   1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol  
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56yo woman with restrictive cardiomyopathy, proteinuria, renal failure. 35-year history of rheumatoid arthritis. Renal biopsy shows glomerular deposition of eosinophilic hyaline material. Congo red statin: birefringent pattern under polarized light. Struc   beta-pleated sheet structure  
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63yo man 3-month hx difficulty sleeping. Sleeps better upright. HR 90, bp 110/60. Physical exam: increased jugular venous pressure, mild ankle edema. Cause of edema?   Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure  
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14yo boy come to ER 1 hour after colliding with teammate playing soccer. Physical exam: edematous tissues of left eye, mild depression of left zygomatic bone. Skin between eye and upper lip numb. Double vision look upward. Nerve damaged causing sensory lo   Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve  
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Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve   Family history of a similar illness  
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18yo man Crohn disease 1-day hx severe abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhea. Temperature 38 C (100.4 F), pulse 98, respirations 18. Physical exam: draining anal fisutla. Treatment with antibiotics and prednisone over next 3 weeks recovers. Mech   T-lymphocyte function  
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34yo woman with pyelonephritis treated with bactericidal antibiotic 4 days no improvement. Antibiotic added that inhibits binding to 30S ribosome, blocking protein synthesis intracellularly. Antibiotic?   Gentamicin  
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3yo boy and his 5yo brother with recurrent hemarthroses. Both parents healthy, but mother with two younger brothers with same sx and maternal uncle who died at 8 of mild head trauma. Partial thromboplastin time is prolonged. Defect?   Factor VIII (antihemophilic factor)  
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6yo boy from Russia with unstable gait and incoordination for 2 weeks. Pale, bulky stools for 4 years and two episodes of bacterial pneumonia and chronic cough since age 1 year. 3%ile for height/weight. Neuro exam shows ataxia, no DTRs, loss of propriocep   Vitamin E  
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54yo F 1 week after sudden loss of vision in left eye, returned within 1 day. 3-month hx of progressive SOB with exertion. Echocardiography shows mass in the left atrium of the heart. Lesion is resected, photomicrograph of it is shown. Which describes the   Myoxma  
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27yo primigravid woman at 34 weeks' with nausea and vomiting, and abdominal pain for 12 hours. Everything's been normal. BP is now 164/102, and right upper quadrant tenderness. Labs show Hb 7.4, HCT 24%, Platelets 72k, Cr 1.2, total bili 2.3, AST 112, ALT   Schistocytes  
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60yo F 3 hours after sudden onset ankle pain. 4-year Hx of increasing serum creatinine concentrations. Began furosemide 1 month ago, also takes glipizide. P 120/min, resp 25/min, BP 150/100. Joint fluid shows negatively birefringent crystals. Increased ri   Nephrolithiasis  
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56yo F follow-up 8 weeks after recovering from pneumococcal pneumonia. Chest X-rays normal. Which allowed this resolution to occur?   Metaplasia of mesenchymal cells to pneumocytes  
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29yo F with 5-week hx of fatigue and 4-day hx of heart palpitations and anxiety. Has primary hypothyroidism Rx with triiodothyronine, but she has doubled the dose because of fatigue. TFT will show which?   TSH DECREASED, Free thyroxine DECREASED, Free triiodothyronine INCREASED  
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20yo F has multiple neurofibromas. Mom, uncle, and brothers with similar lesions. Mode of inheritance?   Autosomal Dominant  
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45yo M with yellow skin. Drinks eight to ten 12-ounce cans of beers daily for 10 days. Liver is tender. Serum: total bili 5.9, Alk Phos 210, AST 110, ALT 69, gamma-glutamyltransferase 25 (n = 0-30). Liver biopsy will show?   Mallory Hyaline  
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35yo M uses crack cocaine daily, with 2-hour Hx of substernal chest pain. T 37C, P 110/min, BP 160/100. Most appropriate next step?   Admit the patient to the hospital for possible myocardial ischemia  
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54yo F with hypertension and bilateral renal artery stenosis starts taking NSAIDS for back pain. Her Cr concentration increases from 1.0 to 5.0. Cause is due to inhibiting which?   Vasodilating prostaglandins at the afferent arteriole  
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83yo M brought to ED after being found at home bedridden and confused. No meds. P 100/min, BP 85/50. BP unchanged after 1L IV saline. Pulmonary artery catheter shows: Cardiac output high, PCWP low, systemic vascular resistance low. Cause of hypotension?   Early septic shock  
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32yo M with 3-month hx of swelling and breast tenderness. Receiving thyroid hormone and steroid replacements since removal of pituitary adenoma 2 years ago. Began hCG injections 4 months ago. Most likely binding site of hCG causing gynecomastia?   Tissue: Testicle; Effect: estradiol production  
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38yo F with 3-day hx of sore throat. Photo shown of throat. Which nerves is tested by saying "ah," elevating area at tip of the arrow?   Vagus  
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8yo boy with disruptive behavior, interrupts, always moving, trouble completing tasks. Drug with which mechanism is appropriate?   Increased release of dopamine and norepinephrine  
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62yo M with alcohol-induced liver disease develops ascites. Infection ruled out. Most appropriate diuretic, in addition to loops, is which?   Spironolactone  
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17. 72yo M with weakness and fatigue. Hemogrlobin concentration is 9.2, WBC 5400, platelets 350k. Peripheral blood smear is shown. Cause?   GI blood loss  
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65yo F with widely metastatic breast cancer unresponsive to chemo. No family. "close friend," at all her visits and now she is moved to inpatient hospice after she decides she wants no further curative therapy. Says, "We can't bear to be apart. It would   "The two of you seem to have a very important relationship. Of course you may stay together."  
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46yo M treated with oral cyclosporine after cardiac transplant. Cyclosporine decreases likelihood of rejected by which actions?   Suppressing the early response of T lymphocytes to activation  
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30yo M in ED 15 minutes after found unconscious. Comatose, pupils 4 mm in diameter, not reactive to light. CT head shown. Cause of coma is bleeding from which structures?   Middle meningeal artery  
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68yo M with 6-month hx of erectile dysfunction. PE and labs normal. If pharmacotherapy is indicated, drug with which MOA?   Inhibition of phophodiesterase  
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35yo M with recurrent sinusitis and bronchitis. Cardiac examination shows PMI at fourth intercostal space within the midclavicular line on the right. Hepatic margin is palpable on the left. Endoscopy shows nasal polyps. Biopsy shows thickened, ciliated, p   Dynein arms  
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30yo primi at 22 weeks' gestation with 1-day hx of fever, chills, and muscle aches. T 39.4, P 114/min, resp 15/min, BP 104/72. PE shows uterus consistent with 22-week gestation. Fetahl heart sounds are heard. WBC 12K, Blood cultures grow gram-positive rod   Listeria monocytogenes  
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42yo M with multiple lesions over his body. PE shows flaccid bullous erosions involving upper and lower extremities and torso. Biopsy shows extensive epidermal acantholysis resulting in the formation of intraepidermal blister. Intact basal layer of kerat   Development of autoantibodies against desmosomal proteins  
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50yo M 3 days after his first generalized tonic-clonic seizure. 1-month hx of frequent episodes of pins-and-needles sensation around the mouth, hands, and feet, involuntary contraction of muscles. Neuro exam shows mild, diffuse hyperreflexia. Which serum   Calcium  
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52yo F with hot flashes. Menses have been irregular for the past 6 months. Physiologic cause?   Failure of the ovaries to secrete 17beta-estradiol  
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32yo F G2P1 at 7 weeks' gestation with vaginal bleeding for 3 days and increasingly severe left abdominal pain for 18 hours. Direct and rebound tenderness with guarding in left lower quadrant. Cervical os is closed. serum beta-hCG is 6000. U/S shows empty   Ectopic pregnancy  
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26yo F 5 weeks after birth of first child. Worries constantly that the infant is ill and wakes up to make sure he is well. Washes her hands 30 times per day. Worried about people braking into her house, checks lock 3-4 times a night. Not breast feeding. R   Sertraline  
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10yo boy has had anemia since birth. Spleen is five times normal. Splenectomy is indicated if anemia is caused by which?   Hereditary spherocytosis  
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62yo F in ED for 2-day hx of fever, abdominal tenderness, and painful urination. Agitated. T 38.8C, Labs show WBC 14k. Admitted to hospital, nurses note she has torn up four breakfast menus because she is confused. Cause?   Delirium  
