test 2
Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in
each of the black spaces below before clicking
on it to display the answer.
Help!
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aggregation of cells arising from single parent cell | Colony
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collection of microbes living on a surface in a complex community | biofilm
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source of Carbon (CO2) for growth requirements | Autotroph, heterotrophs (organic compounds)
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sources of energy for growth requirements | chemotrophs (chemicals)(organism use), phototrophs (light) (plant use)
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grow in the presence of oxygen | aerobes
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an organism that cannot tolerate oxygen | Anaerobes
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microorganism that can live with or without oxygen | facultative anaerobe
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microorganism with which prefers anaerobic conditions but can tolerate exposure to low levels of oxygen | aerotolerant anaerobe
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microorganism that require requires low levels of oxygen | microareophile
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anabolism ceases because of insufficient _____ | nitrogen
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chemical requirements for growth | nitrogen, phosphorus, sulfur, trace elements, growth factors
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required in minute amounts for the growth requiremnts | trace elements
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necessary organic chemicals that cannot be synthesized by certain organisms | growth factors
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used by mycoplasmas (bacteria) for cell membranes | cholesterol for growth factors
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component of proteins | amino acids for growth factors
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functional portion of cytochromes in electron transport system | heme for growth factors
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precursor of NAD and NADP | niacin (nicotinic acid, vitamin B3) for growth factors
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component of coenzyme A | Pantothenic acid (vitamin B5) for growth factors
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precursor of folic acid, which is involved in metabolism of one carbon compounds & nucleic acid synthesis | para-aminobezoic acid (PABA) for growth factors
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components of nucleic acids | purines, pyrimidines for growth factors
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utilized in transamination syntheses of amino acids | pyridoxine (vitamin B6) for growth factors
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precursor of FAD | riboflavin (vitamin B2) for growth factors
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utilized in some decarboxylation reactions | thiamine (vitamin B1) for growth factors
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temperature affects what in proteins? | the 3D structure
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what is temperature sensitive in a cell? | lipid containing membranes of cells & organelles
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if temperature is too low in cell, what happens? | membranes become rigid & fragile
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if temperature is too high in cell, what happens? | membranes become too fluid
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what is the ideal temperature for bacteria? | 37C
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most humans and pathogens are classifed as? | mesophiles
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organisms are sensitive to change in what kind of environment? | acidity
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neutrophiles have what kind of pH? | neutral
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acidophiles have what kind of pH? | low pH
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alkalinophiles have what kind of pH? | High pH
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pressure exerted on a semipermeable membrane by a solution containing solutes that cannont freely cross membrane | osmotic pressure
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lower solute concentrations, cells swell | hypotonic solution
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greater solute concentration, cell shrivels | hypertonic solution
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restricts organisms to certain environments, obligate & facultative halophiles | physical effects of water
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cell is normal, fluid is equal on the inside and the outside | isotonic solution
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a microbe harms another organism | antagonistic relationship
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members of an association receive benefits that exceed those that would result if each lived by itself | synergistic relationship
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organisms become interdependent and rarely live outside the relationship | symbiotic relationship
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complex relationships among numerous microorganisms, form on surfaces, medical devices, mucous membranes of digestive system, dental plaque is considered this | biofilm
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progenitor is termed a________ | colony forming unit (CFU)
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pure cultures are composed of cells arising from a single ______ | progenitor
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_______technique prevents contamination of sterile substances or objects | Aseptic
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2 common isolation techniques | streak plates, pour plates
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Bacterial inoculum intoduced into nutrients called ____ | media
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only _____ of bacteria are culturable | 5%
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6 types of culture media | defined, complex, selective, differential, anaerobic, transport media
