Pharmacology Ch. 1-10 Midterm Review
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| Chapter 2 Review Questions | Chapter 2 Review Questions
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| What is the study of the activity of drugs within the body known as? | pharmacokinetics
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| If a drug has a half-life of 6 hours and a starting blood concentration of 100mg/kg, how long will it take until the concentration of the drug in the blood is 25mg/kg? | 12 hours
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| What form of a drug crosses cell membranes easily? | nonionized
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| What is a classic example of a drug that is eliminated by a zero-order pharmacokinetic process? | alcohol
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| What term is used to describe the situation when the effect of two drugs given together is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual actions? | synergism
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| What term is used to describe the phenomenon in which elevating a dose of drug no longer improves the clinical effect for that drug? | ceiling effect
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| What term is used to describe a drug which binds to a receptor and has an action similar to that of an endogenous chemical? | agonist
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| By what process can one drug increase the metabolism of both itself and other drugs? | induction
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| What is the rate-limiting factor for drug distribution? | blood flow
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| An all-inclusive effect on the whole body is also called a(n) __________ effect. | systemic
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| From what two organs are most drugs eliminated? | kidney and liver
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| What term is used to describe the strength by which a particular messenger binds to its receptor site? | affinity
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| What can drugs combine with in addition to receptors? | enzymes, transport proteins, nucleic acids
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| What term is used to describe a severe response to a chemical that is characterized by life-threatening respiratory distress and shock? | anaphylactic reaction
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| The process in the body by which drugs are converted to other biochemical compounds and then are excreted is | metabolism
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| Why are the intestines the major site of drug absorption after oral administration of drugs? | They have a large surface area from which to absorb drugs.
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| How does grapefruit interact with certain drugs? | It contains a compound that can inhibit intestinal cytochrome P-450, allowing more drug to be absorbed.
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| What does bioavailability reflect? | the fraction of an administered dose that is available to the target tissue
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| What does the abbreviation ADME stand for? | absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination
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| In what way are the capillaries in the central nervous system (CNS) different from other capillaries? | They are enveloped by glial cells, which present additional barriers against water-soluble compounds.
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| Chapter 4 Review Questions | Chapter 4 Review Questions
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| What is the most frequent form of bacterial resistance to antibiotics? | destruction of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes
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| By which century were the organisms that cause cholera, syphilis, and leprosy isolated and identified? | 20th
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| Which of the following is an example of a gram-positive bacterium and infection it causes? | Staphylococcus resulting in toxic shock syndrome
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| What bacterial pathway do sulfonamides interfere with? | folic acid biosynthesis
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| What is true of a bacteriostatic antibiotic? | It inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria.
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| What term is used to describe antibiotic treatment that is begun before the results of the organism culture have been returned? | empirical
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| Why should the counting tray be swabbed with alcohol after dispensing and antibiotic? | to prevent cross-contamination
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| Which of the following drugs is associated with an adverse effect know as Red Man's syndrome? | vancomycin
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| What are two general signs that an infection is bacterial in origin? | white blood cell count above 12,000 and fever above 101 degrees Fahrenheit
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| What type of infections are aminoglycosides such as amikacin or kanamycin used to treat? | sepsis
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| Which statement regarding linezolid (Zyvox) is incorrect? | It should be stored in clear glass containers.
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| How do third-generation cephalosporins differ from earlier cephalosporins? | improved activity against gram-negative bacteria
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| What are the bacteria that require oxygen to survive known as? | aerobic
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| Which of the following drugs is classified as a macrolide? | erythromycin
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| Which of the following classes of antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes | tetracyclines
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| What is the biggest challenge in developing a new antibiotic? | killing the bacteria without harming the patient
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| When this drug is dispensed, a "Do not drink alcohol" sticker must be attached to the container. | metronidazole
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| Which of the following is not a mechanism by which bacteria develop antibiotic resistance? | metabolism
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| What was the first true class of antibiotics? | sulfonamides
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| What is the most serious allergic reaction to penicillins? | anaphylaxis
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| Chapter 5 Review Questions | Chapter 5 Review Questions
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| What pair of viruses below are examples of latent viruses? | herpes and HIV
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| Which of the antiviral drugs listed below is also effective in treating patients with parkinsonism? | amantadine
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| What aspect of the fungal cell wall is affected by amphotericin B? | permeability
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| Which of the following drugs is used to treat influenza A or influenza B? | rimantadine, zanamivir, oseltamivir
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| What is an example of a chronic viral infection? | herpes
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| What is common about the mechanism of action of antifungal drugs? | Antifungals interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol, a building block for fungal cell membranes.