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60yo F with 3-year Hx of hyperlipidemia. Low-cholesterol diet and exercise program ineffective after 1 year. Lovastatin initiated, but unable to tolerate greater than 20 mg daily. Additional drug is added that inhibits transport of cholesterol through int   Ezetimibe  
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48yo M with bronzing of his skin, weakness, and fatigue during the past 3 months. PE shows hepatomegaly, and small testes. Serum: AST INCREASED, ALT INCREASED, iron INCREASED, transferrrin sat INCREASED, ferritin INCREASED, testosterone DECREASED, LH DECR   Increased intestinal iron absorption  
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45yo M with intermittent bloody diarrhea and abd pain. Sigmoidoscopy and rectal biopsy show IBD. Monoclonal antibody is begun, which is directed against what components?   Tumor necrosis factor  
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"string of beads" sign Dx?   Fibromuscular dysplasia  
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55yo M with sepsis. Appears anxious and confused. Rx with vancomycin and ceftriaxone initiated in ED. T 39.8, P 132/min, BP 85/48. PE shows warm, flushed skin. No aedema. Administrer which solutions?   0.9% Saline  
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36yo M undergoes elective liposuction under general anesthesia. Operation is terminated when patient develops hyperthermia, tachycardia, and marked muscle rigidity. MOA of drug that should be administered?   Decreases release of Ca from the sarcoplasmic reticulum  
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In a survey of 100 households (average three residents per household), 45 with asthma are detected. Prevalence?   15%  
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While lifting weights, 24yo M swelling in right inguinal region. Photograph shown of small intestine resected. Dx?   Strangulation  
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24yo with second-degre burn. Two weeks after, tissue shows increased fibroblast migration and proliferatoin, increased collagen and fibronectin, and decreased metalloproteinases. Caused by production of which?   Transorming growth factor-beta  
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Protein found in brown adipose tissue of mice causes leak of H ions inward across inner mitochondrial membrane. Effect of this protein on oxidative phosphorylation and energy metabolism?   Increased ratio of oxygen consumption to ATP generation  
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57yo M with alcoholism has distended abdomen with shifting dullness, fluid wave, caput medusae, palmar erythema, spider angiomata. Additional finding?   Gynecomastia  
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16yo girl with 2-year hx of fainting; increased in frequency during past 6 months. BP 110/80 supine and 60/40 standing. Neuro exam normal. Plasma shows undetectable noreipinephrine and marked increase in dopamine concentration when standing. Deficiency of   Dopamine beta-hydroxylase  
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HALLMARK: Peanut Farmer from China   Aflatoxin  
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42yo M in ED for 5-hour hx of fever, chills, and severe pain and swelling of his left arm. Scratched his arm on a nail yesterday. Appears confused, T 40C, BP 71/38. Labs show Hb 14, HCt 42%, WBC 15K (35% PMNs, 40% bands, 25% lymphos), Platelets 50K, Serum   IL-1 and tumor necrosis factor (TNF)-alpha  
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62yo M dies suddenly while playing tennis. No cardiac risk factors, no hx of CAD. Autopsy, cardiac valve defect and concentric LVH. Which valve abrnomalities is most likely involved?   Aortic stenosis  
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67yo M has urinary urgency after placement of urinary bladder catheter during transurethral resection of the prostate. Most appropriate Rx has which MOA?   Inhibition of muscarinic receptors  
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Mouse embryos are produced with two pronuclei, both of same parental origin. When the pronuclei are maternal, produces have poorly developed extraembryonic structures. When both pronuclei are paternal, produces have poorly developed embryonic tissue. Whic   Imprinting  
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18-yo F with sepsis after an abortion. Within 24 hours she becomes dyspneic, oliguric, and develops petechiae, ecchymoses, and bleeding from venipuncture sites. Which lab finding?   Decreased plasma fibrinogen concentration  
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63yo M with 6-month hx of exertional chest pain relieved by rest. smoked for 45 years. Mild HTN, no meds. Which lesion in LAD is most likely cause?   Calcified 80% stenosis  
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65yo F with ovarian cancer treated with cyclophosphamide and other chemotherapeutic agents. Cyclophosphamide affects which target?   DNA replication  
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Pharm co trying to develop a long-acting weight-loss agent that mimics activity of a naturally occurring peptide originates in adipose tissue, signals brain about stored fat, and suppresses appetite by its action in the CNS. Which chemical mediator?   Leptin  
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45yo F has thyroidectomy because of asymmetric enlargement of thyroid noticed 6 weeks ago. Underwent adrenalectomy for pheochromocytoma 3 years ago. Bilateral thyroid lesions with spindle cells arranged in small clusters. Amyloid deposits b/w neoplastic   Calcitonin  
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45yo F intubated, mechanically ventilated with fungemia with Candida albicans. Rx with caspofungin is started. Feature of causal organism targeted by this drug?   Beta-Glucan carbohydrates in the cell wall  
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56yo M 4 hours after sudden onset of uncontrollable irregular movements of the left side of the body. PE shows flailing movements of the proximal appendicular muscles on the left. Nuclei damaged?   Right subthalamic  
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60yo M 1-month Hx of progressive SOB with exertion. Breath sounds: Dec on right lung base, normal on left lung base Percussion note dull on right lung base, nml on left lung base Tactile fremitus decreased on right lung base, nml on left lung base Adv   Pleural effusion  
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68yo M with difficulty swallowing solids for 2 months. Hx of dilated cardiomyopathy. X-rays of esophagus w/ barium contrast show indentation and posterior displacement of the esophagus. Enlargement of what caused dysphagia?   Left atrium  
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25yo F with 3-year hx of irregular menses. Menarche was at age of 14 years. BP 116/62. PE shows increased hair growth on the face and chest. Pelvic exam shows clitoromegaly and a normal-appearing uterus. Serum shows increased 17-hydroxyprogesterone and an   21-hydroxylase  
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60yo M in ED for sudden onset of acute abdominal pain and tenderness, nausea, vomiting, and bloody diarrhea 2 hours ago. He has a Hx of cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma. BP 99/50. Loss of bowel sounds. Surgery shows small intestine with dark purple-   Mesenteric venous thrombosis  
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38yo M in ED 30 min after unable to stand upright. Lethargic, pulse 110/min, BP 90/62. PE shows dry mucosa and poor skin turgor. Midepigastric tenderness. Labs show: Serum: Na 143, K 3.2, Cl 101, HCO3 11 ABG: pH 7.28, Pco2 23, Po2 98 Acid-base status   Metabolic acidosis  
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2mo boy given vaccine to convert T-independent antigens to T-dependent forms to enhance protection in young children. Which vaccine given?   Haemophilus influenzae type b  
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A study conducted to assess effectiveness of injections of lidocaine into "trigger points" of pain symptoms in patients with fibromyalgia. Fifty patients randomly assigned - 0.9% saline only or saline plus lidocaine. Graph shows self-reported pain scores.   Placebo effect  
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In a clinical study, a polymorphic marker with three alleles, 1, 2, and 3, is found to be tightly linked to the gene for polycystic kidney disease. Pedigree shown. If III, 1 is unaffected by this disease, patient is most likely carrier of?   2,3  
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6yo girl with 4-day hx of round shiny bumps in areas where she has eczema. Her mother saw similar bumps on a playmate at pool party 3 weeks ago. No other Sx. PE shows firm, smooth, umbilicated papules 2 to 4 mm diameter in clusters. Causal organism?   Poxvirus  
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80yo F in ED for 2-day hx of "feeling funny." "Lost my pep." Hx of poorly controlled hypertension. Just started medication 2 weeks ago. BP 130/85. Pe normal. Serum potassium is 3. Which drug?   Hydrochlorothiazide  
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68yo M in for a hemiorrhaphy. Surgeon gives info of risks and benefits. Patient says that he understands what he has been told, and his family will be able to discuss later. In this patient, which combination of components fulfill the criteria for fully i   Information, competence, voluntariness  
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47yo F with psoriasis for follow-up. Was given several topical creams, to be used in specified sequence twice daily. No improvements apparent at this appointment. How to begin discussion of compliance?   "using something twice daily can be difficult. I assume you are like most patients who miss at least 10% of treatments."  