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medium in which the exact chemical composition is known | defined media
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exact chemical composition is unknown, contains nutrients from yeast, beef, soy or proteins, supports growth of wide variety of microorganisms, used to culture organisms with unknown nutritional needs | complex media
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allows certain types of organisms to grow, and inhibits the growth of other organisms | selective media
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Mannitol Salt Agar (MSA) has a high salt content, which represses the growth of bacteria other than _______ | Staphylococci
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differentiate closely related species of bacteria, organisms will produce characteristic changes or growth patterns that are used for identification or differentiation | differential media
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Blood agar (BAP) visualizes the ability of bacterial species to____ | lyse red blood cells
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crystal violet kills ______ | gram positive bacteria
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e. Coli is usually Gram _______ | negative
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obligate anaerobes must be cultured in the absence of free oxygen | anaerobic media
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petri plates are incubated in ____________ culture vessels, sealable containers that contain chemicals that reduce the oxygen | anaerobic
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which is th emost common anaerobic? | Palladium
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used by hospital personnel to ensure clinical specimens are not contaminated and to protect people from infection, rapid transport of sample is important | transport media
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examples of transport media | blood culture bottles, thioglycollate broth
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stores for short period of time | refrigeration
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stores for years | deep-freezing
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bacteria freeze better in the presence of what? | glycerol
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freeze drying in to a powder, stores for decades | lyophilization
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time required for a bacterial cell to divide/ grow, dependent on chemical & physical conditions | generation time
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microbial growth curve | lag phase, log (exponential) phase, stationary phase, death (decline) phase
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direct methods not requiring incubation | microscopic counts
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stained prokaryotes & large eukaryotes | microscopic counts
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electronic counters for measuring microbial reproduction | flow cytometry, coulter counter
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direct methods require _____ | incubation, serial dilution & viable plate counts
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indirect methods require ______ | turbidity
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what is turbidity measured by? | spectrophotomoeter
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what can grow in a petri plate ona laboratory table? | an aerobic bacterium
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This statement "in the laboratory, a sterile inoculating loop is moved across the agar surface in a culture dish, thinning a sample and isolating individuals" describes which of the following? | streak plate
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superoxide dismutase neutralizes ____ | singlet oxygen
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the most reactive of the 4 toxic forms of oxygen is? | the hydroxyl radical
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microaerophiles that grow best with a high concentration of carbon dioxide in addition to a low level of oxygen are called? | capnophiles
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organisms that preferentially thrive in icy waters are described as _______ | psychrophiles
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barophiles cannot ______ | cause disease in humans
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an organism that cannot exist in the presence of oxygen | obligate anaerobe
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when the exact chemical composition is know it is called a ? | defined medium
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most useful in representing population growth on a graph | semilogarithmic graph using a log scale on the y-axis
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best method for counting fecal bacteria from a stream to determine the safety of the water for drinking | membrane filtration
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a device that directly counts microbes as they pass through a tube in front of an electronic detector | coulter counter
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the ability to respond to changes in population density | quorum sensing
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what do cells require for a redox reaction? | electrons
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toxic form of oxygen, molecular oxygen with electrons that have been boosted to a higher energy state | singlet oxygen
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what essential element do all cells recycle from amino acids & nucleotides? | nitrogen
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what are small organic molecules that are required in minute amounts for metabolism | growth factors
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the lowest temperature at which a microbe continues to metabolize is called its _________ | minimum growth temperature
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__________ pigments protect many phototrophic organisms from photochemically produced singlet oxygen | carotenoid
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microbes that reduce to N2 to NH3 engage in nitrogen __________ | fixation