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| What is another name for an individual virus particle? | virion
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| Which of the following drugs is classified as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)? | abacavir
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| What is a common target of fungal infections? | nails
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| Which drug or drug class listed below is least likely to be used to treat side effects associated with amphotericin B? | penicillin
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| What is a route by which most common viruses spread? | direct contact, ingestion of contaminated food and water,inhalation of airborne particles, exposure of contaminated body fluids and/or contaminated equipment.
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| How can antibiotics worsen fungal infections? | Antibiotics may kill the body's natural flora, which tend to keep fungi in check.
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| Which of the following antifungal drugs should be taken with a fatty meal and can be used safely in children? | griseofulvin
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| What is becoming a common dosing method for treating fungal nail infections? | pulse dosing (one week per month)
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| What term is used to describe a specific molecule produced by B-lymphocytes with help from T helper cells and other mechanisms? | immunoglobulin
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| Why is it more difficult to develop antiviral drugs than it is to develop antibiotics? | Because viruses utilize the host (patient) cell processes, killing them is often toxic to the patient.
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| Which of the following choices represents a class of antiretroviral drugs? | nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI),protease inhibitor (PI), fusion inhibitor
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| Which of the following drugs acts by preventing the HIV virus from entering immune cells? | enfuvirtide
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| How are fungal and human cells similar? | They both have a defined nucleus.
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| Patients taking which of the following drugs should not drive at night? | voriconazole
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| Chapter 6 Question Review | Chapter 6 Question Review
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| Which of the following narcotics is a controlled substance? | morphine, codeine, oxycodone, meperidine
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| Which of the following narcotics can be given intravenously as a preanesthetic medication and also administered as a patch or as a lozenge? | fentanyl (Actiq)
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| What class of drugs can be used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers? | anticholinesterases
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| Following injection with a local anesthetic, what sensation is affected first? | pain perception
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| What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system? | afferent and efferent
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| What is the most important action of alpha-adrenergic receptors? | vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure
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| What is the only neuromuscular blocker that acts via a depolarizing mechanism? | succinylcholine (Quelicin)
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| What term describes the physical and emotional reliance of patients on narcotics? | dependence
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| Which narcotic is the standard against which all other narcotics are measured or compared? | morphine
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| What class of drugs may be used to treat migraine headaches? | triptans
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| What did the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) define, in 2001, as the "fifth" vital sign? | pain
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| Which of the following drugs is an example of a selective 5-HT receptor agonist? | sumatriptan (Imitrex)
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| Which of the following general anesthetics is administered intravenously | ketamine (Ketalar)
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| What neurotransmitter is also known as adrenaline? | epinephrine
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| What are the primary opiate receptors associated with analgesia? | mu, kappa, delta
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| Which drug listed below can be administered as a nasal spray to treat a migraine attack? | sumatriptan (Imitrex), zolmitriptan (Zomig), dihydroergotamine (Migranal), butorphanol (Stadol)
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| Which of the following drugs are the most used preoperative sedatives? | benzodiazepines
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| What is not an aspect of balanced anesthesia? | hypertension
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| Which local anesthetic drug does not relax vascular smooth muscle? | cocaine
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| Which of the following drugs can be used to reverse the effects of a narcotic? | naloxone (Narcan)
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| Chapter 7 Question Review | Chapter 7 Question Review
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| Which monoamine oxidase inhibitor is used to treat Parkinson's patients rather than depressed patients? | selegiline (Eldepryl)
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| Which of the following drugs used to treat insomnia is not a DEA scheduled controlled substance? | diphenhydramine
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| Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug used to treat the Parkinson-like side effects of antipsychotic therapy? | benztropine (Cogentin)
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| Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating bipolar (manic-depressive)? | lithium
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| What class of drugs is part of the standard of care for alcohol (ethanol) detoxification? | benzodiazepines
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| Which of the following drugs is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant and has significant anticholinergic side effects? | imipramine
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| Which class of antidepressants inhibits enzymes that metabolize catecholamines? | MAOIs
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| Which two neurotransmitters are believed to be most involved with schizophrenia and the drugs used to treat this disorder? | dopamine and serotonin
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| Which of the following new antipsychotic drugs is classified today as being "atypical"? | olanzapine (Zyprexa)
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| Which of the following drugs is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor? | amitriptyline
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| What drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in the treatment of bipolar disorder, particularly with rapid cyclers? | divalproex (Depakote)
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| What drug used to treat alcohol addiction interferes with the metabolism of ethanol? | disulfiram (Antabuse)
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| During which stages of sleep does dreaming occur? | Stages III and IV
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| Fluoxetine is an example of an antidepressant that appears to work through which of the following mechanisms? | It inhibits the reuptake of serotonin into certain neurons in the brain.