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Male newborn has macrocephaly with poor skull mineralization, shortened extremities with misshaped long bones, and several fx. Defect in which?   Collagen  
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27yo F in ED 30 min after ejected through windshield during MVC. Unrestrained front-seat passenger. PE shws marked edema and tenderness of the jaw. Panorex x-ray of mouth shown. Which is injured?   Levator labii superioris  
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Girl for well-child exam. Normal development includes pincer grasp, finger feeding, standing while holding onto a table, and playing peekaboo. Age (in months)?   9  
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18yo M with yellow nodules on achilles tendons of his feet and extensor tendons of his hands. Exam shows collection of foamy histiocytes within the dermis. Serum cholesterol is 980, and lipoprotein electrophoresis shows a selective increase in LDL. Underl   Absence of functional LDL receptors in hepatocytes  
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35yo M with 4-day Hx of high-grade fever, sever muscle aches, malaise, loss of appetite, and a nonproductive cough. wife and kids had similar illness. Temp 39.2, PE normal. CBC and CXR normal. Causal virus replicates its genome within the cell's nucleus.   Influenza virus  
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28yo F at 18 weeks' gestation has palpitations. Labs show increased serum total thyroxine (T4) concentration. Best test to confirm hyperthyroidism?   Thyroid antibodies  
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21yo M in ED 45 minutes after sustaining multiple injuries in a MVC. His BP is 90/50, PE shows diffuse abdominal tenderness. Dx with laceration of the spleen and undergoes splenectomy. Predisposed to infection with?   Streptococcus pneumoniae  
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70yo F in longitudinal study of effects of aging on pulmonary function tests. Which represents woman now compared with results at age of 20 years?   Residual volume UP, Arterial Po2 DOWN, Alveolar-arterial Po2 difference UP  
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45yo F farmer in ED for 2-day hx of confusion, lethargy, fever, headache, muscle pain, vomiting, and a rash on her wrists and ankles. Bitten by a tick a few days ago. T 38.5 C, Red-purple papules on distal extremities progress to trunk. Rx?   Doxycycline  
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Study of breast cancer in women. Hundred healthy women observed for 10 years. Goal is to determine if number of family members who previously received dx of breast cancer correlates with incidence of future development of cancer. Best design?   Cohort  
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62yo F with recurrent pulmonary emboli comes for follow-up. PE normal. Labs show PT of 12 seconds. Warfarin begun. Which clotting factors is first to be decreased by 50% after initiation of Rx?   VII (proconvertin)  
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48yo F with 2-month hx of fatigue and intermittent headaches. BP 180/110, PE normal. Serum show a decreased potassium concentration and increased aldosterone. CT abdomen shows tumor on adrenal gland. Which additional findings supports aldosterone-secretin   Decreased plasma renin activity  
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20yo F with 1-day hx of increasing urinary frequency and a burning sensation with urination. One sexual partner, uses condoms. VSS. PE shows mild suprapubic tenderness to deep palpation. Urine shows rare epithelial cells and 10 WBC/hpf. Urine grows E. col   Mannose-binding (type 1) fibria  
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6yo boy with 3 systemic infections with Neisseria meningitidis over the past 2 years. Healthy otherwise. Which lab test is most likely abnormal?   Total hemolytic complement concentration  
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13yo girl 2/6, holosystolic murmur heard best over left fifth intercostal space adjacent to the sternum; it increases with inspiration. Abnormality of which valves?   Tricuspid  
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55yo F with left flank pain and gross hematuria. Mass is palpable in LUQ of abdomen. Ultrasonography shows a 12-cm solid mass on lower pole of left kidney. Angiograms show hypervascular mass. Dx?   Renal cell adenocarcinoma  
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19yo M in MVC. Penetrating wound to right cerebral cortex with paralysis of the left lower extremity, fracture of right mid humerus with severing of the radial nerve, and a fracture of right tibia. After 10 weeks, DTR strongest in which locations?   Left Achilles tendon  
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40yo F with 1-year hx of episodes of crampy abdominal pain, intermittent diarrhea, and rectal bleeding with passage of mucus. BMI 18. Abdomal exam: diffuse tenderness with no rebound. Sigmoidoscopy shows diffuse ulcers. Initial Rx?   Sulfasalazine  
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27yo M for employment exam. No Hx of major illness. Never been sexually active. Minimal contact with parents and siblings, no hobbies. Doesn't feel depressed. Shrugs in response to congratulations about his new job. Flat affect. Personality disorder?   Schizoid  
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30yo F has ptosis, ophthalmoplegia, and diplopia. Serum shows autoantibody with affinity for acetylcholine receptor at the postsynaptic neuromuscular junction. Which neoplasm?   Thymoma  
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Exam scaled so scores are normally distributed with mean of 500 and SD of 100. Which % are between 400 and 600?   67%  
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62yo M with pericardial friction rub 3 days after acute myocardial infarction. Cause of rub?   Fibrinous pericarditis  
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42yo F with 1-mo Hx of abdominal pain, after eating fatty meals. BMI 31. PE shows jaundice and tenderness of RUQ. Increase of which liver function?   Cholesterol synthesis  
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70yo M with recent loss of mental function. Hx of weight loss. No drugs. VSS, not dehydrates. Mild anemia. Labs show Na 110, Cl 85, K 4.4, BUN 15, Cr 15; Plasma osmolality 250; Urine osmolality 750. Dx?   Pulmonary neoplasm  
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40yo M skin extremely sensitive to sunlight, which causes formation of vessicles and blisters on the skin which take weeks to heal. Diagnosed with disorder caused by increased synthesis of compounds in the skin that are subject to excitation by visible li   Heme Synthesis  
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60yo M with 6-month hx of fatigue. Four years ago, had subtotal gastrectomy after gunshot wound. Drinks 6-8 beers daily. PE shows paresthesias of both hands. Labs show: Hb 8, HCT 24%, MCV 115, WBC 5k, Platelets 165k, RBC Folic acid 500 (N = 125-600), B12   Pariteal Cells  
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40yo M with interstitial pulmonary fibrosis has greater maximal expiratory flow rate than predicted. Which best explains this?   Increased radial traction on airways  
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20-year-old F secretary with 8yr history of intermittent headaches. Flashing lights in her right visual field, followed 20 minutes later by a unilateral throbbing headache accompanied by nausea and vomiting. occur around time of menses. Dx?   Migraine  
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70 yr old african american women come to physician after 1 day onset of back pain. She's a part time cashier, low income, and smoked 1/2 a pack for 50 years and drinks 3 caffeinated beverages a day. X-ray shows vertebral compression fracture of L3 and she   Gender  
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5-year-old-boy with mental retardedation is grossly obese and has facial features of Prader-Willi syndrome. Karytoyping and flourescent in situ hybridization studies do not show deletion in the usual site. Which to confirm PWS?   Maternal Origin of Chromosome 15  
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83yo M from Puerto Rico with weight loss and abdominal pain and blood in his stool for 1 month. Possible colon cancer. Poor english. Needs colonoscopy but family doesn't want to hear bad news and wants to make decision for about his treatment. Next step?   Use a Spanish-speaking interpreter to determine how much the patient wishes to know about diagnosis and treatment  
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38-year-old F undergoes laparoscopic cholecystecomy with general anesthesia. Afetr she awakens postoperatively, she is nauseated and vomits threee times in 20 minutes. Treatment for N/V?   Ondansetron  
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During an experimental study of oxygen consumption in the kidney, experiemtnal animals are ventillated with 100% nitrogen. Cells from which of the following areas of the kidney first show signs of anoxic injury?   Distal convoluted tubule?  
