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test 2

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
        Help!  

Question
Answer
aggregation of cells arising from single parent cell   Colony  
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collection of microbes living on a surface in a complex community   biofilm  
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source of Carbon (CO2) for growth requirements   Autotroph, heterotrophs (organic compounds)  
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sources of energy for growth requirements   chemotrophs (chemicals)(organism use), phototrophs (light) (plant use)  
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grow in the presence of oxygen   aerobes  
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an organism that cannot tolerate oxygen   Anaerobes  
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microorganism that can live with or without oxygen   facultative anaerobe  
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microorganism with which prefers anaerobic conditions but can tolerate exposure to low levels of oxygen   aerotolerant anaerobe  
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microorganism that require requires low levels of oxygen   microareophile  
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anabolism ceases because of insufficient _____   nitrogen  
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chemical requirements for growth   nitrogen, phosphorus, sulfur, trace elements, growth factors  
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required in minute amounts for the growth requiremnts   trace elements  
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necessary organic chemicals that cannot be synthesized by certain organisms   growth factors  
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used by mycoplasmas (bacteria) for cell membranes   cholesterol for growth factors  
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component of proteins   amino acids for growth factors  
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functional portion of cytochromes in electron transport system   heme for growth factors  
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precursor of NAD and NADP   niacin (nicotinic acid, vitamin B3) for growth factors  
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component of coenzyme A   Pantothenic acid (vitamin B5) for growth factors  
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precursor of folic acid, which is involved in metabolism of one carbon compounds & nucleic acid synthesis   para-aminobezoic acid (PABA) for growth factors  
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components of nucleic acids   purines, pyrimidines for growth factors  
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utilized in transamination syntheses of amino acids   pyridoxine (vitamin B6) for growth factors  
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precursor of FAD   riboflavin (vitamin B2) for growth factors  
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utilized in some decarboxylation reactions   thiamine (vitamin B1) for growth factors  
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temperature affects what in proteins?   the 3D structure  
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what is temperature sensitive in a cell?   lipid containing membranes of cells & organelles  
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if temperature is too low in cell, what happens?   membranes become rigid & fragile  
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if temperature is too high in cell, what happens?   membranes become too fluid  
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what is the ideal temperature for bacteria?   37C  
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most humans and pathogens are classifed as?   mesophiles  
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organisms are sensitive to change in what kind of environment?   acidity  
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neutrophiles have what kind of pH?   neutral  
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acidophiles have what kind of pH?   low pH  
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alkalinophiles have what kind of pH?   High pH  
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pressure exerted on a semipermeable membrane by a solution containing solutes that cannont freely cross membrane   osmotic pressure  
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lower solute concentrations, cells swell   hypotonic solution  
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greater solute concentration, cell shrivels   hypertonic solution  
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restricts organisms to certain environments, obligate & facultative halophiles   physical effects of water  
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cell is normal, fluid is equal on the inside and the outside   isotonic solution  
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a microbe harms another organism   antagonistic relationship  
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members of an association receive benefits that exceed those that would result if each lived by itself   synergistic relationship  
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organisms become interdependent and rarely live outside the relationship   symbiotic relationship  
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complex relationships among numerous microorganisms, form on surfaces, medical devices, mucous membranes of digestive system, dental plaque is considered this   biofilm  
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progenitor is termed a________   colony forming unit (CFU)  
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pure cultures are composed of cells arising from a single ______   progenitor  
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_______technique prevents contamination of sterile substances or objects   Aseptic  
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2 common isolation techniques   streak plates, pour plates  
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Bacterial inoculum intoduced into nutrients called ____   media  
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only _____ of bacteria are culturable   5%  
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6 types of culture media   defined, complex, selective, differential, anaerobic, transport media  
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medium in which the exact chemical composition is known   defined media  