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a student observes a researcher streaking a plate numerous times, flaming the loop between streaks. The researcher is likely using the ______ method to isolate microorganisms | streak plate
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chemolithotrophs acquire electrons from ________ compounds | inorganic
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destroys most microorganisms & viruses on non-living tissues (particularly pathogens) | Disinfection
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destruction of ALL microorganisms on an object | sterilization
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sterile microbial control | disinfection & sterilization
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reduction in the microorganisms & viruses on living tissues (particularly pathogens) | antiseptic
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mechanical removal of microorganisms (handwashing) | Degerming
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using heat to destroy pathogens & reduce microbial load in food products, slows down food spoilage | pasteurization
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reduction of pathogens from objects to meet public health standards | sanitation
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most resistant to sterilization | prions
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least resistant to sterilization | enveloped viruses
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what biosafety level: handling microbes that do not cause disease in humans, ex: yogurt factories | BSL-1
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bio-safety level: handling moderately hazardous agents | BSL-2
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bio-safety level: all manipulations of microbes done in safety cabinets | BSL-3
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denature proteins, interfere with integrity of cytoplasmic membrane & cell wall, disrupt structure & function of nucleic acids | effects of high temperature on cells
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used to disinfect, sanitize, sterilize & pasteurize, denature proteins & destroys cytoplasmic membranes, more effective than dry heat | moist heat
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kills vegetative cells | boiling
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methods of microbial control using moist heat | boiling, autoclaving, pasteurization
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high heat, high pressure, over boiling | autoclaving
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autoclave conditions | 121C, 15 psi, at least 15 minutes
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heat destroys pathogens, reduces the number of spoilage micoorganisms in food, not sterilization | pasteurization
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decreases, microbial metabolism, growth & reproduction, refrigeration halts growth of most pathogens, some microbes can multiply in refrigerated foods | refrigeration & freezing
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_______ inhibits growth as a result of removal of water | Desiccation (drying)
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_______ is used for long term preservation of microbial cultures, prevents formation of damaging ice crystals | Lyophilization
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pass non-sterile solution through a membrane with small pores that trap microbial contaminents | filter sterilization
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introduces so much DNA damage that the cell dies, superficial sterilization, not common in hospitals only works on surfaces | non-ionizing radiation/ UV radiation
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commonly used in the healthcare setting, labs & homes, have disagreeable odor & possible side effects, ex: pine-sol | phenol & phenolics
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swabbing skin with _____ prior to injection removes most microbes, ex: ethanol, isopropanol | alcohol
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iodine tablets, iodophores, chlorine treatment, bleach, the addition of fluoride to water & toothpaste, are all examples of what | halogens
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hydrogen peroxide can disinfect & sterilize surfaces, not useful for treating open wounds | oxidizing agents
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good degerming agent, but not antimicrobial | soaps & detergents
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heavy metals used for disinfection | silver nitrate
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______ is commonly used to prevent blindness in newborn babies caused by N. gonorrhoeae | silver nitrate
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________ contains 1 molecule of mercury, and is used to preserve vaccines | Thimerosal
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Formalin is considered a ______ | Aldehyde
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________ is used in embalming & in disinfection of rooms & instruments | Formalin
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methods for evaluating disinfectants and antiseptics | in-use test
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accurate determination of proper strength and application procedure for each specific situation | in-use test
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what kills microorganisms on laboratory surfaces? | disinfectants
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what best describes the disinfecting of cafeteria plates? | sanitization
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the microbial death rate is used to measure the efficiency of ________ | detergent, antiseptics and sanitization techniques
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the endospores of which organism are used as a biological indicator of sterilzation | bacillus stearothermophilus
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what functions as an auotclave? | pressure cooker
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the preserve beef jerky from microbial growth relies on which method? | desiccation
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which type of radiation is more widely used as antimicrobial technique? | electron beams
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what substances would most effectively inhibit anaerobes? | hydrogen peroxide