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7-year-old girl 30 minutes after being hit in the mouth with basketball. Something stuck in her throat. Part of one tooth is missing. Lateral x-ray of the neck and chest is shown; arrow shows part of the tooth. Greatest risk for aspiration into which lobe   Right Lower  
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Poliovirus mRNA lacks a 5' m7G cap but is translated efficiently by cellular ribosomes. Which of the following additional structural features of poliovirus mRNA is the most likely cause of its ability to be translated in the absence of a cap?   Presence of an internal ribosome entry site  
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67-year-old F brother and mother have history of colon cancer. Physician recommends colonscopy, but patent only wants her stool to be tested for blood. Most likely concerned about which of the following regarding this test?   Low specificity  
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69-year-old African American woman has moderate hypertension and type 2 DM. BMI 31. On hydrohlorothiazide. Labs show microalbuminuria. Most appropriate to add which drugs?   Irbesartan  
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36-year-old man with 2-hour history of pain and swelling of his right calf. No shortness of breath or chest pain. 18-hour airplane trip 4 hours ago. Noninvasive vascular studies show an occlusion of right femoral vein. Immediate therapy has which mechanis   Activation of antithrombin III  
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64 yr old alcoholic man with 1 day of confusion. Disoriented, disheveled. Dehydrated, jaundiced. and has spider angiomata over face and chest. Has flapping up and down of the hands when his arms are outstretched. Abdominal distention and bulging flanks. H   Killing of bacteria in the gut that generate ammonia  
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1 year old boy is brought in. Has white, pale hair that hasn't changed color since birth. His eyes are blue. During opthalmic examination, the patient turns away from the flashlight and starts crying. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the   Inability to make melanin  
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2-year-old boy with developmental delay. Hx of hearing loss in mother and delayed speech in older sister. Maternal uncle had stroke-like episodes at the age of 25 years. Physical shows ophthalmoplegia and hypotonia. Lactic acid concentration increased. E   Heteroplasmy  
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Male newborn at 28 weeks' is tachypneic and hypoxemic. Which altered structure changes in the type II pneumocytes is the most likely cause?   Decreased numbers of lamellar bodies  
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16-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis with 3-week history of generalized weakness, numbness and tingling of her arms and legs, and difficulty walking. Not adhered to medications. Bilateral weakness and decreased deep tendon reflexes in the upper and lowe   Vitamin E  
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48-year-old woman with 6-month hx of irregular menstrual periods and hot flashes. LMP 35 days ago, and had scant blood flow. Menses had previously occurred at regular 28-day cycles. Mild thinning of the vaginal tissue. Labs most likely to show which of th   Decreased follicle-stimulating hormone  
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62-year-old M with unstable angina pectoris undergoes coronary catheterization. To visualize the anterior interventricular (left anterior descending) artery, the tip of the catheter would need to be placed into the orifice of which arteries?   Left coronary  
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35-year-old F with intermittent sharp chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing, and can be decreased by leaning forward. 2-month hx of pain and swelling in her hands and knees accompanied by morning stiffness that lasts 1 hour. Pulsus paradoxus less than   Pericarditis  
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60-year-old M with a systolic murmur is a heard, which is loudest at the point indicated by the X in the diagram. Which cardiac abnormality is the cause?   Aortic valve stenosis  
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31-year-oldwoman with invasive squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix. Biopsy shows tumor cells express human papillomavirus, type 16 antigens. Which cell types plays a role in recognizing and killing these virus-infected tumor cells?   T lymphocytes  
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An 85-year-old woman is diagnosed with a fracture of the right femur and begins treatment with morphine by patient-controlled analgesic pump. Three days later, her respirations are 6/min. Physical examination shows pinpoint pupils. Her serum creatinine co   Morphine is metabolized to active metabolites that accumulate  
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35 y/o man with 3 yr history of enlarging nose, coarse facies, muscle weakness, increased hand/foot size. Large fleshy nose and prognathism on exam. High IGF-1 in serum. MRI shows pituitary adenoma. Morphologic analysis of the tumor shows a densely granul   Adenlyl cyclase  
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30-year-old woman with Li-Fraumeni syndrome found to have adenocarcinoma of the breast. Family history includes osteosarcoma. Which mechanisms underlies this condition?   Impaired regulation of apoptosis  
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56-year-old with palpable hard nodule on prstate has increased serum prostate-specific antigen concentration. Fine-needle biopsy specimen shows adenocarcinoma. Patient undergoes radical prostatectomy. Which structure is at greatest risk for injury during   Pelvic parasympathetic nerves  
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56-year-old woman frequently burned herself while cooking. Loss of pain and temperature sensation in both upper extremities and portion of her trunk from clavicles to just below the nipples. Touch, vibratory sensation, and proprioception normal. Findings   Syrinx of the central region of the spinal cord from C-4 to T-5  
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25-year-old man comes to the physician 8 hours after the onset of severe pain of his low back that radiates down his left leg. He started a weight-lifting regimen earlier in the day during which he tried to lift a bar loaded with 91 kg (200 lb) from the g   Rupture of an intervertebral disc  
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43-year-old man with 6-week hx of sharp, stabbing pain on the left side of his face that occurs when he touches it. Pain when shaving. Pain just lateral to the left nasal ala reproduces the pain. Nerve supplying this area exits the skull through which for   Rotundum  
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33-year-old man with 3-month hx of muscle weakness and cramping, appears shortly after he begins exercising. Serum creatine kinase increased. Venous blood from antecubital vein show lactate concentrations do not increased compared with preexercise values.   Glycogen phosphorylase  
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67-year-old man with 2-month hx of weight loss. Has type 1 DM, gallstone removal 12 years ago, smoked 1 pack daily for 45 years. BMI 34, Calcium concentration of 11 mg/dL. Abdominal CT shows a pancreatic mass, biopsy shows pancreatic adenocarcinoma. Stron   Cigarette smoking  
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28-year-old woman with 1-week history of fever and chills. 4.5-kg weight loss, 5-year hx of chronic sinusitis. Mildly distressed. BMI 18. Temp is 39 C (102.2 F). Has markedly diminished nasal septa. Chest x-ray shows multiple pulmonary nodules. Serologic   Wegener granulomatosis  
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52-year-old man with 3-week history of increased thirst and urinary frequency; 4.5-kg weight loss. Has hypertension and hyperlipidemia treated with pravastatin and metoprolol. BMI 34. Which is most likely to be increased?   Fasting serum glucose concentration  
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48-year-old man with possible hypertension. On basis of ten measurements, the patient's average diastolic blood pressure is 113, and standard deviation is 8. If four rather than ten measurements are made, which is the expected impact on 95% confidence int   Increase in width  
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66-year-old M with 6-month history of decreased exercise tolerance and shortness of breath with exertion. Vitals stable. Auscultation shows bilateral basilar crackles. Cardiac examination shows S3 gallop. Grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur heard best at the ap   Dilated cardiomyopathy  
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29-year-old woman for advice on losing weight. Has been taking thyroxine for several months in attempt to lose weight. Her thyroid function is normal. Which findings is most likely on histopathologic eam of the thyroid gland?   Follicular atrophy  
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44-year-old man with 2-month history of abdominal pain and diarrhea. Pain relieved after eating and antacids. EPigastric tenderness. Serum gastrin concentration of 500 pg/mL (N=50 - 100) and gastric acid secretion of 80 (N=6-40). Most definitive treatment   Surgical removal of the suspected tumor  
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50-year-old man with progressive bulge in his abdomen during past 6 months. No changes in bowel habits. Midline hernia above umbilicus that cannot be reduced be gently pushing on it. Operative repair initiated. Which extracellular matrix components requir   Collagen  
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50-year-old man with progressive bulge in his abdomen during past 6 months. No changes in bowel habits. Midline hernia above umbilicus that cannot be reduced be gently pushing on it. Operative repair initiated. Which extracellular matrix components requir   Lysosomes  
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53-year-old man in ED 1 hour after right-sided weakness. Right perioral droop. Babinski sign present on the right. CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. One week later, a repeat CT scan shows a small area of hypodensity involving the left internal c   Microglial cells  
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38-year-old woman in for pre-employment exam. No illness. No meds. Labs show Hb 8.2, HCT 25%, MCV 69. WBC 5.9k, Retics 0.8%, platelets 350k. Dx?   Iron deficiency anemia  