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exact chemical composition is unknown, contains nutrients from yeast, beef, soy or proteins, supports growth of wide variety of microorganisms, used to culture organisms with unknown nutritional needs   complex media  
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allows certain types of organisms to grow, and inhibits the growth of other organisms   selective media  
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Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) has a high salt content, which represses the growth of bacteria other than _______   Staphylococci  
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differentiate closely related species of bacteria, organisms will produce characteristic changes or growth patterns that are used for identification or differentiation   differential media  
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Blood agar (BAP) visualizes the ability of bacterial species to____   lyse red blood cells  
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crystal violet kills ______   gram positive bacteria  
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e. Coli is usually Gram _______   negative  
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obligate anaerobes must be cultured in the absence of free oxygen   anaerobic media  
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petri plates are incubated in ____________ culture vessels, sealable containers that contain chemicals that reduce the oxygen   anaerobic  
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which is th emost common anaerobic?   Palladium  
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used by hospital personnel to ensure clinical specimens are not contaminated and to protect people from infection, rapid transport of sample is important   transport media  
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examples of transport media   blood culture bottles, thioglycollate broth  
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stores for short period of time   refrigeration  
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stores for years   deep-freezing  
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bacteria freeze better in the presence of what?   glycerol  
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freeze drying in to a powder, stores for decades   lyophilization  
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time required for a bacterial cell to divide/ grow, dependent on chemical & physical conditions   generation time  
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microbial growth curve   lag phase, log (exponential) phase, stationary phase, death (decline) phase  
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direct methods not requiring incubation   microscopic counts  
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stained prokaryotes & large eukaryotes   microscopic counts  
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electronic counters for measuring microbial reproduction   flow cytometry, coulter counter  
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direct methods require _____   incubation, serial dilution & viable plate counts  
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indirect methods require ______   turbidity  
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what is turbidity measured by?   spectrophotomoeter  
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what can grow in a petri plate ona laboratory table?   an aerobic bacterium  
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This statement "in the laboratory, a sterile inoculating loop is moved across the agar surface in a culture dish, thinning a sample and isolating individuals" describes which of the following?   streak plate  
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superoxide dismutase neutralizes ____   singlet oxygen  
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the most reactive of the 4 toxic forms of oxygen is?   the hydroxyl radical  
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microaerophiles that grow best with a high concentration of carbon dioxide in addition to a low level of oxygen are called?   capnophiles  
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organisms that preferentially thrive in icy waters are described as _______   psychrophiles  
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barophiles cannot ______   cause disease in humans  
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an organism that cannot exist in the presence of oxygen   obligate anaerobe  
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when the exact chemical composition is know it is called a ?   defined medium  
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most useful in representing population growth on a graph   semilogarithmic graph using a log scale on the y-axis  
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best method for counting fecal bacteria from a stream to determine the safety of the water for drinking   membrane filtration  
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a device that directly counts microbes as they pass through a tube in front of an electronic detector   coulter counter  
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the ability to respond to changes in population density   quorum sensing  
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what do cells require for a redox reaction?   electrons  
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toxic form of oxygen, molecular oxygen with electrons that have been boosted to a higher energy state   singlet oxygen  
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what essential element do all cells recycle from amino acids & nucleotides?   nitrogen  
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what are small organic molecules that are required in minute amounts for metabolism   growth factors  
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the lowest temperature at which a microbe continues to metabolize is called its _________   minimum growth temperature  
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__________ pigments protect many phototrophic organisms from photochemically produced singlet oxygen   carotenoid  
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microbes that reduce to N2 to NH3 engage in nitrogen __________   fixation  
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a student observes a researcher streaking a plate numerous times, flaming the loop between streaks. The researcher is likely using the ______ method to isolate microorganisms   streak plate  