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what adjective best describes a surgical procedure that is free of microbial contaminants? | aseptic
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a sample of E. coli has been subjected to heat for a specified time, and 805 of the cells have been destroyed, what best describes this event? | decimal reduction time
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what is active against bacterial endospores? | ethylene oxide
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what disinfectant acts against against cell membranes? | phenol
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what disinfectant contains alcohol? | tincture of bromine
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what antimicrobial chemical has been used to sterilize spacecraft? | ethylene oxide
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what class of surfactants is most soluble in water? | quaternary ammonium compounds
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who invented penicillin? | Alexander Flemming
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effective antimicrobial agent that is more toxic to the pathogen than to the host | selective toxicity
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numerous differences between _________ bacteria and ________ hosts provides many targets | pathogenic, eukaryotic
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Beta-lactams: penicilin, cephalosporin, carbapenem, vancomycin, bacitracin inhibit what? this also weakens the cell wall | peptidoglycan formation
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antimicrobial agent that inhibits protein synthesis by blocking the tRNA docking site | tetracycline
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antimicrobial agent that inhibits protein synthesis by changing the shape of the 30s ribosomal subunit | aminoglycoside
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what is a good target for antimicrobial activity? | ribosomes
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why are ribosomes a good target for antimicrobial activity? | changes shape of subunits within ribosomes to interfere with binding, prevent elongation of proteins & prevents enzymatic activity
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_________ attaches to ergosterol in fungal membranes, forming pores which disrupts the cytoplasmic membrane | Amphotericin B
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what is effective when pathogen and host metabolic processes differ? | Antimetabolic agents
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structurally similar to an enzyme required to synthesize folic acid, necessary to make DNA & RNA nucleotides | sulfonamides
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what happens when you over prescibe broad spectrum drugs? | antibiotic resistance
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example of a broad spectrum drug | sulfonamides, erythomycin, tetracyline
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bacterial lawn exposed to dics impregnated with antimicrobial agents, the larger the zone of inhibition the more effective | kirby-bauer disk diffusion
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the lowest concentration of antimicrobial able to kill all bacteria in a well | minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
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routes of administration for antimicrobial drugs | topical application, oral route, intramuscular administration, intravenous administation
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side effects of administration of antimicrobial drugs | toxicity, allergies, disruption of normal microbiota
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why must you finish a course of prescribed antibiotics | because of the development of resistance in populations
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________ denatures Beta-lactam penicillins making it ineffective | Beta-lactamase
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_______ remove drugs from inside of the cell | efflux pump
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forming an enzyme that destroys or deactivates the drug will... | alter the target of the drug, efflux pumps remove drugs from inside the cell, slow down metabolism, which creates fewer targets, alter the binding site of the drug
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Alters penicillin-binding protein in the membrane Gene encoded on a plasmid | S. aureus mecA gene
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Proteins that traverse the inner and outer membrane – remove antibiotic from the cell | Genes encoded on plasmids
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Bacterial cells in biofilm become “sessile”, or metabolically inactive – decreases drug targets available, If a cell reverts to metabolic activity, becomes susceptible again | Slow down metabolism
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Genotypic changes, Polymicrobial infections increase genetic transfers between species | Antibiotic resistance
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Phenotypic changes, Sessile cells are metabolically inactive, Transient tolerance | Antibiotic tolerance
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Maintain high concentration of drug in patient for sufficient time, Use antimicrobial agents in combination, Use antimicrobials only when necessary, Develop new variations of existing drugs, Search for new antibiotics | Retarding Resistance
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diffusion/ dilution tests that expose pathogens to antimicrobials are designed to ________ | determine which drug is most effective against a particular pathogen & determine the amount of a drug to use against a particular pathogen
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ina kirby-bauer susceptibility test, the presence of a zone of inhibition around disks containing antimicrobial agents indicates________ | that the microbes does not grow in the presence of the agents
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the key to successful chemotherapy is _______ | selective toxicity
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why are sulfonamides effective? | humans & microbes use PABA differently in their metabolism
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resistance to one antimicrobial agent because of its similarity to another antimicrobial agent | cross resistance