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27-year-old man with acute myelocytic leukemia receives high-dose cyclophosphamide in preparation for hematopoietic stem cell transplantation. Which will decrease toxicity from this chemotherapy regimen?   Mesna  
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30-year-old man develops hemoptysis, dyspnea, weakness, and hematuria. Diffuse pulmonary hemorrhages bilaterally. Renal biopsy shows focal glomerular necrosis with crescent formation and linear deposition of IgG and C3 in glomerular capillary loops. Patho   Autoantibodies against host cell basement membranes  
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21-year-old woman with 2-week hx of blood-tinged vomiting. 2-year hx of self-induced vomiting after gorging on food. BMI 24. Which drugs is most appropriate?   Fluoxetine  
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56-year-old man scheduled for physical therapy 3 days following right shoulder operation. Therapy to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor muscles. Which should this patient perform against resistance?   Lateral (external) rotation  
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cASPofungin   cell wall inhibitor used in invasive aspergillosis  
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Rx to avoid in Pregnancy   SAFE Moms Take Really Good Care Sulfonamides, Aminoglycosides, Fluoroquinolones, Erythromycin, Metro, Tetra, Ribavirin, Griseofulvin, Chloramphenicol  
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22q11 synd (DiGeorges)   Truncus Arteriosus, TOF  
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Heart defects seen in Turner's Syndrome   Preductal Coarctation  
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Heart defect seen in Congential Rubella   Septal defects, PDA, Pulmonary Artery Stenosis  
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Problems seen in diabetic mother's children   Transposition of great vessels hypoglycemia after birth clavical fractures and erb's palsy  
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Sx Hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis w hypoKalemia, nonbilious projectile vomiting   Congenital Plyloric Stenosis  
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Thoracodorsal + pathology   unable to wipe bottom  
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Suprascapular + pathology   trouble initiating arm abduction  
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Nerve runs with lateral thoracic artery   long thoracic nerve  
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Nerve runs with deep brachial artery   radial nerve  
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Medial Nerve + pathology   loss of forearm protonation  
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Hemochromatosis Gene   HLA-A3  
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PAIR Ankylosing spondylitis gene   HLA-B27  
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Graves' Dz Gene   HLA-B8  
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Axillary lymph node location/drain   upper limb lateral breast drains  
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What drains to Celiac lymph nodes   stomach drains into  
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Sigmoid colon drains to   colic --> inferior mesentary  
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What drains to the internal iliac   rectum above pectinate  
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What drains to the superficial inguinal   anal canal scrotu thigh  
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What drains to superficial/deep plexus -> paraaortic lymph node   testes  
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What drains to thoracic duct   drains to L subclavian & internal jugular  
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What drains to right lymphatics   drains to brachiocephalic vein  
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IL-12, IFN b, IFN a -->   enhances NK cells  
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T cells receptors   TCR CD28 CD3  
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CD 21=   EBV receptor on B cellls  
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Helper T cell receptors   CD4 CD40L  
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B cell receptors   CD19,20,21 CD40 MHCII B7  
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Macrophage receptors   MHC II B7 CD40 CD14***(endotoxin receptor) receptor for Fc & C3b  
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NK cell receptors   MHC I CD16 (binds IgG Fc) CD 56***  
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Protection from Complement   CD55 CD59  
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IL1-->   stimulates endothelium adhesion molecues  
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IL6-->   fever acute phase proteins  
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IL8-->   major neutrophil chemotaxis  
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Neutrophil chemotaxis-->   IL8 Leukotriene B4 C5a  
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IL12-->   T cells into Th1 cells activate NK cell secreted by B cells  
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Secreted by Macrophage-->   IL 1,6,8,12 TNF a  
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TNF-alpha causes   septic shock vascular leak, activate endothelium acute phase pro  
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Secreted by Th1 cells   IL2 IFN y  
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Secreted by Th2 cells   IL4 IL5 IL10  
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IL5-->   stimulates eosinophils  
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Interferons a & b causes   induce ribonucleases block viral pro synthesis  
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IFN y causes   increase in MHC I and II  
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IL3 causes   all T cells to secrete  
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Bacteria with Ag variation   Salmonella (2 flagellar) Borrelia N gonorrhea (pilus)  
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IFN a & b does what?   released by virally infected cells  
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IFN y does what?   inhibits production of Th2 cells  
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Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase-->   adds DNA during recombination of Ab diversity (B cells)  
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C3b & IgG   primary opsinins  
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Preformed Ab= passive immunity conditions   To Be Healed Rapid Tetanus, Botulinum, HBV, Rabies  
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Name all granulomatous conditions   fungal (histo, blasto) syphilis (gummas) leprosy cat scratch fever (Bartonella henseliae) sarcoid crohn's berylliosis listeria foreign bodies wegeners (necrotizing granulomas) Chronic Granulomatous Dz  
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MOA of hypersensitivity type 1   IgE and histamine 15 min  
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MOA of hypersensitivity type 2   Ab mediated hypersensitivity IgM, IgG direct and indirect Coombs test  
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MOA of hypersensitivity type 3   Arthus reaction Ag-complement-IgG complex 5-12 hr  
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MOA of hypersensitivity type 4   T cell mediated 24-48 hr  
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B cell Conditions   Bruton's CVID Hyper IgM Ig deficencies  
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T cell Conditions   DiGeorges Job's synd (FATED) IL-12 r def chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis  
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B & T cell Conditions   SCIDS Ataxia-Telangiectasia Wiskott-Aldrich  
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Phagocyte Conditions   Chediak & Job Chronicallly Lack phagocytes (CGD and Leukocyte adhesion def)  
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DiGeorges Child HALLMARK   young child w tetany from hypoCa++ and candidiasis  
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CGD Child HALLMARK   young child with recurrent lung infxn and granulomatous lesions  
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Ectoderm missing in DiGeorges   2yo child multi viral and fungal infxn, hypoPTH, what germ layer gives rise to missing organ?  
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Jobs Syndrome Symptoms   repeated Staph abcesses, neutrophils don't respond to stimuli  
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DiGeorge Symptoms   heart defects and repeat viral infxn, low T cells  
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MOA in Bruton's   no tyrosine kinase gene, low Ig of all classes  
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MOA in Hyper IgM   defective CD40L severe pyogenic infxn high IgM, very low IgG  
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IgA Deficency Symptoms   milk allergy repeated sinus infxn  
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CVID Symptoms   defect in B cell maturation lymphomas low plasma cells  
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IL-12 receptor Deficency Symptoms   disseminated mycobacterial infxn low IFN y  
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IL-2 r, ADA def, MHC II def=   3 types of SCID  
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SCID labs   high adenine low IL-2r  
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Ataxia Telangiectasia Symptoms   DNA repair enzyme defect IgA def  
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Wiskott-Aldrich Symptoms   X-recessive Thrombocytopenic purpura Infxn Eczema Recurrent pyogenic infxn  
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Leukocyte Adhesion Deicency Symptoms   defect in LFA-1 integrin delayed umbilicus separation  
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Chediak Higashi Symptoms   partial albinism pyogenic infxn neuropathy  
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Deficency of MAC C5-9 Symptoms   recurrent Neisseria infxn  
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EEG waveforms   BATS Drink Blood Beta= eye open Alpha= awake, eyes closed Theta= light sleep Sigma= sleep spindles Delta= low freq, high amplitude REM= Beta= highest freq, low amplitude  
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SEM * 2 +_ mean   how do you determine 95% confidence interval?  
