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Pharmacology Midterm

Pharmacology Ch. 1-10 Midterm Review

Chapter 2 Review Questions Chapter 2 Review Questions
What is the study of the activity of drugs within the body known as? pharmacokinetics
If a drug has a half-life of 6 hours and a starting blood concentration of 100mg/kg, how long will it take until the concentration of the drug in the blood is 25mg/kg? 12 hours
What form of a drug crosses cell membranes easily? nonionized
What is a classic example of a drug that is eliminated by a zero-order pharmacokinetic process? alcohol
What term is used to describe the situation when the effect of two drugs given together is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual actions? synergism
What term is used to describe the phenomenon in which elevating a dose of drug no longer improves the clinical effect for that drug? ceiling effect
What term is used to describe a drug which binds to a receptor and has an action similar to that of an endogenous chemical? agonist
By what process can one drug increase the metabolism of both itself and other drugs? induction
What is the rate-limiting factor for drug distribution? blood flow
An all-inclusive effect on the whole body is also called a(n) __________ effect. systemic
From what two organs are most drugs eliminated? kidney and liver
What term is used to describe the strength by which a particular messenger binds to its receptor site? affinity
What can drugs combine with in addition to receptors? enzymes, transport proteins, nucleic acids
What term is used to describe a severe response to a chemical that is characterized by life-threatening respiratory distress and shock? anaphylactic reaction
The process in the body by which drugs are converted to other biochemical compounds and then are excreted is metabolism
Why are the intestines the major site of drug absorption after oral administration of drugs? They have a large surface area from which to absorb drugs.
How does grapefruit interact with certain drugs? It contains a compound that can inhibit intestinal cytochrome P-450, allowing more drug to be absorbed.
What does bioavailability reflect? the fraction of an administered dose that is available to the target tissue
What does the abbreviation ADME stand for? absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination
In what way are the capillaries in the central nervous system (CNS) different from other capillaries? They are enveloped by glial cells, which present additional barriers against water-soluble compounds.
Chapter 4 Review Questions Chapter 4 Review Questions
What is the most frequent form of bacterial resistance to antibiotics? destruction of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes
By which century were the organisms that cause cholera, syphilis, and leprosy isolated and identified? 20th
Which of the following is an example of a gram-positive bacterium and infection it causes? Staphylococcus resulting in toxic shock syndrome
What bacterial pathway do sulfonamides interfere with? folic acid biosynthesis
What is true of a bacteriostatic antibiotic? It inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria.
What term is used to describe antibiotic treatment that is begun before the results of the organism culture have been returned? empirical
Why should the counting tray be swabbed with alcohol after dispensing and antibiotic? to prevent cross-contamination
Which of the following drugs is associated with an adverse effect know as Red Man's syndrome? vancomycin
What are two general signs that an infection is bacterial in origin? white blood cell count above 12,000 and fever above 101 degrees Fahrenheit
What type of infections are aminoglycosides such as amikacin or kanamycin used to treat? sepsis
Which statement regarding linezolid (Zyvox) is incorrect? It should be stored in clear glass containers.
How do third-generation cephalosporins differ from earlier cephalosporins? improved activity against gram-negative bacteria
What are the bacteria that require oxygen to survive known as? aerobic
Which of the following drugs is classified as a macrolide? erythromycin
Which of the following classes of antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes tetracyclines
What is the biggest challenge in developing a new antibiotic? killing the bacteria without harming the patient
When this drug is dispensed, a "Do not drink alcohol" sticker must be attached to the container. metronidazole
Which of the following is not a mechanism by which bacteria develop antibiotic resistance? metabolism
What was the first true class of antibiotics? sulfonamides
What is the most serious allergic reaction to penicillins? anaphylaxis
Chapter 5 Review Questions Chapter 5 Review Questions
What pair of viruses below are examples of latent viruses? herpes and HIV
Which of the antiviral drugs listed below is also effective in treating patients with parkinsonism? amantadine
What aspect of the fungal cell wall is affected by amphotericin B? permeability
Which of the following drugs is used to treat influenza A or influenza B? rimantadine, zanamivir, oseltamivir
What is an example of a chronic viral infection? herpes
What is common about the mechanism of action of antifungal drugs? Antifungals interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol, a building block for fungal cell membranes.