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multiple drug resistant microbes ________ | frequently develop in hospitals
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what is most closely associated with a beta-lactam ring? | penicilin
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drugs that act against protein synthesis | aminoglycosides
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drugs that neutralize the acidity of ________ prevent viral uncoating | phagolysosomes
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___________ can be used to stop microbial replication | nucleotide analogs
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drugs containing __________ retard viral growth by blocking the reproduction of essential viral proteins | protease inhibitors
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PABA is used to ________ | synthesize folic acid
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the interplay between drugs that results in efficacy that exceeds the efficacy of either drug alone | Synergism
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most numerous & diverse group of cellular microbes, thrive in various habitats, only a few are capable of colonizing humans & causing disease | prokaryotes
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what bacteria are endospores produced by? | bacillus & clostridium
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defensive strategy against unfavorable conditions, are often difficult to kill | endospores
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how do prokaryotes reproduce? | asexually (binary fission)
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2 types of asexual reproduction done by prokaryotes? | binary fission (most common) & budding (usually done by fungi)
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modern prokaryotic classification is based on? | genetic relatedness of rRNA sequences
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three domains of prokaryotic classifcation | archaea, bacteria, eukarya
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lack true peptidoglycan, cell membrane lipids have branched hydrocarbon chains | common features of archaea
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what is not known to cause disease? | archaea
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2 types of extremophiles | thermophiles, halophiles
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DNA, RNA, cytoplasmic membranes & proteins do not function well below 45C | thermophiles
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inhabit extremely saline habitats, depend on greater that 9% NaCl to maintain integrity of cell walls, may contain red or orange pigments | halophiles
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largest group of archaea, convert carbon dioxide, hydrogen gas & organic acids to methane gas | Methanogens
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live in the colons of cows, primary source of environmental methane | methanogens
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Different types of gram positive bacteria: Firmicutes | clostridium, mycoplasma, bacili
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Different types gram positive bacilli bacteria | bacillus, listeria, lactobacillus, streptococcus, staphylococcus
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Different types of gram positive actinobacteria | corynebacterium, mycobacterium, actinomyces, nocarida, streptomyces
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rod shaped, obligate anaerobes, produce toxins that cause disease in humans, endospores survive harsh conditions | clostridia
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clostridia is associated with what bacteria/ diseases | Cdiff, tetanus, botulism
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what is also know as "walking pnemonia" or pnemonia acquired during the summer? | mycoplasma pneumoniae
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smallest free living cells, lack cell walls | mycoplasmas
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this gram positive bacteria is classified as endospore forming aerobes and facultative anaerobes | bacillus
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contaminates milk/ meat products, capable of reproducing under refrigeration, can kill the fetus in pregnant women if it crosses the placenta | listeria monocytogenes
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grows in the mouth, stomach, intestinal tract & vagina, rarely causes disease, inhibits the growth of pathogens within the body, used in the production of various foods | Lactobacillus
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Streptococcus pyogenes "group A" can cause ______ | strep throat or necrotizing fascitis
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Streptococcus agalactiae "Group B" can cause ________ | newborn meningitis
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Staphylococcus epidermidis can cause ______ | commensal skin colonizer
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Staphylococcus aureus is _________ | common pathogen, multi-drug resistant (MRSA, VRSA)
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what does the gram positive bacteria: corynebacterium diptheriae cause? | diptheria-throat infection
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filamentous rods, slow growth partly due to mycolic acid in its cell walls | mycobacterium
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mycobacterium tuberculosis is called? | TB
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mycobacterium leprae is called? | leprocy
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the gram positive bacteria actinobacteria is also known as? | phylum
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form branching filaments resembling fungi, producers of antiniotics, acid-fast | actinobacteria (phylum)
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examples of actinobacteria | actinomyces, nocardia, streptomyces
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produces numerous antibiotics | streptomyces
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largest and most diverse group of bacteria | proteobacteria
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proteobacteria is gram_______ | negative
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5 classes of proteobacteria | alpha, beta, gamma, delta, epsilon -proteobacteria