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3rd gen cephalosporins uses   serious gram - (Ceftriaxone= meningitis & gonorrhea)  
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4th gen cephalosporin uses   pseudomonas & gram +  
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Aztrenonam USE   binds PBP3 no penicillin allergy  
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How are aztreonam & aminoglycosides similar?   serious gram - infxn (aztreonam= aminoglycoside pretender)  
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Imipenem & meropenem   enterococci gram +/- anareobes (very broad)  
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Next step in TX of otitis if resistant to amoxicillin   Augmentin  
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What increases nephrotoxicity of aminoglycosides?   Cephalosporins  
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Symptoms of Haemophilus influenza   MOPE Meningitis, Otitis media, Pneumonia, Epiglossitis  
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Symptoms of Pseudomonas   PSEUDO Pneumonia, Sepsis, External otitis, Uti, Drug use, diabetic Osteomyelitis  
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Enterobacteriacae   gut KEES PSS Klebsiella, E coli, Serratia, Proteus, Salmonella, Shigella  
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Most common cause of gram - sepsis   Ecoli + Klebsiella  
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Symptoms of Protease   carries urease cause staghorn calculi in renal  
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Symptoms of Klebsiella   4 A's Aspiration pneumonia, Abscess in lungs, Alcholics, diAbetics nosocomial UTI's  
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Urease + Bugs   H. pylori Proteus  
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Cat scratch organism   Bartonella Henselae transmission  
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Dog/cat bite organism   Pasturella Multocida transmission  
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Cat feces organism   Toxoplasmosis transmission  
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Puppy feces organism   Yersinia enterocolitica transmission  
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Animal urine organism   Leptospira transmission  
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Rat bites organism   Spirillum Minus transmission  
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Spirochetes organism   BLT Borrelia, Leptospira, Treponema  
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Reiter's Syndrome bug   shigella flexneri C trachomonas D-K  
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Motile organism cause UTI   Proteus  
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Uses for macrolides   PUS Pneumonia (atypical- mycoplasma, chlamydia, legionella), UTI, STDs  
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Most common UTI bugs   PEcK+ S. Saphrophyticus #1= Ecoli  
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Drugs for anaerobic infections   Metro, clindamycin, imipenem  
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Conditions associated with Use of Metronidazole   GET GAP on the metro Giardia, Entamoeba, Trichomonas, Gardnerella, Anaerobes, h Pylori  
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MOA of Metronidazole   from free rads in bacteria- damage DNA  
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H pylori Triple Therapy   PPI, clathromycin, amoxicillin/metro  
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Effective against Pseudomonas   TCP Cefapime Aztreonam Fluoroquinolones Aminoglycosides Polymixins  
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What type of hallucinations causes what type of conditions   ViAO = De Sc Ep tion Visual= Delirium Auditory= Schizo Olfactory= Epilepsy  
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Side Effects of TCA   Tri=C's Convulsions, Coma, Cardiotox  
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Side Effects of High Potency Neuroleptics   haloperidol, trifluoperazine, fluphenazine NMS & tardive dyskinesia  
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Side Effects of Low Potency Neuroleptics   thioridazine, chlorpromazine anticholinergic, antihistamine, a block  
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Patient on diphenhydramine & dementia wants sleep meds, which Rx   trazadone or high potency antipsychotics (b/c less anti-Ach SE)  
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MOA of benzos and barbituates   increase in GABA (cl- channel vs duration)  
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SNRIs   venlafaxine, duloxetine, nefanizone  
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MAOIs   the MAOI PITS Phenelzine, Isocarboxazid, Tranylcypromine, Selegiline  
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NDRI   Buproprion  
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Tetracyclics   Mirtazapine= use for Depression w insomnia Trazadone= use for insomnia  
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Prevent relapse in alcoholics   1 AA 2 disulfram 3 naltrexone 4 topiramate 5 acamprosate  
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Unique properties of this Rickettsial organism   Coxiella Burnetti neg Weil Felix from tick feces and cattle placenta - spores aerosilized sx w no rash  
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Zoonotic Bacteria   Big Bad Bed Bugs From Your Pet (Ella) Bartonella spp, Borrelia burgdorferi, Borrelia recurrentis, Brucella spp, Francisella tularensis, Yersinia pestis/enterolytica, Pasturella multocida  
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Symptoms of Chlamydia Trachomatis   50% subclinical type D-K: urethritis, PID, ectopic preg, neonatal pneumonia type L1,2,3: lymphogranuloma venereum, lympadenitis, ulcers  
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Symptoms of C. Pneumoniae & Psittaci   atypical pneumonia (aerosol)  
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Antibiotics contraindicated in hepatic insufficiency   MCMCRT Metro, Chloramphenicol, Macrolides, Clindamycin, Rifampine, Tetracycline  
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Ghon focus   Calcified Scar  
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Ghon complex   Ghon focus + hilar nodes  
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Symptoms of Mycobacterium kensaii   cause pulm TB-like sx in COPD pt  
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Symptoms of Mycobacterium kensaii in child   cause cervical lymphadenitis in children  
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Impenem SE of Ethambutol   red-green color blindness  
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Rifampin uses   TB & leprosy meningococcal prophylaxis Hib  
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Macrolide drugs   azithromycin class  
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Fetal Erythropoiesis   Young Liver Syn Blood Yolk Sac-> Liver->Spleen->BM  
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Truncus Arteriosus   ascend. Aorta/Pulm trunk embryol structure  
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Bulbis Cordis   R ventr and smooth parts of L&R ventri embrol structure  
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Trabeculated parts of L&R ventricle   L ventricle embryo structure  
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Pain radiating to back   acute pancreatitis dissecting aortic anuersym diaphragm pain cholecystitis  
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Patent urachus   urine discharge from umbilicus vesicourachal diverticulum (=lesser)  
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Vitelline duct fails to close   meconium discharge from umbilicus meckel's diverticulum (=partial closure)  
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Primitive atria becomes   trabeculated L&R atria embrological structure  
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A gardener presents with SOB, salivation, miosis, and diarrhea. What is the cause/ MOA?   Organophosphate poison, anticholinesterase  
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Atropine is not effective in reversal of organophosphate poisoning. Why? What helps?   No effect on cholinesterase, use Pralidoxime  
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What muscarnic agonist / antagonist is used in asthma / COPD?   Ipratropium (an antagonist)  
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30 YO has urinary rentention due to neuroleptic, what do you treat with?   Cholinergic Agonist (problem is anti cholinergic s/e's  
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In Dark both pupils dialate. In light one pupil is miotic while another, given drug X, is mydratic. What is X?   Anticholinergic (atropine)  
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What drug is most apropriate in a pt with shock in order to maintain renal blood flow   Dopamine (although clinically doesn't really work)  
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60 YO male. Has a hard time driving at night due to worsening vision and halos appearing around headlights. What is causing this?   Cataracts  
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A gymnast sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. What nerve is injured?   Axillary n.  
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A kid falls while skateboarding and injures his elbow. He can't feel the medial part of his palm. What nerve is injured? What "sign"?   Ulnar N. Ulnar Claw (can't extend 4/5 digits)  
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A highschool athlete falls on his arm. Radiograph shows midshaft break of humerous. Which nerve / artery are at risk?   Radial n. Deep Brachial Art.  
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What patients are suseptible to Listeria?   Immunocompromised, Neonates, Pregnant Women  
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What organisms are implicatd in subacute endocarditis?   S. Veridians, Staph Epi, Enterococci. Staph Aure = Acute not subacute  
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A woman is breast feeding develops swelling and redness over her right breast. Exam reveals a warm, fluctuant mass. What is this?   Acute Mastitis -> Staph Aures  
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Most common aerobic skin flora?   Staph Epidermis  
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6 month old child is given HONEY for a cough and cold and becomes flaccid. What causes this? MOA?   C. Botulinum (Gm + Rod) inhibits Ach release  
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One hour after eating a potato salad at a picnic. Whole family vomits. 10hrs later they are better. Whats the cause?   Staph Aureus. Preformed toxin ingested (no infection)  
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Which complement is responsible for neutrophil chemotaxis?   C5a (also leukotriene B4, IL8)  
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Child presents with TETANY from hypocalcemia and CANDIDASIS due to immune suppression. What is deficient? What is the condition?   T cells, No Thymus = DiGeorges (22q11, "CATCH-22")  
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A young child has recurrent LUNG infection and granulomatous lesions. What defect in neutrophils causes this?   Lack of NADPH oxidase = no respiratory Burst  
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Mother brings 2 y/o child w/ Hx of multiple viral, fungal infections and the child is HYPOCALCEMIC. Which Germ layer gives rise to the missing structure? (Endo, Ecto, Meso)   No Thymus, DiGeorge Syndrome, Endoderm (from tongue)  
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A child with immune diorder w/ repeated Staph Abcesses. Neutrophils do not respond to chemotactic stimuli. What is the diag?   Hyper IgE aka Job Syndrome  
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A patient suffers recurrent Neisseria Infections. What part of complement is defective?   C5-C9, (LatE)  
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How does mechanism of Type 2 Hypersensitivity differ from Type 3?   Type 2 = Ab against SELF antigens. Type 3 = Ab's against REAL antigens. Complexs get stuck places and cause problems.  
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45 y/o female, MALAR RASH and ARTHRITIS. Which Ab is specific for the condition?   Anti dsDNA, Anti Smith. ANA is nonspecfic  
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After bone marrow transplant a patient suffers dermatitis, enteritis, and hepatitis? What is the condition?   Graft vs Host Dz.  