What is another name for an individual virus particle? virion
Which of the following drugs is classified as a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)? abacavir
What is a common target of fungal infections? nails
Which drug or drug class listed below is least likely to be used to treat side effects associated with amphotericin B? penicillin
What is a route by which most common viruses spread? direct contact, ingestion of contaminated food and water,inhalation of airborne particles, exposure of contaminated body fluids and/or contaminated equipment.
How can antibiotics worsen fungal infections? Antibiotics may kill the body's natural flora, which tend to keep fungi in check.
Which of the following antifungal drugs should be taken with a fatty meal and can be used safely in children? griseofulvin
What is becoming a common dosing method for treating fungal nail infections? pulse dosing (one week per month)
What term is used to describe a specific molecule produced by B-lymphocytes with help from T helper cells and other mechanisms? immunoglobulin
Why is it more difficult to develop antiviral drugs than it is to develop antibiotics? Because viruses utilize the host (patient) cell processes, killing them is often toxic to the patient.
Which of the following choices represents a class of antiretroviral drugs? nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI),protease inhibitor (PI), fusion inhibitor
Which of the following drugs acts by preventing the HIV virus from entering immune cells? enfuvirtide
How are fungal and human cells similar? They both have a defined nucleus.
Patients taking which of the following drugs should not drive at night? voriconazole
Chapter 6 Question Review Chapter 6 Question Review
Which of the following narcotics is a controlled substance? morphine, codeine, oxycodone, meperidine
Which of the following narcotics can be given intravenously as a preanesthetic medication and also administered as a patch or as a lozenge? fentanyl (Actiq)
What class of drugs can be used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers? anticholinesterases
Following injection with a local anesthetic, what sensation is affected first? pain perception
What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system? afferent and efferent
What is the most important action of alpha-adrenergic receptors? vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure
What is the only neuromuscular blocker that acts via a depolarizing mechanism? succinylcholine (Quelicin)
What term describes the physical and emotional reliance of patients on narcotics? dependence
Which narcotic is the standard against which all other narcotics are measured or compared? morphine
What class of drugs may be used to treat migraine headaches? triptans
What did the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) define, in 2001, as the "fifth" vital sign? pain
Which of the following drugs is an example of a selective 5-HT receptor agonist? sumatriptan (Imitrex)
Which of the following general anesthetics is administered intravenously ketamine (Ketalar)
What neurotransmitter is also known as adrenaline? epinephrine
What are the primary opiate receptors associated with analgesia? mu, kappa, delta
Which drug listed below can be administered as a nasal spray to treat a migraine attack? sumatriptan (Imitrex), zolmitriptan (Zomig), dihydroergotamine (Migranal), butorphanol (Stadol)
Which of the following drugs are the most used preoperative sedatives? benzodiazepines
What is not an aspect of balanced anesthesia? hypertension
Which local anesthetic drug does not relax vascular smooth muscle? cocaine
Which of the following drugs can be used to reverse the effects of a narcotic? naloxone (Narcan)
Chapter 7 Question Review Chapter 7 Question Review
Which monoamine oxidase inhibitor is used to treat Parkinson's patients rather than depressed patients? selegiline (Eldepryl)
Which of the following drugs used to treat insomnia is not a DEA scheduled controlled substance? diphenhydramine
Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug used to treat the Parkinson-like side effects of antipsychotic therapy? benztropine (Cogentin)
Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating bipolar (manic-depressive)? lithium
What class of drugs is part of the standard of care for alcohol (ethanol) detoxification? benzodiazepines
Which of the following drugs is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant and has significant anticholinergic side effects? imipramine
Which class of antidepressants inhibits enzymes that metabolize catecholamines? MAOIs
Which two neurotransmitters are believed to be most involved with schizophrenia and the drugs used to treat this disorder? dopamine and serotonin
Which of the following new antipsychotic drugs is classified today as being "atypical"? olanzapine (Zyprexa)
Which of the following drugs is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor? amitriptyline
What drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in the treatment of bipolar disorder, particularly with rapid cyclers? divalproex (Depakote)
What drug used to treat alcohol addiction interferes with the metabolism of ethanol? disulfiram (Antabuse)
During which stages of sleep does dreaming occur? Stages III and IV
Fluoxetine is an example of an antidepressant that appears to work through which of the following mechanisms? It inhibits the reuptake of serotonin into certain neurons in the brain.