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associated with plants, nitrogen fixation | rhizobium
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spread by arthropods, associated with rocky mountain spotted fever | rickettsia
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can contaminate milk, causes miscarriges, cause brucellosis | Brucella
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rhizobium, rickettsia & brucella are all categorized as what gram-negative bacteria | alphaproteobacteria
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causes gonorrhea & meningitis | neisseria
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causes pertussis "whooping cough" | bordetella
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legionella, enterobacteriacae & psuedomonads are all categorized as what gram negative bacteria? | gammaproteobacteria
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what gram-negative bacteria causes legionnaire's disease, american legion | legionella
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what gram-negative bacteria causes intestinal bacteria to develop? | enterobacteriacae
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what gram-negative bacteria is associated with important human pathogens? | psuedomonads
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what does the gram negative bacteria vibrio parahaemolyticus cause? | "summer diarrhea" oysters
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what does the gram negative bacteria yersinia pestis cause? | plague, black death
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what gram negative bacteria causes urinary tract infections, wound infections, respiratory infections, bacteremia, ear infections | psuedomonas aeruginosa
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infects the stomach, causes ulcers, stomach cancer | hylicobacteria pylori
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hylicobacteria pylori is classified as what class of bacteria? | epsilonproteobacteria
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venereal disease, causes neonatal blindness | chylamydia trachomatis
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what gram negative bacteria is chylamydia trachomatis classified as? | phylum chlamydiae
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the bacteria that causes syphilis, neurosyphilis | treponema pallidum
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lyme disease, spread through ticks | borrelia
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what 2 bacteria are classified as phylum spirochetes? | treponema pallidum & borrelia
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what bacteria lacks peptidoglycan cell walls? | Chylamydia
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Archaea are classified into phyla based primarily ______ sequences | rRNA
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________ inhibit extremely saline habitats, such as the Great Salt Lake | Halophiles
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Pigments in _________ in phototrophic bacteria trap light energy for metabolic processes | thylakoids
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Most cyanobacteria form _________ in which nitrogen fixation occurs | heterocysts
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what are giant bacteria that are large enough to be seen without a microscope? | Selenomonas
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the type of reproduction in prokaryotes that results in a palisade arrangement of cells is called? | snapping division
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the thick walled reproductive spores produced in the middle of cyanobacterial filaments is called? | terminal endospores
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what best describes stiff, spiral-shaped prokaryotic cells? | spirilla
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what can remain alive for decades, remain alive in boiling water, exist in a state of suspended animation? | endopores
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how is halobacterium distinctive? | it is absolutely dependent on high salt concentrations to maintain its cell wall
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photosynthetic bacteria that also fix nitrogen are ___________ | cyanobacteria
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what genus is the most common anaerobic human pathogen? | bacteroides
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flexible spiral shaped prokaryotes are ______ | spirochetes
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bacteria that convert nitrogen gas into ammonia are __________ | nitrogen fixers
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the presence of mycolic acid in the cell wall characterizes what? | mycobacterium
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3 eukaryotic microorganisms | protozoa, algae, fungi
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single copy (haploid) occurs through what process? | meiosis
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what reproduces mostly through meiosis | fungi
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2 copy (diploid) occurs through what process? | mitosis
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what reproduces through mitosis? | algae, protozoa
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cell partitions that replicate DNA equally between 2 nuclei, exact copies of parent nucleus, remain diploid | mitosis
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4 phases of mitosis | prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
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occurs before mitosis begins, DNA & organelles are duplicated | interphase
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Dna condenses, nucleus dissolves, mitotic spindle moves to poles | prophase
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DNA lines up in the middle of the cell, mitotic spindle attaches | metaphase
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DNA pairs split, move towards poles | Anaphase (mitosis)
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nucleus reforms, organelles and DNA cluster in poles, cleavage furrow forms | telophase (mitosis)
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nuclear division that partitions parent cells into 4 haploid cells, 2 stages-meiosis I and meisis II-each stage includes 4 stages PMAT | Meiosis