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| Tardive dyskinesia is associated with the long-term use of which psychiatric medication? | antipsychotics
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| Which of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal? | nausea and vomiting, delirium tremens (DTs), hallucinations, sweating
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| What term is used to describe anxiety for which there is no identifiable source other than from within the patient? | endogenous
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| Which of the following antianxiety drugs is not a benzodiazepine? | buspirone (Buspar)
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| Which drug used to treat depression is also used for smoking cessation? | bupropion
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| With which psychiatric disorder do patients suffer from alternating episodes of major depression and mild-to-severe agitation? | bipolar mood disorder
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| Chapter 8 Question Review | Chapter 8 Question Review
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| Which pair of anticonvulsants is most likely to interact with other drugs a patient may be taking? | phenobarbital (Luminal) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
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| Which drug listed below is used to treat patients with multiple sclerosis? | interferon beta-1a (Avonex, Rebif), interferon beta-1b (Betaseron), mitoxantrone (Novantrone), baclofen
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| What class of drugs may be used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis? | acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
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| What dopamine precursor is used to treat Parkinson patients? | levodopa (Dopar)
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| Which drug has a boxed warning about fatal rashes? | Lamictal
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| Which drug used to treat ADD/ADHD is not a controlled substance? | atomoxetine (Strattera)
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| Which of the following drugs has been shown to improve the cognitive function and social behavior of Alzheimer's patients and is sold over the counter? | gingko
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| Which neurotransmitter is deficient in the nigrostriatal pathways of patients with Parkinson's disease? | dopamine
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| The prevalence of Parkinson's disease is highest in what age group? | above age 60
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| Which anticonvulsant does not appear to act via GABA receptors and is frequently used to treat neuropathic pain? | gabapentin (Neurontin)
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| What term is used to describe continuous tonic-clonic seizures, lasting over 30 minutes, during which consciousness may not return? | status epilepticus
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| What are the most common side effects of antiseizure medications? | sedation and some degradation of cognitive process
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| Which of the following anticonvulsants is correctly paired with the process it most likely affects? | diazepam (Valium)-- GABA
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| With what type of seizure may patients display blank stares, rotating eyes and rapid blinking; not have generalized convulsions; and have up to 100 occurrences a day? | absence
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| Which of the following anticonvulsants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance? | diazepam (Valium)
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| Which anticonvulsant is the drug of choice for absence seizures? | ethosuximide (Zarontin)
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| What two neurotransmitters in the brain appear to play the greatest role in seizures? | GABA and glutamate
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| What is the potential way in which antiepileptic medications can interact with each other and other drugs? | They can alter the metabolism of other drugs.