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A physican is looking for a risk factor for Pancreatitis. He interviews 100 w/ and 100 w/o pancreatitis. What kind of study is this?   Case Control  
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New glucose test arrives. You test it with a solution of 90mg of glucose. The test gives you the following readings: 54, 56, 55, 54, 53, 56, 55, 54. What is its presions and accuracy?   High Precision; low accuracy (value stays in the 50s while not accurate which 50s value)  
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A group of ppl who smoke and do not smoke are followed over 10 years. Every two years they check who develops cancer. What kind of study is this?   Cohort  
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A certain screening test has a 1% false negative rate. What is the sensitivity?   99%  
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Prevalence of Varicella in Pop A is 2x that of Pop B. It has the same incidence in both populations. Why is the prevalence different?   Dz in Pop A has longer duration  
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State the diagnosis: Gm (-), OXIDASE (+), DIPLO COCCI   Neisseria  
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22 y/o medical student. Burning feeling AFTER MEALS. EGD shows gm (-) RODS in gastric mucosa, what are they?   H. Pylori  
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50 y/o male smoker with new cough and flu like symptoms. Gm stains shows nothing. SILVER STAINS shows rods. What is the diagnosis?   Legionella (atypical pneumonia)  
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40 y/o female. Acute unilateral knee pain and bilateral BELLS PALSY. What organism? How is it transmitted?   Lyme Disease via Burreli Burgdorferi via Tick  
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21 y/o male. 5 day hx for fever chills and enlarged painful knee. What organism? And what treatment?   Gonorrhea -Ceftriaxone or Azithyromyocin if allergy  
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After taking a course of Amoxicillin, and adult pts develops toxic MEGACOLON and DIARRHEA. What caused this?   C. Diff  
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25 y/o with mycoplasma atypical pneumonia, exhibits anemia due to cryoagglutinins. What type of Ig is responsible for anemia?   IgM  
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Homeless alcoholic pt vomited while intoxicated. Develops FOUL smelling sputum. What organism?   Klebsiella or anerobe  
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65 y/o asks husband to stay in hospital overnight b/c she is afraid of being alone. What defense mechanism is this?   Regression  
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Which defense mechanism underlies all others?   Repression  
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60 y/o man admitted for chest pain, jumps out of bed and does 50 push ups to show he has not had a heart attack. What is the defense mechanism?   Denial  
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4 y/o girl complains of painful genitalia. On exam discharge with smear showing N. gonorrhoeae. What happened?   Sexual Abuse  
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72 y/o patient is unable to recall 3 objects during mini mental status exam. When asked what he would do if he smelled smoke he says "yell fire". When asked what a table can chair have in common he says both are made of wood. Family reports he needs const   Dementia  
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72 y/o brought to the clinic by family. Strange behaviors in last week. Very agitated, NAPS frequently during the day, URINATES on self, poor appetite. Unable to focus during exam. Diagnosis?   Delerium  
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You are on call and receive a call from a nurse asking to give sleep medication (diphenhramine) to an ELDERLY pt. with DEMENTIA. What do you do?   No diphenhydramine, no Benzos, use Trazadone or Haliperidol  
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A patient tries to commit suicide by cutting wrists. After beening cared for in the ER, what question would you ask to determine her level of commitment?   What did she do after cutting her wrists? Call someone? Lie in a bathtub?  
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28 y/o female with mild depression for 2 yrs. What diagnosis?   Dysthamia  
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2 months after losing her spouse a 42 YO female is having trouble eating, concentrating, and sleeping/ What do you do?   This is still with in normal. But you can tx the insomnia and help with trazadone or something else  
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A patient on whom you want an MRI tells you they are claustophobic. What can you do?   Give two Benzos prior to MRI  
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A young woman is anxious about her 1st pap smear and is told to realx and to imagine what the steps are. What is the process and example of?   Systamatic Desensitization  
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A woman has flashbacks about her boy friends death one monnth ago in a hit and run accident. She often cries and wishes for justice. Diagnosis?   Normal Greif  
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Nurse has hypoglycemia with no elevation of C-protein. Diagnosis?   Malingering or Facistious depenidng on 2nd gain  
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40 YO female tells you she is in love with you. You refer her (which you should never do during USMLE) and she attempts suicide. What is this personality disorder?   Splitting (Borderline )  
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30 Yo woman tells you that you are the best doctor and the nurses are very bad. On subsequent visit she threatens to change doctors because you do not feel a specific lab test is justified. You also notice several "scartches" on her left arm. What persona   Splitting (Borderline )  
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55 YO female wearing all black with a black feather boa and excess lipstick. What type of personality disorder?   Histrionic  
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A pt. demands only the best most famous doctor in town. What personality disorder?   Narcissistic  
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A patient returns from a trip to New Mexico, now has pneumonitis. What is fungal cause?   Coccidioidomycocces  
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A 30 Yo female has "cauliflower" skin lesion. Tissue biopsy shows broad based budding yeast. What is this organism?   Blastomycoisis  
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An HIV (+) pt with CSF showing 75/mm3 lymphocytes suddenly dies. Yeast is identified in the CSF. What is the diag?   Cryptococcus  
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A pt presents with a "rose garden scenario" (thorn prick with ulcers along lymphatic drainage). What is infection?   Sporothrix  
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A Pt who visited Mexico presents with Bloody Diarrhea. What infection could be found in the stool?   Cryptosporidium (usually filtered from city water supply....) more severe in AIDS  
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32 YO male went camping in N. California 2 wks ago. Pt had a 2 day stint of diarrhea and how has liver damage and Jaundice. What is the diagnosis?   Entamoeba Histolytica (not Giardia b/c Jaundice is present)  
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Pt returns after 2 wk vacation in Africa. Typical malaria presentation and recurrent fever. What is the mechanism for the cyclic?   Malaria cycle in RBS's causing lysis every 48-72 hrs  
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Which Fetal Vessel has the highest 02 concentration?   Umbilical Vein (1 verin, 2 arteries)  
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45 YO male with BP 160/90 on right arm and 170/92 on the left arm. No pulse in feet or ankle. What is the diagnosis?   Coarctation of the Aorta (adult type)  
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Describe blood flow through a PDA? Just for fun what keeps it open, what closes it?   Left to right shunt. (during pregnancy not called "patent" so incorrect to say R-> L then becomes L-> R). Hear a continuous machine murmer. Open = PGE, close = indomethacin  
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Monozygotic twins are delivered. One is pale and has a hematocrit of 15% the other is flushed with hct of 55%. What caused this? who will do better?   This is twin transfusion, mostly like due to monochorionic, mono amniotic pregnancy. Twin with lower hct will do better due to "sludging" in the one with high hct.  
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A child presents with Cleft lip. What process failed?   Fusion of the maxillry process with the Medial Nasal Process. Cleft lip is mostly a aesthetic defect were cleft pallate has functional defiect as well  
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23 YO male presents with one testicle. what is he at risk for?   Germ Cell tumor of teste  
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24 YO male develops testicular cancer. Mets spread where?   via Inguinal canal to para-aortic LN's  
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16 YO female with amenorhea. Pt lacks uterus and uterine tubes. Has two round structures in midline just superior to labia majora. What is the diagnosis?   Androgen Insensitive (46XY)  
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While on an ACE-i a pts develops a cough. Why? what is a replacement?   No Ang II = build up of bradykinn = cough. Use AngioTensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB)  
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40 yo male on lipid lower meds. Develops rash, puritis and diarrhea. What drug? Is this a allergic rxn? what mediates this response?   Niacin, not allergic due to prostaglandins (take asprin b4 hand to decrease) also dec with long term therapy)  
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What is mechanism of action of Cardiac Glycosides (Digoxin)?   Blocks the Na/K atpase pump. Na leaves cell via Na/Ca counter transporter and increases intracellular Ca lvls = better contractility  
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An abdominal Aortic aneurysm is most likley due to?   Atheroscerois  
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A pt with poorly controlled HTN has actue sharp substernal pain raidiating to the back. Death occurs within a few hours. Diagnosis?   Dissecting Aorta  
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During a high school football game a young athlete collapses and dies immediately. What is the condition?   Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy  
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What murmers are heard best in the Left Lateral Decubitous Position?   Mitral Stenosis/ Regurg. And Left sided S3 / S4  
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80 YO male. systolic cresendo decresendo murmur. What is the condition?   Aortic Stenosis (probabley due to calcified aorta)  
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IV drug user presents with Chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, tachypnea. What is the condition?   Bacterial Endocardidits -> PE (remeber drug users get it on the right)  
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Pt brought to ER after MVA presents with chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, tachypnea. What is the condition?   Tension Pneumothorax most likely, could be Cardiac Tamponade too  
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Post-op pt presents with Chest pain, dyspnea, tachycardia, tachypnea. What is the condition?   PE  
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A young girl with a congeital valve dz is given penicillin prophylactically. In the ER bacterial endocarditis is diag. What is next?   IV Vancomyocin and possible echo to check valves (might need replacement)  
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An adult pt with hx of HTN presents with sudden sharp, tearing pain, radiating to his back. What do you see on CXR?   Widening of the mediastinum (Dissecting Aorta)  
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On auscultation of a patient you hear a pansystolic murmur at the apex with radiation to the axilla. Cause?   Mitral Regurgitation (Aortic Stenosis is not PANsystolic)  
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A 25 YO pregnant woman in her 3rd trimester has normal BP when standing and sitting but drops to 90/50 when she lies supine. What is the condition?   Compression of IVC, dont lie on your back.  