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homologous chromosomes pair to form tetrads | prophase I
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tetrads align in the middle of the cell, mitotic spindle attaches | metaphase I
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chromosomes split, move towards poles | Anaphase (meiosis)
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nucleus reforms, chromosomes cluster in poles, cleavage furrow forms | telophase (meiosis)
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|
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DNA not replicated, one chromosome in each cell, mitotic spindle moves toward poles | prophase II
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chromosomes aligns in the middle of the cell, mitotic spindle attaches | metaphase II
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division of a cells cytoplasm | Cytokinesis
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3 characteristics of protozoa? | eukaryotic, unicellular, lack a cell wall
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most protozoa are _______ | chemoheterotrophic
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what is the motile feeding stage in protozoa called? | trophozoite
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what is the resting stage in protozoa called? | cyst
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fungi cell walls are typically composed of _____ | chitin
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chemoheterotrophic, do not perform photosynthesis, related to animals, produce antibiotics, decomposer | fungi
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divided into cells by internal cross walls in fungi | septate hypha
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no septate partitioned in fungi | aseptate hypha
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all have some means of asexual reproduction, most also reproduce sexually | fungi
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some yeasts produce long filaments called _______ | psuedohypha
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fungal mating types designated as "+" and "-_ | sexual spore formation
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classifications of fungi | zygomycota, ascomycota, basidiomycota, deuteromycetes
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recieves nutrition from dead matter | saprobes
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what fungal classification is saprobes classified under? | zygomycota
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|
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most human pathogens, food spoilage, beneficial fungi includes penicillium | ascomycota
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what are beneficial fungi? | penicillium, saccharomyces
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what category are the fungi: penicillium, saccharomyces classified under? | ascomycota
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|
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the yeast responsible for making bread, beer & wine | saccharomyces
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what fungal classification is mushrooms under? | basidiomycota
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|
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partnership between fungi & photosynthetic microbes, fungus provides nutrients, water, & protection and photosynthetic microbes provide carbohydrates & oxygen | lichens
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|
||||
simple, eukaryotic phototrophs, carry out oxygenic photosynthesis using chlorophyll, aquatic | algae
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|
||||
classifications of algae | green, red & golden algae
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|
||||
share numerous characteristics with plants, green algae | chlorophyta
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|
||||
marine, red algae | rhodophyta
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|
||||
component of marine phytoplankton, major source of world's oxygen | chrysophyta
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|
||||
_________ are animals that carry pathogens | arthropod vectors
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|
||||
2 types of arthropod vectors | mechanical & biological
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|
||||
what kind of arthropod vector carry pathogens? | mechanical vectors
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|
||||
what kind of arthropod vector carry/ host pathogens, transmit disease through bites | biological vectors
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|
||||
what 2 classes of arthropods do disease vectors belong to? | arachnida & insecta
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|
||||
examples of arachnida | ticks, mites
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|
||||
Examples of insecta | fleas, flies, mosquitos
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|
||||
haploid nuclei contain how many sets of chromosomes? | 1
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|
||||
multiple nuclear divisions without cytoplasmic divisions result in cells called______ | coenocytes
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|
||||
the type of asexual fungal spore that forms within hyphae is called a ________ | chlamydospores
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|
||||
what does a phycologist study? | alterations of genes in algae
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|
||||
the stemlike portion of a seawood is called its ________ | stipe
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|
||||
carrageenan is found in the cell walls of which group of algae? | red algae
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|
||||
chrysolaminarin is a storage product found in which group of microbes? | golden algae
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|
||||
what feature characterizes diatoms? | chlorophylls a and c & carotene
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|
||||
amoebae include microbes with _______ | threadlike psuedopods
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|
||||
what is common to mitosis & meiosis? | spindle
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|
||||
what taxon is characterized by "hairy" flagella | stramenopila