Tardive dyskinesia is associated with the long-term use of which psychiatric medication? antipsychotics
Which of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal? nausea and vomiting, delirium tremens (DTs), hallucinations, sweating
What term is used to describe anxiety for which there is no identifiable source other than from within the patient? endogenous
Which of the following antianxiety drugs is not a benzodiazepine? buspirone (Buspar)
Which drug used to treat depression is also used for smoking cessation? bupropion
With which psychiatric disorder do patients suffer from alternating episodes of major depression and mild-to-severe agitation? bipolar mood disorder
Chapter 8 Question Review Chapter 8 Question Review
Which pair of anticonvulsants is most likely to interact with other drugs a patient may be taking? phenobarbital (Luminal) and phenytoin (Dilantin)
Which drug listed below is used to treat patients with multiple sclerosis? interferon beta-1a (Avonex, Rebif), interferon beta-1b (Betaseron), mitoxantrone (Novantrone), baclofen
What class of drugs may be used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis? acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
What dopamine precursor is used to treat Parkinson patients? levodopa (Dopar)
Which drug has a boxed warning about fatal rashes? Lamictal
Which drug used to treat ADD/ADHD is not a controlled substance? atomoxetine (Strattera)
Which of the following drugs has been shown to improve the cognitive function and social behavior of Alzheimer's patients and is sold over the counter? gingko
Which neurotransmitter is deficient in the nigrostriatal pathways of patients with Parkinson's disease? dopamine
The prevalence of Parkinson's disease is highest in what age group? above age 60
Which anticonvulsant does not appear to act via GABA receptors and is frequently used to treat neuropathic pain? gabapentin (Neurontin)
What term is used to describe continuous tonic-clonic seizures, lasting over 30 minutes, during which consciousness may not return? status epilepticus
What are the most common side effects of antiseizure medications? sedation and some degradation of cognitive process
Which of the following anticonvulsants is correctly paired with the process it most likely affects? diazepam (Valium)-- GABA
With what type of seizure may patients display blank stares, rotating eyes and rapid blinking; not have generalized convulsions; and have up to 100 occurrences a day? absence
Which of the following anticonvulsants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance? diazepam (Valium)
Which anticonvulsant is the drug of choice for absence seizures? ethosuximide (Zarontin)
What two neurotransmitters in the brain appear to play the greatest role in seizures? GABA and glutamate
What is the potential way in which antiepileptic medications can interact with each other and other drugs? They can alter the metabolism of other drugs.
