Practice for first Blood Banking test DelTech Owens
Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in
each of the black spaces below before clicking
on it to display the answer.
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| Who decided on the donor criteria in the Code of Federal Regulations? | Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
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| The donor history questionnaire was written to meet FDA requirements by the ? | AABB (American Association of Blood Banks)
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| What is the minimal amount of time you are allowed to wait between donations? | 56 days
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| What parties are protected by the questions and deferral policy during the donation screening process? | the donor and the recipient
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| What is the acceptable minimal limit for a patient's appearance? | in good health
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| To donate blood, a patient's hemoglobin must equal to or above ? | 12.5 g/dL (125 g/L))
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| To donate blood, a patient's hematocrit must be equal to or above ? | 38%
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| To donate blood, a patient's blood pressure must be within ? | normal limits (probably less than 120/80)
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| To donate blood, a patient's body temp must be at or below ? | 37.5C or 99.5F
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| To donate blood, a patient's body weight can be no lower than ? | 100lbs (45kg)
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| If a donor weighs less than 110lbs, the amount of blood taken for donation must be adjusted. How is the adjustment made? | Maximum donation is 10.5 mL of blood per kg of donor weight.
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| What is the acceptable age for a donor to make a donation without parental consent? | 16 years old or per state law (18 in Delaware)
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| The bags, tubes, and registrations form used during a blood donation must all be __ and kept together. | labeled
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| The site of blood draw must be cleaned with __ aqueous iodophor solution followed by __ povidone-iodine. | .7% and 10%
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| What gauge of needle is used? | 16 (or 18)
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| If a donor experiences weakness, sweating, dizziness, pallor, nausea, or vomiting during a blood donation or blood draw, what should you do? | Remove needle and tourniquet. Elevate legs above head. Apply cold compresses to forehead and back of neck.
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| If a blood donor faints (syncope) what should you do to help them? | Put cold compresses on back of neck.
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| If a blood donor experiences twitching or muscle spasm, what should you tell them to do? | cough
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| If a blood donor gets a bruise (hematoma) from the procedure, what can you do to minimize the bruising? | Apply pressure for 7-10 mins, apply ice to area for 5 mins. Prof recommends having them hold up their arm while you press down on the area.
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| If a blood donor has convulsions, what should you do? | Call for help. Prevent donor from falling out of chair or injuring himself. Ensure donor can breath and has adequate airway.
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| If a blood donor has cardiac difficulties during a donation, you should begin ? | cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Call for help.
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| What 2 things should donors avoid after finishing their blood donation? | smoking or drinking
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| Donations for the general population are called ? | allogeneic donations
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| Donations for personal use are called ? | autologous donations
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| Donations made for a specific recipeint other than the donor are called ? | directed donations
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| When blood is drawn and stored before the date of an operation for the donor, this is what kind of autologous donation? | preoperative
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| Removing units at the beginning of surgery and reinfusing them at the end of surgery is what kind of autologous donation? | normovolemic
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| When a medical device is used to wash, filter, and concentrate blood during an operation, this is what kind of autologous donation? | blood recovery
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| When is it OK to accept a donation from a donor with a high-risk (deferral) condition? | preoperative autologous donation
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| When making a preoperative autologous donation, the patient's hemoglobin must be at least ? | 11 g/dL
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| When making a preoperative autologous donation, the patient's hematocrit must be at least ? | 33%
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| A patient making a preoperative autologous donation can donate UP TO how many hours before the actual surgery? | 72
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| True or false: Directed donations are safer than allogeneic donations? | false
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| Directed donors must meet the __ donation criteria as allogeneic donors. | same
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| The 56 day interval between donations can be waived with the approval of the ? | medical director
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| When a donor's blood components are separated and the remaining blood is returned to the donor, this is known as ? | apheresis
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| When a donor's white blood cells are removed and the rest of his blood is returned, this is known as ? | leukapheresis
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| When a donor's platelets are removed during plateletpheresis, donations must be made at least __ hours apart and no more than how many times a week? | 48 hours apart, no more than twice per week