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chemolithotrophs acquire electrons from ________ compounds   inorganic  
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destroys most microorganisms & viruses on non-living tissues (particularly pathogens)   Disinfection  
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destruction of ALL microorganisms on an object   sterilization  
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sterile microbial control   disinfection & sterilization  
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reduction in the microorganisms & viruses on living tissues (particularly pathogens)   antiseptic  
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mechanical removal of microorganisms (handwashing)   Degerming  
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using heat to destroy pathogens & reduce microbial load in food products, slows down food spoilage   pasteurization  
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reduction of pathogens from objects to meet public health standards   sanitation  
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most resistant to sterilization   prions  
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least resistant to sterilization   enveloped viruses  
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what biosafety level: handling microbes that do not cause disease in humans, ex: yogurt factories   BSL-1  
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bio-safety level: handling moderately hazardous agents   BSL-2  
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bio-safety level: all manipulations of microbes done in safety cabinets   BSL-3  
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denature proteins, interfere with integrity of cytoplasmic membrane & cell wall, disrupt structure & function of nucleic acids   effects of high temperature on cells  
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used to disinfect, sanitize, sterilize & pasteurize, denature proteins & destroys cytoplasmic membranes, more effective than dry heat   moist heat  
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kills vegetative cells   boiling  
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methods of microbial control using moist heat   boiling, autoclaving, pasteurization  
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high heat, high pressure, over boiling   autoclaving  
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autoclave conditions   121C, 15 psi, at least 15 minutes  
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heat destroys pathogens, reduces the number of spoilage micoorganisms in food, not sterilization   pasteurization  
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decreases, microbial metabolism, growth & reproduction, refrigeration halts growth of most pathogens, some microbes can multiply in refrigerated foods   refrigeration & freezing  
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_______ inhibits growth as a result of removal of water   Desiccation (drying)  
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_______ is used for long term preservation of microbial cultures, prevents formation of damaging ice crystals   Lyophilization  
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pass non-sterile solution through a membrane with small pores that trap microbial contaminents   filter sterilization  
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introduces so much DNA damage that the cell dies, superficial sterilization, not common in hospitals only works on surfaces   non-ionizing radiation/ UV radiation  
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commonly used in the healthcare setting, labs & homes, have disagreeable odor & possible side effects, ex: pine-sol   phenol & phenolics  
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swabbing skin with _____ prior to injection removes most microbes, ex: ethanol, isopropanol   alcohol  
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iodine tablets, iodophores, chlorine treatment, bleach, the addition of fluoride to water & toothpaste, are all examples of what   halogens  
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hydrogen peroxide can disinfect & sterilize surfaces, not useful for treating open wounds   oxidizing agents  
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good degerming agent, but not antimicrobial   soaps & detergents  
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heavy metals used for disinfection   silver nitrate  
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______ is commonly used to prevent blindness in newborn babies caused by N. gonorrhoeae   silver nitrate  
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________ contains 1 molecule of mercury, and is used to preserve vaccines   Thimerosal  
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Formalin is considered a ______   Aldehyde  
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________ is used in embalming & in disinfection of rooms & instruments   Formalin  
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methods for evaluating disinfectants and antiseptics   in-use test  
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accurate determination of proper strength and application procedure for each specific situation   in-use test  
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what kills microorganisms on laboratory surfaces?   disinfectants  
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what best describes the disinfecting of cafeteria plates?   sanitization  
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the microbial death rate is used to measure the efficiency of ________   detergent, antiseptics and sanitization techniques  
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the endospores of which organism are used as a biological indicator of sterilzation   bacillus stearothermophilus  
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what functions as an auotclave?   pressure cooker  
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the preserve beef jerky from microbial growth relies on which method?   desiccation  
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which type of radiation is more widely used as antimicrobial technique?   electron beams  
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what substances would most effectively inhibit anaerobes?   hydrogen peroxide  
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what adjective best describes a surgical procedure that is free of microbial contaminants?   aseptic  
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a sample of E. coli has been subjected to heat for a specified time, and 805 of the cells have been destroyed, what best describes this event?   decimal reduction time  