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|
||||
minuscule, acellular, infecious agents, cause infections of humans, animals, plants & bacteria, no cytoplasmic membrane, cytosol, organelles,"non-living" cannot reproduce on its own | viruses
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|
||||
virus particles contain genetic material & a ___________ | capsid shell
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|
||||
this genetic material filled capsid is called ________ | nucleocapsid
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|
||||
provide protection for viral nucleic acid, means of attachment to host's cells | capsids
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|
||||
a "phage" virus that only infects bacterial cells | bacteriophage
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|
||||
acquired from host cell during viral replication or release, composed of host phospholipid bilayer & proteins, not on all viruses | the viral envelope
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|
||||
what are viruses classified by? | nucleic acid (RNA/DNA), presence of envelope, shape (helical, cylindrical, icosahedral), size
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|
||||
what is dependent on hosts' organelles and enzymes to produce new virions | viral replication
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|
||||
2 types of viral replication | lytic & lysogenic
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|
||||
viral replication usually results in death & lysis of host cell | lytic replication
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|
||||
5 stages of lytic replication cycle | attachment, entry, synthesis, assembly, release
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|
||||
modified replication cycle, infected host cells, grow & reproduce normally for generations before they lyse, usually incorporate viral genetic material into the DNA of the host | lysogeny
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|
||||
when the cell is infected with an inactive lysogenic virus, that cell has a ________ | latent infection
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|
||||
viruses cause ________% of human cancers | 20-25
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|
||||
specific viruses are known to cause ______% of human cancers | 15
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|
||||
some carry copies of oncogenes as part of their genomes, some interfere with tumor repression, some promote oncogenes already present in host | role of viruses in cancer
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|
||||
3 different mechanisms in which animal viruses enter cells | direct penetration, membrane fusion, endocytosis
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|
||||
viruses that enter cell with capsid intact are ______ | uncoated
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|
||||
direct penetration is done by? | phages only
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|
||||
membrane fushion is done by? | enveloped viruses
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|
||||
endocytosis is done by? | enveloped and non-enveloped viruses
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|
||||
entry & uncoating is done by? | animal viruses
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|
||||
DNA viruses often enter the _______ | nucleus
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|
||||
RNA viruses often replicate in the ______ | cytoplasm
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|
||||
similar to replication of cellular DNA, viral genome replicated in the nucleus, viral proteins are made in the cytoplasm | dsDNA viruses
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|
||||
cells do not use ssDNA, host enzymes produce DNA strand complementary to vital genome to form dsDNA molecule, dsDNA used for viral replication & transcription | ssDNA viruses
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|
||||
contains reverse transcriptase that generates DNA from RNA | retroviruses +ssRNA
🗑
|
||||
strand of genome acts as mRNA | dsRNA viruses
🗑
|
||||
RNA-dependent RNA polymerase generated +ssRNA | -ssRNA viruses
🗑
|
||||
enveloped viruses are often released by ________ | budding
🗑
|
||||
naked viruses are released by _________ | exocytosis or lyse
🗑
|
||||
________cannot grow in standard microbial media | viruses
🗑
|
||||
how are viruses cultured? | media consisting of mature organisms, embryonated eggs, cell cultures
🗑
|
||||
how are phages grown? | in bacteria, in liquid cultures or on agar plates
🗑
|
||||
lysis of bacteria produces ______ | plaques
🗑
|
||||
pros of culturing viruses in embryonated chicken eggs? | inexpensive, sterile, some vaccines are prepared in chicken cultures
🗑
|
||||
what virus is common culture in chicken eggs? | the influenza vaccine
🗑
|
||||
very small, circular pieces of RNA that are infectious & pathogenic in plants, lack capsid, not pathogenic in humans | viroids
🗑
|
||||
proteinaceous infectious agent | prion
🗑
|
||||
most famous prion disease? | variant Creuztfeldt-jakob disease (vCJD) "Mad Cow disease"
🗑
|
||||
functional proteins that contain α-helics | cellular PrP
🗑
|
||||
disease causing proteins, contain β-pleated sheets | prion PrP
🗑
|
||||
________ causes cellular PrP to refold into prion PrP, normal proteins become non-functional | Prion PrP
🗑
|
||||
what disease does the poxviridae virus cause? | orthopoxvirus (smallpox)
🗑
|
||||
what diseases does the herpesviridae virus cause? | herpes, chicken pox, mono, birth defects
🗑
|
||||
what disease does the papillomaviridae virus cause? | human papilloma virus
🗑
|
||||
what disease does the picornaviridae virus cause? | polio, hepitis B, common cold
🗑
|
||||
what disease does the coronaviridae virus cause? | coronavirus (common cold)
🗑
|
||||
what disease does the retroviridae virus cause? | AIDS
🗑
|
||||
What disease does the orthomyxoviridae virus cause? | influenza virus (Flu)
🗑
|
||||
what disease does the filoviridae viruse cause? | filovirus (ebola)
🗑
|
||||
a naked cell has no ______ | membranous envelope
🗑
|
||||
when a eukaryotic cell is infected with an enveloped virus and sheds viruses slowly over time, this infection is called a_________ | persistent infection
🗑
|
||||
another name for a complete virus is ________ | virion
🗑
|
||||
what virus can be latent? | herpesviruses
🗑
|
||||
a clear zone of phage infection in a becterial lawn is called a ________ | plaque
🗑
|
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