Which of the following anticonvulsants is also used to treat manic episodes in bipolar mood disorders? valproic acid (Depakene)
What combination drug contains levodopa plus an inhibitor of peripheral levodopa metabolism? Sinemet
Chapter 9 Question Review Chapter 9 Question Review
In what percent of asthma patients is there an allergic component? 35-55
Which of the following asthma medications blocks parasympathetic acetylcholine receptors and should not be given to patients with known peanut allergies? ipratropium (Atrovent)
Which of the following is an OTC expectorant available in caplet, capsule, liquid, syrup, tablet, and sustained-release forms? guaifenesin (Mucinex)
Which of the following is a potentially life-threatening condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing, has blue lips, and nail beds, may lose consciousness, and does not respond to normal management? status asthmaticus
What is a common adverse effect of many (older) antihistamines (H-1 blockers)? anticholinergic responses, hyperactivity in some children, sedation
Which of the following drugs may be used to treat tuberculosis? isoniazid (Laniazid, Nydrzid), rifampin (Rifadin, Rimactine), ciprofloxacin (Cipro), rifapentine (Priftin)
What are two signs or symptoms of nicotine excess? dizziness and diarrhea
Which of the following antitussives is a DEA controlled substance? codeine
Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) may be used to treat what two lung diseases? bronchitis and cystic fibrosis
With which device, used to administer asthma or COPD medications, does a stream of air flow past a liquid to create a fine mist for the patient to inhale? nebulizer
Which respiratory medication listed below is an inhaled corticosteroid? fluticasone (Flovent)
What is the most useful measure for assessing the severity of asthma on a regular basis? peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)
Which of the following medications is least likely to be used to treat or stop an acute asthma attack? cromolyn sodium
What class of drugs used to treat hypertension, angina, cardiac arrhythmias, and migraine headaches is contraindicated in asthma patients? beta blockers
Which of the following is a reversible syndrome in which breathing may be difficult? asthma
What is a potential symptom of nicotine withdrawal? anxiety, difficulty in concentrating, gastrointestinal disturbances, increased appetite and weight gain
What is the least sedating OTC antihistamine and the only one approved by the FDA for cold symptoms? clemastine (Tavist Allergy)
Which of the following drugs is only indicated for long-term maintenance therapy of bronchospasms associated with emphysema and bronchitis? tiotropim (Spiriva)
An asthma attack consists of how many phases or responses? 2
Chapter 10 Question Review Chapter 10 Question Review
What is another term for heartburn? gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
If abdominal pain is caused by the release of an allergy or inflammation mediator, what mast cell stabilizer may be prescribed? cromolyn sodium (Gastrocrom)
What is a potential problem associated with low-fiber diets? constipation
What is the drug of choice in treating malabsorption syndrome due to pancreatic insufficiency? pancrelipase (Creon-10)
Which drug listed below acts to facilitate the admixture of fat and water to soften stool? docusate-senna (Senokot-S)
By what criterion is dietary fiber characterized? fermentability, water-holding capacity, stool-bulking capacity, solubility
What drug is metabolized by colonic bacteria and is used to prevent and treat hepatic-induced encephalopathy? lactulose (Enulose)
Which drug listed below forms a protective coat over an ulcer, helping it resist degradation by gastric acid, pepsin, and bile salts? sucralfate (Carafate)
What three drugs given together are used to treat H. pylori-induced peptic ulcers? bismuth subsalicylate-metronidazole-tetracycline (Helidac)
Which histamine-2 receptor blocker affects cytochrome P-450 and may interact with many other drugs? cimetidine (Tagamet)
What GI disorder is characterized by inflammation of the large bowel with the patient experiencing diarrhea containing blood, mucus, and pus? ulcerative colitis
Which drug or drug combination is correctly paired with its DEA control schedule? diphenoxylate-atropine (Lomotil)-- C-V
Which medication below is used in preteens to treat diarrhea and acts by interfering with enzyme-dependent electron transfer in anaerobic energy metabolism? nitazoxanide (Alinia)
Which of the following drugs is used for chemotherapy-induced emesis and frequently causes headaches in patients treated with it? ondansetron (Zofran)
For the treatment of hepatitis, which drug listed below is an interferon linked with a branched polyehylene glycol (PEG) molecule in order to allow once weekly dosing? peginterferon alfa-2a (Pegasys)
What receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) are blocked by metoclopramide (Reglan)? dopamine
Which drug listed below is an example of a phase II drug used to treat GERD? cimetidine (Tagamet), omeprazole (Prilosec), esomeprazole (Nexium), famotidine (Pepcid)
Which of the drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody that binds to tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is indicated for the treatment of Crohn's disease? infliximab (Remicade)
What is praziquantel (Biltricide) used to treat? intestinal parasites (tapeworms)
Created by: fuekai



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