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what is active against bacterial endospores?   ethylene oxide  
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what disinfectant acts against against cell membranes?   phenol  
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what disinfectant contains alcohol?   tincture of bromine  
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what antimicrobial chemical has been used to sterilize spacecraft?   ethylene oxide  
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what class of surfactants is most soluble in water?   quaternary ammonium compounds  
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who invented penicillin?   Alexander Flemming  
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effective antimicrobial agent that is more toxic to the pathogen than to the host   selective toxicity  
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numerous differences between _________ bacteria and ________ hosts provides many targets   pathogenic, eukaryotic  
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Beta-lactams: penicilin, cephalosporin, carbapenem, vancomycin, bacitracin inhibit what? this also weakens the cell wall   peptidoglycan formation  
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antimicrobial agent that inhibits protein synthesis by blocking the tRNA docking site   tetracycline  
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antimicrobial agent that inhibits protein synthesis by changing the shape of the 30s ribosomal subunit   aminoglycoside  
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what is a good target for antimicrobial activity?   ribosomes  
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why are ribosomes a good target for antimicrobial activity?   changes shape of subunits within ribosomes to interfere with binding, prevent elongation of proteins & prevents enzymatic activity  
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_________ attaches to ergosterol in fungal membranes, forming pores which disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane   Amphotericin B  
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what is effective when pathogen and host metabolic processes differ?   Antimetabolic agents  
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structurally similar to an enzyme required to synthesize folic acid, necessary to make DNA & RNA nucleotides   sulfonamides  
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what happens when you over prescibe broad spectrum drugs?   antibiotic resistance  
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example of a broad spectrum drug   sulfonamides, erythomycin, tetracyline  
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bacterial lawn exposed to dics impregnated with antimicrobial agents, the larger the zone of inhibition the more effective   kirby-bauer disk diffusion  
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the lowest concentration of antimicrobial able to kill all bacteria in a well   minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)  
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routes of administration for antimicrobial drugs   topical application, oral route, intramuscular administration, intravenous administation  
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side effects of administration of antimicrobial drugs   toxicity, allergies, disruption of normal microbiota  
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why must you finish a course of prescribed antibiotics   because of the development of resistance in populations  
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________ denatures Beta-lactam penicillins making it ineffective   Beta-lactamase  
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_______ remove drugs from inside of the cell   efflux pump  
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forming an enzyme that destroys or deactivates the drug will...   alter the target of the drug, efflux pumps remove drugs from inside the cell, slow down metabolism, which creates fewer targets, alter the binding site of the drug  
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Alters penicillin-binding protein in the membrane Gene encoded on a plasmid   S. aureus mecA gene  
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Proteins that traverse the inner and outer membrane – remove antibiotic from the cell   Genes encoded on plasmids  
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Bacterial cells in biofilm become “sessile”, or metabolically inactive – decreases drug targets available, If a cell reverts to metabolic activity, becomes susceptible again   Slow down metabolism  
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Genotypic changes, Polymicrobial infections increase genetic transfers between species   Antibiotic resistance  
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Phenotypic changes, Sessile cells are metabolically inactive, Transient tolerance   Antibiotic tolerance  
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Maintain high concentration of drug in patient for sufficient time, Use antimicrobial agents in combination, Use antimicrobials only when necessary, Develop new variations of existing drugs, Search for new antibiotics   Retarding Resistance  
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diffusion/ dilution tests that expose pathogens to antimicrobials are designed to ________   determine which drug is most effective against a particular pathogen & determine the amount of a drug to use against a particular pathogen  
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ina kirby-bauer susceptibility test, the presence of a zone of inhibition around disks containing antimicrobial agents indicates________   that the microbes does not grow in the presence of the agents  
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the key to successful chemotherapy is _______   selective toxicity  
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why are sulfonamides effective?   humans & microbes use PABA differently in their metabolism  
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resistance to one antimicrobial agent because of its similarity to another antimicrobial agent   cross resistance  
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multiple drug resistant microbes ________   frequently develop in hospitals  
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what is most closely associated with a beta-lactam ring?   penicilin  
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drugs that act against protein synthesis   aminoglycosides  