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| Which of the following anticonvulsants is also used to treat manic episodes in bipolar mood disorders? | valproic acid (Depakene)
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| What combination drug contains levodopa plus an inhibitor of peripheral levodopa metabolism? | Sinemet
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| Chapter 9 Question Review | Chapter 9 Question Review
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| In what percent of asthma patients is there an allergic component? | 35-55
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| Which of the following asthma medications blocks parasympathetic acetylcholine receptors and should not be given to patients with known peanut allergies? | ipratropium (Atrovent)
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| Which of the following is an OTC expectorant available in caplet, capsule, liquid, syrup, tablet, and sustained-release forms? | guaifenesin (Mucinex)
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| Which of the following is a potentially life-threatening condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing, has blue lips, and nail beds, may lose consciousness, and does not respond to normal management? | status asthmaticus
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| What is a common adverse effect of many (older) antihistamines (H-1 blockers)? | anticholinergic responses, hyperactivity in some children, sedation
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| Which of the following drugs may be used to treat tuberculosis? | isoniazid (Laniazid, Nydrzid), rifampin (Rifadin, Rimactine), ciprofloxacin (Cipro), rifapentine (Priftin)
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| What are two signs or symptoms of nicotine excess? | dizziness and diarrhea
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| Which of the following antitussives is a DEA controlled substance? | codeine
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| Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) may be used to treat what two lung diseases? | bronchitis and cystic fibrosis
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| With which device, used to administer asthma or COPD medications, does a stream of air flow past a liquid to create a fine mist for the patient to inhale? | nebulizer
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| Which respiratory medication listed below is an inhaled corticosteroid? | fluticasone (Flovent)
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| What is the most useful measure for assessing the severity of asthma on a regular basis? | peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)
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| Which of the following medications is least likely to be used to treat or stop an acute asthma attack? | cromolyn sodium
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| What class of drugs used to treat hypertension, angina, cardiac arrhythmias, and migraine headaches is contraindicated in asthma patients? | beta blockers
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| Which of the following is a reversible syndrome in which breathing may be difficult? | asthma
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| What is a potential symptom of nicotine withdrawal? | anxiety, difficulty in concentrating, gastrointestinal disturbances, increased appetite and weight gain
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| What is the least sedating OTC antihistamine and the only one approved by the FDA for cold symptoms? | clemastine (Tavist Allergy)
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| Which of the following drugs is only indicated for long-term maintenance therapy of bronchospasms associated with emphysema and bronchitis? | tiotropim (Spiriva)
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| An asthma attack consists of how many phases or responses? | 2
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| Chapter 10 Question Review | Chapter 10 Question Review
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| What is another term for heartburn? | gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
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| If abdominal pain is caused by the release of an allergy or inflammation mediator, what mast cell stabilizer may be prescribed? | cromolyn sodium (Gastrocrom)
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| What is a potential problem associated with low-fiber diets? | constipation
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| What is the drug of choice in treating malabsorption syndrome due to pancreatic insufficiency? | pancrelipase (Creon-10)
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| Which drug listed below acts to facilitate the admixture of fat and water to soften stool? | docusate-senna (Senokot-S)
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| By what criterion is dietary fiber characterized? | fermentability, water-holding capacity, stool-bulking capacity, solubility
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| What drug is metabolized by colonic bacteria and is used to prevent and treat hepatic-induced encephalopathy? | lactulose (Enulose)
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| Which drug listed below forms a protective coat over an ulcer, helping it resist degradation by gastric acid, pepsin, and bile salts? | sucralfate (Carafate)
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| What three drugs given together are used to treat H. pylori-induced peptic ulcers? | bismuth subsalicylate-metronidazole-tetracycline (Helidac)
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| Which histamine-2 receptor blocker affects cytochrome P-450 and may interact with many other drugs? | cimetidine (Tagamet)
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| What GI disorder is characterized by inflammation of the large bowel with the patient experiencing diarrhea containing blood, mucus, and pus? | ulcerative colitis
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| Which drug or drug combination is correctly paired with its DEA control schedule? | diphenoxylate-atropine (Lomotil)-- C-V
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| Which medication below is used in preteens to treat diarrhea and acts by interfering with enzyme-dependent electron transfer in anaerobic energy metabolism? | nitazoxanide (Alinia)
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| Which of the following drugs is used for chemotherapy-induced emesis and frequently causes headaches in patients treated with it? | ondansetron (Zofran)
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| For the treatment of hepatitis, which drug listed below is an interferon linked with a branched polyehylene glycol (PEG) molecule in order to allow once weekly dosing? | peginterferon alfa-2a (Pegasys)
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| What receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) are blocked by metoclopramide (Reglan)? | dopamine
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| Which drug listed below is an example of a phase II drug used to treat GERD? | cimetidine (Tagamet), omeprazole (Prilosec), esomeprazole (Nexium), famotidine (Pepcid)
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| Which of the drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody that binds to tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is indicated for the treatment of Crohn's disease? | infliximab (Remicade)
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| What is praziquantel (Biltricide) used to treat? | intestinal parasites (tapeworms)
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