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45 YO male with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis. He had exposure to what Virus?   HPV - 16 / 18  
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20 YO college student presents with LAD, fever, and hepatosplenmegaly. His serum agglutinates sheep RBC's. What cell is infected?   B Cells - EBV mononucleosis (+) monospot. Cause of (-) monospot mononucleosis? CMV  
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How does rabies travel through the CNS to cause fatal encephalitis and seizures?   Retrograde along neurons  
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What is the characteristic shape of rabies?   Bullet Shaped  
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An adolescent presents with cough and rust colored sputum. What does gm stain show?   Strep. Pneumo -> Gm (+) diplococci  
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HIV (+) pt with a CD4 count of 250 presents with signs of meningitis. CSF shows a heavily encapsulated organism. What is it?   Cryptococcus Neoformans  
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An older patient has blood in his urine and renal stones. What organism?   Proteus  
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A 50 YO pt is recovering from Abd surgery from 2 days ago. He has had an internal catheter in place since then. He now has a fever of 100F. Most likely organism?   E-Coli (UTI)  
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Hemidesmisomes, cadherin, integrin, ICAM-1. Which joins only cells of teh same type and does not attach to the basement membrane?   Cadherin  
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Where does new bone formation take place in growing long bones?   Epipseal Plate  
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A football player was kick in the legs and suffered a damaged medial meniscus. What else is likely to have been damaged?   ACL, MCL  
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A man presents with pain and swelling of the knees, subcutaneous nodules around the joints and achilles tendon, equisite pain in the metatarsophalangeal joint of his right big toe. Biopsy reveals needle like crystals.   Most likely Gout  
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Treatment of Acute Gout exacerbation?   NSAID, Colchicine  
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A patient has difficulty swallowing, distal cyanosis in cold temp, anti-centromere antibodies. What other S/S will you see?   CREST: Calcinosis, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia  
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A patient presents with photosensitivity, arthritis, renal disease and recurrent oral ulcers. She is taking Primaquine and NSAIDS. What should be checked 2/yr?   Renal Fxn (SLE)  
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30 yo woman presents with low grade fever, rash across her nose and gets worse in the sun and widespread edema. What blood test would you use to screen?   ANA - SLE  
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A CT scan of the chest shows bilateral hilar LAD. What is the diagnosis?   Sarcoidosis  
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A 75 yo male presents with acute knee pain and swelling. X ray reveals erosion of the joint space and calcium deposits in the menisci. What is Diag? What would be found on FNA of joint?   PsuedoGout -> Calcium pyrophosphate  
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A 50 YO female complains of double vision, amenorrhea and headaches. What is likely diagnosis?   Prolactinoma  
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A patients MRI shows replacment of tissue in the sella tursica with CSF. What is the presentation?   Most likley asymptomatic or defieciency in Pituitary Hormones  
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What hormones come from the anterior pituitary?   FSH, LH, ACTH, GH, prolactin, TSH  
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Which hormones share a common alpha unit?   FSH, TSH, LH, bHCG  
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A young woman is found to have short stature and shortened 4th and 5th metacarpals. What endocrine disorder is this?   Albrights osteodystrophy (Pseudohypoparathydroiism) aka body not responsive to PTH  
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35 yo female presents with diffuse goiter and hyperthyroidism. What is TSH / T3/ T4?   Low TSH High T3,T4  
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48 YO female presents with progressive lethargy, and extreme cold sensitivity. What is Diag? Lab values?   Hypothyroid / Hasimotos most likely (High TSH low T3/4)  
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An adult male with elevated serum cortisol and signs of cushing syndrome undergoes dexamethasone suppresion. 1mg does not decrease cortisol, 8mg does. What is diag?   ACTH secreting pituitary adenoma  
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A very tan child with pale mother comes in and is found to be hypotensive. What is the condition?   Addisons  
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28 YO male with normal well managed IDDM comes in with DKA hae had recently been taking OTC cold medicine. What caused his DKA?   Infection  
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How is hemoglobin glycosylated in DM to make HA1c?   Non enzymatically (slowly do to glucose build up)  
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What are the sources of Carbon for Purine formation? For pyrimidine?   Co2, Glycine, tetrahydrofolate / CO2 and aspartate  
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How does UV light damage DNA?   Causes Thymine Dimers to form  
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What ammino acid frequently has more coding sequences in mRNAt the represented in the peptide?   AUG - methione  
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What happens to mRNA before it leaves the nucleus?   Spliced (remove introns), Poly A tail, and 5' Cap  
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Two pts have the same mutation on chromosome 15. but they have different phenotypic expressions. One has a mutation from the father the other from the mother. What is this an example of?   Genetic Imprinting  
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An obese woman presents with amenorrhea and increased serum testosterone. Diag?   Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (stein-leventhaul)  
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What type of cancer are patients with polycystic ovarian syndrome at risk for?   Endometrial  
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Why is progesterone used in combo with estrogen in hormone replacement therapy?   To protect Uterus / endometrium from unregulated hyperplasia / cancer  
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What circumstance would cause an elevated LH?   Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (stein-leventhaul), physiological LH surge, low estrogen lvls, Turner Syndrome  
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A pregnant woman with previous C section is at increased risk for what pregnancy complications?   Placenta Accreta, Previa  
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A pregnant women at 16 weeks gestation presents with large abd and HTN. Diag? Lab values?   Hydatifrom Mole, increased beta HCG  
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What substance is elevated in hydatifrom moles?   beta HCG (Really high in complete, slightly elevated in partial)  
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15 YO pt who normally comes in with her parents presents alone. She states she is sexually active but knows she is not pregnant because she has never menstrated. What should you tell her?   Check for delayed puberty, talk about how you can get pregant on your first time even before you menstrated, STDs and maybe contraceptives  
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23 YO female is on rifampin for TB and OCP. She gets pregnant. Why?   Rifampin increase Cyp450 metabolism of OCP, decreasing their effectiveness  
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What is the best option of birth control of mental retarted pts?   Medroxyprogesterone (injection q3 months)  
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A 58 YO post menopausal women is on Tamoxifen. What is she at risk of acquiring?   Endometrial Carcinoma  
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What cells are responsible for maintaing a high testosterone concentration in the seminiferous tubules?   Leydig - Secrete; Sertoli - release of ABG = holds testosterone in place  
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A 55 y/o man undergoing tx for BPH has increased testosterone and decreased DHT as well as gynecomastia and edema. What medication is he on?   Finasteride - 5 alpha reductase inhibitor (also used to treat renal stones)  
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Where does testicular cancer first metastasize?   Para Aorotic Lymph Nodes  
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What protein is involved in transporting an endocytosed vesicle from the plasma membrane to the endosome?   Clatherin  
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A patient with a corticol lesion is UNAWARE of his neurologic deficiency. Where is the lesion?   Located on non dominate parietal Lobe (usually right)  
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What are the findings of Brown Sequard Syndrome?   Ipsilateral UMN lesion below the lesion | Ipsilateral loss of tactile, vibration and proprioception below lesion | Contralateral pain and temp loss below lesion | ipsilateral all sension for a few levels above lesion | LMN at level of lesion  
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A man in his 40s begins to develop early dementia and uncontrolable movements of his upper extremities. where in the brain do you expect to see atrophy?   Caudate -> Huntingtons  
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A male presents with involuntary flailing of one arm. Where is the lesion?   This is hemibalismus. Contral lateral thalamus  
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28 y/o chemist presents with MPTP exposure. What neurotransmitter is depleted?   Dopamine  
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A patient cannot abduct her left eye on lateral gaze but convergence is normal. She also has difficulty smiling. Where in the CNS is the lesion?   CN IV (MLF tract) + CN VII. Both are at level of Pontine  
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28 y/o woman in a MVA. Initally feels fine then loses consiousness. CT shows intracranial hemorrhage that does not cross suture lines. What bone and vessel were damaged?   MMA, and temporal bone  
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85 y/o man with alzheimers falls at home and presents 3 days later with severe headache and vomiting. What is the diagnosis? What is damaged?   Subdural hematoma bridging veins  
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A woman involved in a accident cannot turn her head to the left and has a right shoulder droop. What is damaged?   CN XI - accessory  
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A 19 y/o pt presents with a furuncle on his philtrum and the cavernous sinous becomes infected. What might you see?   defects in CN 3, 4, 6  
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A pt has a leftward deviation of the tongue on protusion and has a right sided spastic paralysis. Where is the lesion?   Left Medulla + corticospinal tract (happens before the tract decusates)  
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