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drugs that neutralize the acidity of ________ prevent viral uncoating   phagolysosomes  
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___________ can be used to stop microbial replication   nucleotide analogs  
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drugs containing __________ retard viral growth by blocking the reproduction of essential viral proteins   protease inhibitors  
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PABA is used to ________   synthesize folic acid  
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the interplay between drugs that results in efficacy that exceeds the efficacy of either drug alone   Synergism  
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most numerous & diverse group of cellular microbes, thrive in various habitats, only a few are capable of colonizing humans & causing disease   prokaryotes  
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what bacteria are endospores produced by?   bacillus & clostridium  
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defensive strategy against unfavorable conditions, are often difficult to kill   endospores  
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how do prokaryotes reproduce?   asexually (binary fission)  
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2 types of asexual reproduction done by prokaryotes?   binary fission (most common) & budding (usually done by fungi)  
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modern prokaryotic classification is based on?   genetic relatedness of rRNA sequences  
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three domains of prokaryotic classifcation   archaea, bacteria, eukarya  
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lack true peptidoglycan, cell membrane lipids have branched hydrocarbon chains   common features of archaea  
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what is not known to cause disease?   archaea  
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2 types of extremophiles   thermophiles, halophiles  
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DNA, RNA, cytoplasmic membranes & proteins do not function well below 45C   thermophiles  
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inhabit extremely saline habitats, depend on greater that 9% NaCl to maintain integrity of cell walls, may contain red or orange pigments   halophiles  
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largest group of archaea, convert carbon dioxide, hydrogen gas & organic acids to methane gas   Methanogens  
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live in the colons of cows, primary source of environmental methane   methanogens  
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Different types of gram positive bacteria: Firmicutes   clostridium, mycoplasma, bacili  
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Different types gram positive bacilli bacteria   bacillus, listeria, lactobacillus, streptococcus, staphylococcus  
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Different types of gram positive actinobacteria   corynebacterium, mycobacterium, actinomyces, nocarida, streptomyces  
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rod shaped, obligate anaerobes, produce toxins that cause disease in humans, endospores survive harsh conditions   clostridia  
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clostridia is associated with what bacteria/ diseases   Cdiff, tetanus, botulism  
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what is also know as "walking pnemonia" or pnemonia acquired during the summer?   mycoplasma pneumoniae  
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smallest free living cells, lack cell walls   mycoplasmas  
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this gram positive bacteria is classified as endospore forming aerobes and facultative anaerobes   bacillus  
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contaminates milk/ meat products, capable of reproducing under refrigeration, can kill the fetus in pregnant women if it crosses the placenta   listeria monocytogenes  
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grows in the mouth, stomach, intestinal tract & vagina, rarely causes disease, inhibits the growth of pathogens within the body, used in the production of various foods   Lactobacillus  
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Streptococcus pyogenes "group A" can cause ______   strep throat or necrotizing fascitis  
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Streptococcus agalactiae "Group B" can cause ________   newborn meningitis  
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Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause ______   commensal skin colonizer  
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Staphylococcus aureus is _________   common pathogen, multi-drug resistant (MRSA, VRSA)  
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what does the gram positive bacteria: corynebacterium diptheriae cause?   diptheria-throat infection  
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filamentous rods, slow growth partly due to mycolic acid in its cell walls   mycobacterium  
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mycobacterium tuberculosis is called?   TB  
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mycobacterium leprae is called?   leprocy  
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the gram positive bacteria actinobacteria is also known as?   phylum  
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form branching filaments resembling fungi, producers of antiniotics, acid-fast   actinobacteria (phylum)  
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examples of actinobacteria   actinomyces, nocardia, streptomyces  
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produces numerous antibiotics   streptomyces  
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largest and most diverse group of bacteria   proteobacteria  
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proteobacteria is gram_______   negative  
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5 classes of proteobacteria   alpha, beta, gamma, delta, epsilon -proteobacteria  
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associated with plants, nitrogen fixation   rhizobium  
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spread by arthropods, associated with rocky mountain spotted fever   rickettsia  
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can contaminate milk, causes miscarriges, cause brucellosis   Brucella  
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rhizobium, rickettsia & brucella are all categorized as what gram-negative bacteria   alphaproteobacteria  
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causes gonorrhea & meningitis   neisseria  
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causes pertussis "whooping cough"   bordetella  
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legionella, enterobacteriacae & psuedomonads are all categorized as what gram negative bacteria?   gammaproteobacteria  
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what gram-negative bacteria causes legionnaire's disease, american legion   legionella  
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what gram-negative bacteria causes intestinal bacteria to develop?   enterobacteriacae  
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what gram-negative bacteria is associated with important human pathogens?   psuedomonads  
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what does the gram negative bacteria vibrio parahaemolyticus cause?   "summer diarrhea" oysters  
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what does the gram negative bacteria yersinia pestis cause?   plague, black death  
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what gram negative bacteria causes urinary tract infections, wound infections, respiratory infections, bacteremia, ear infections   psuedomonas aeruginosa  
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infects the stomach, causes ulcers, stomach cancer   hylicobacteria pylori  
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hylicobacteria pylori is classified as what class of bacteria?   epsilonproteobacteria  
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venereal disease, causes neonatal blindness   chylamydia trachomatis  
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what gram negative bacteria is chylamydia trachomatis classified as?   phylum chlamydiae  
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the bacteria that causes syphilis, neurosyphilis   treponema pallidum  
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lyme disease, spread through ticks   borrelia  
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what 2 bacteria are classified as phylum spirochetes?   treponema pallidum & borrelia  
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what bacteria lacks peptidoglycan cell walls?   Chylamydia  
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Archaea are classified into phyla based primarily ______ sequences   rRNA  
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________ inhibit extremely saline habitats, such as the Great Salt Lake   Halophiles  
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Pigments in _________ in phototrophic bacteria trap light energy for metabolic processes   thylakoids  
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Most cyanobacteria form _________ in which nitrogen fixation occurs   heterocysts  
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what are giant bacteria that are large enough to be seen without a microscope?   Selenomonas  
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the type of reproduction in prokaryotes that results in a palisade arrangement of cells is called?   snapping division  
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the thick walled reproductive spores produced in the middle of cyanobacterial filaments is called?   terminal endospores  
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what best describes stiff, spiral-shaped prokaryotic cells?   spirilla  
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what can remain alive for decades, remain alive in boiling water, exist in a state of suspended animation?   endopores  
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how is halobacterium distinctive?   it is absolutely dependent on high salt concentrations to maintain its cell wall  
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photosynthetic bacteria that also fix nitrogen are ___________   cyanobacteria  
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what genus is the most common anaerobic human pathogen?   bacteroides  
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flexible spiral shaped prokaryotes are ______   spirochetes  
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bacteria that convert nitrogen gas into ammonia are __________   nitrogen fixers  
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the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall characterizes what?   mycobacterium  
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3 eukaryotic microorganisms   protozoa, algae, fungi  
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single copy (haploid) occurs through what process?   meiosis  
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what reproduces mostly through meiosis   fungi  
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2 copy (diploid) occurs through what process?   mitosis  
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what reproduces through mitosis?   algae, protozoa  
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cell partitions that replicate DNA equally between 2 nuclei, exact copies of parent nucleus, remain diploid   mitosis  
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4 phases of mitosis   prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase  
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occurs before mitosis begins, DNA & organelles are duplicated   interphase  
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Dna condenses, nucleus dissolves, mitotic spindle moves to poles   prophase  
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DNA lines up in the middle of the cell, mitotic spindle attaches   metaphase  
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DNA pairs split, move towards poles   Anaphase (mitosis)  
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nucleus reforms, organelles and DNA cluster in poles, cleavage furrow forms   telophase (mitosis)  
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nuclear division that partitions parent cells into 4 haploid cells, 2 stages-meiosis I and meisis II-each stage includes 4 stages PMAT   Meiosis  
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homologous chromosomes pair to form tetrads   prophase I  
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tetrads align in the middle of the cell, mitotic spindle attaches   metaphase I  
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chromosomes split, move towards poles   Anaphase (meiosis)  
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nucleus reforms, chromosomes cluster in poles, cleavage furrow forms   telophase (meiosis)  
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DNA not replicated, one chromosome in each cell, mitotic spindle moves toward poles   prophase II  
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chromosomes aligns in the middle of the cell, mitotic spindle attaches   metaphase II  
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division of a cells cytoplasm   Cytokinesis  
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3 characteristics of protozoa?   eukaryotic, unicellular, lack a cell wall  
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most protozoa are _______   chemoheterotrophic  
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what is the motile feeding stage in protozoa called?   trophozoite  
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what is the resting stage in protozoa called?   cyst  
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fungi cell walls are typically composed of _____   chitin  
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chemoheterotrophic, do not perform photosynthesis, related to animals, produce antibiotics, decomposer   fungi  
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divided into cells by internal cross walls in fungi   septate hypha  
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no septate partitioned in fungi   aseptate hypha  
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all have some means of asexual reproduction, most also reproduce sexually   fungi  
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some yeasts produce long filaments called _______   psuedohypha  
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fungal mating types designated as "+" and "-_   sexual spore formation  
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classifications of fungi   zygomycota, ascomycota, basidiomycota, deuteromycetes  
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recieves nutrition from dead matter   saprobes  
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what fungal classification is saprobes classified under?   zygomycota  
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most human pathogens, food spoilage, beneficial fungi includes penicillium   ascomycota  
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what are beneficial fungi?   penicillium, saccharomyces  
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what category are the fungi: penicillium, saccharomyces classified under?   ascomycota  
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the yeast responsible for making bread, beer & wine   saccharomyces  
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what fungal classification is mushrooms under?   basidiomycota  
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partnership between fungi & photosynthetic microbes, fungus provides nutrients, water, & protection and photosynthetic microbes provide carbohydrates & oxygen   lichens  
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simple, eukaryotic phototrophs, carry out oxygenic photosynthesis using chlorophyll, aquatic   algae  
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classifications of algae   green, red & golden algae  
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share numerous characteristics with plants, green algae   chlorophyta  
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marine, red algae   rhodophyta  
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component of marine phytoplankton, major source of world's oxygen   chrysophyta  
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_________ are animals that carry pathogens   arthropod vectors  
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2 types of arthropod vectors   mechanical & biological  
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what kind of arthropod vector carry pathogens?   mechanical vectors  
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what kind of arthropod vector carry/ host pathogens, transmit disease through bites   biological vectors  
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what 2 classes of arthropods do disease vectors belong to?   arachnida & insecta  
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examples of arachnida   ticks, mites  
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Examples of insecta   fleas, flies, mosquitos  
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haploid nuclei contain how many sets of chromosomes?   1  
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multiple nuclear divisions without cytoplasmic divisions result in cells called______   coenocytes  
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the type of asexual fungal spore that forms within hyphae is called a ________   chlamydospores  
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what does a phycologist study?   alterations of genes in algae  
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the stemlike portion of a seawood is called its ________   stipe  
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carrageenan is found in the cell walls of which group of algae?   red algae  
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chrysolaminarin is a storage product found in which group of microbes?   golden algae  
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what feature characterizes diatoms?   chlorophylls a and c & carotene  
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amoebae include microbes with _______   threadlike psuedopods  
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what is common to mitosis & meiosis?   spindle  
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what taxon is characterized by "hairy" flagella   stramenopila  
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minuscule, acellular, infecious agents, cause infections of humans, animals, plants & bacteria, no cytoplasmic membrane, cytosol, organelles,"non-living" cannot reproduce on its own   viruses  
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virus particles contain genetic material & a ___________   capsid shell  
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this genetic material filled capsid is called ________   nucleocapsid  
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provide protection for viral nucleic acid, means of attachment to host's cells   capsids  
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a "phage" virus that only infects bacterial cells   bacteriophage  
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acquired from host cell during viral replication or release, composed of host phospholipid bilayer & proteins, not on all viruses   the viral envelope  
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what are viruses classified by?   nucleic acid (RNA/DNA), presence of envelope, shape (helical, cylindrical, icosahedral), size  
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what is dependent on hosts' organelles and enzymes to produce new virions   viral replication  
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2 types of viral replication   lytic & lysogenic  
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viral replication usually results in death & lysis of host cell   lytic replication  
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5 stages of lytic replication cycle   attachment, entry, synthesis, assembly, release  
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modified replication cycle, infected host cells, grow & reproduce normally for generations before they lyse, usually incorporate viral genetic material into the DNA of the host   lysogeny  
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when the cell is infected with an inactive lysogenic virus, that cell has a ________   latent infection  
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viruses cause ________% of human cancers   20-25  
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specific viruses are known to cause ______% of human cancers   15  
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some carry copies of oncogenes as part of their genomes, some interfere with tumor repression, some promote oncogenes already present in host   role of viruses in cancer  
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3 different mechanisms in which animal viruses enter cells   direct penetration, membrane fusion, endocytosis  
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viruses that enter cell with capsid intact are ______   uncoated  
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direct penetration is done by?   phages only  
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membrane fushion is done by?   enveloped viruses  
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endocytosis is done by?   enveloped and non-enveloped viruses  
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entry & uncoating is done by?   animal viruses  
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DNA viruses often enter the _______   nucleus  
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RNA viruses often replicate in the ______   cytoplasm  
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similar to replication of cellular DNA, viral genome replicated in the nucleus, viral proteins are made in the cytoplasm   dsDNA viruses  
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cells do not use ssDNA, host enzymes produce DNA strand complementary to vital genome to form dsDNA molecule, dsDNA used for viral replication & transcription   ssDNA viruses  
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contains reverse transcriptase that generates DNA from RNA   retroviruses +ssRNA  
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strand of genome acts as mRNA   dsRNA viruses  
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RNA-dependent RNA polymerase generated +ssRNA   -ssRNA viruses  
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enveloped viruses are often released by ________   budding  
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naked viruses are released by _________   exocytosis or lyse  
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________cannot grow in standard microbial media   viruses  
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how are viruses cultured?   media consisting of mature organisms, embryonated eggs, cell cultures  
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how are phages grown?   in bacteria, in liquid cultures or on agar plates  
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lysis of bacteria produces ______   plaques  
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pros of culturing viruses in embryonated chicken eggs?   inexpensive, sterile, some vaccines are prepared in chicken cultures  
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what virus is common culture in chicken eggs?   the influenza vaccine  
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very small, circular pieces of RNA that are infectious & pathogenic in plants, lack capsid, not pathogenic in humans   viroids  
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proteinaceous infectious agent   prion  
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most famous prion disease?   variant Creuztfeldt-jakob disease (vCJD) "Mad Cow disease"  
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functional proteins that contain α-helics   cellular PrP  
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disease causing proteins, contain β-pleated sheets   prion PrP  
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________ causes cellular PrP to refold into prion PrP, normal proteins become non-functional   Prion PrP  
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what disease does the poxviridae virus cause?   orthopoxvirus (smallpox)  
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what diseases does the herpesviridae virus cause?   herpes, chicken pox, mono, birth defects  
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what disease does the papillomaviridae virus cause?   human papilloma virus  
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what disease does the picornaviridae virus cause?   polio, hepitis B, common cold  
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what disease does the coronaviridae virus cause?   coronavirus (common cold)  
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what disease does the retroviridae virus cause?   AIDS  
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What disease does the orthomyxoviridae virus cause?   influenza virus (Flu)  
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what disease does the filoviridae viruse cause?   filovirus (ebola)  
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a naked cell has no ______   membranous envelope  
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when a eukaryotic cell is infected with an enveloped virus and sheds viruses slowly over time, this infection is called a_________   persistent infection  
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another name for a complete virus is ________   virion  
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what virus can be latent?   herpesviruses  
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a clear zone of phage infection in a becterial lawn is called a ________   plaque  
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