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| Before a donor can undergo plateletpheresis, his platelet count must be at least ? | 150,000/uL
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| Infrequent plasmapheresis must be done no more than ? | once every 4 weeks
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| During frequent plasmapheresis (where donations are made less than every 4 weeks) what levels must be monitored? | Immunoglobulin G and M
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| If height and weight requirements are met, how many units of RBCs may be donated during red cell apheresis? | 2
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| How long is a patient to be deferred after RBC apheresis? | 16 weeks
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| Donor tests can be divided into what 2 categories? | 1. Immunohematologic testing (ABO and D/Rh testing) 2. Infectious disease screening
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| When testing blood for the presence of hepatitis, we are looking for what 4 things? | 1. HBsAG antigen 2. Anti-HCV antibodies 3. Anti-HBc antibodies 4. HCV NAT/nucleic acid testing
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| When testing blood for the presence of HIV-1/2, we are looking for what 2 things? | 1. anti-HIV-1/2 antibodies 2. HIV NAT
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| When testing blood for a cancer causing retro virus, we are looking for ? | antibodies to the human T-lymphotropic virus type 1/2 (HTLV-I/II)
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| When testing for Chagas disease (Trypanosoma cruzi) we are looking for what in the blood? | IgG antibody to T. cruzi
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| To determine the ABO and D phenotype, red cells are tested with reagent ? | anti-A and anti-B
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| D typing (for Rh) for donors involves testing with anti-D. If the test is negative, what additional test is performed? | weak D
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| Antibody screening tests for antibodies other than A or B. Who MUST undergo this test before donating? | Those exposed to transfusions or who have been pregnant
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| If clinically significant antibodies are found in a donor's blood after antibody screening, what blood components cannot be used? Which can be used? | 1. plasma and platelets cannot be used 2. RBCs can be used so long as they are the correct ABO type
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| Syphilis is caused by ? | Treponema pallidum
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| What is the screening test for reagin in serum that detects syphilis? | Rapid plasma reagin (RPR) (NOTE: it can create false positives.)
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| The term "reagin" means that this test does not look for antibodies against the actual bacterium, but rather for antibodies against substances ? | released by cells when they are damaged by T. pallidum.
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| The RBCs used during the hemagglutination test for T. pallidum/syphilis come from where? | chickens
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| The RPR and hemagglutination tests for syphilis can be confirmed with what test? | Fluorescent treponemal antibody adsorption test
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| An enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (EIA) detects what using what? | Detects antigens to antibodies using a solid object, like a plastic bead, coated with antigens or antibodies to the thing being tested for.
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| An indirect EIA detects __, while a sandwich EIA detects __. | indirect=antibodies, sandwich=antigens
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| The conjugate in an EIA test is an __ labeled antibody or antigen. | enzyme (usually horseradish peroxidase)
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| The substrate used during an EIA test is the ? | color developer, usually o-phenylenediamine
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| NAT (nucleic acid testing) amplifies nucleic acids of __ __ and identifies viral RNA. | infectious agents
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| NAT can detect low numbers of viral copies in plasma even before what appears? | antibodies to the virus
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| 3 RNA viruses often tested for using NAT are ? | 1. HIV 2. Hepatitis C virus 3. West Nile
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| What do we call the emission of light from a chemical reaction that is often used in tests? | chemiluminescence
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| Chemiluminescent __ are attached to an antigen or antibody where the highest light intensity emitted is measured. | labels
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| What kinds of hepatitis can be transmitted through blood transfusions? | B, C, D
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| What does HBsAg stand for? | Hepatitis B surface antigen
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| What does anti-HBc stand for? | Antibody to hepatitis B core antibody
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| What is HBsAG (heptatitis B surface antigen)? | a protein on the surface of the hepatitis B virus
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| The anti-HBc (antibody to hepatitis B core antibody) appears after HBsAG but before ? | symptoms
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| When is the antibody to HCV (hepatitis C virus) detectable? | 10 weeks after infection
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| A retrovirus contains reverse __, which allows the virus to convert RNA to DNA and then integrate the DNA into the cell. | transcriptase
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| Name 3 subfamilies of human retroviruses. | 1. Lentivirus (HIV 1/2) 2. Oncovirus (HTLV 1/2/4) 3. Spumavirus (not a human disease)
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| HIV 1/2 causes AIDS by infecting what? | CD4+ T lymphocytes (T helper cells)
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| An antibody to HIV 1/2 develops how long after an infection? | 22-25 days
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| A NAT test for which kind of HIV is required on all blood donated? | HIV 1
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| Donated blood is tested for HTLV-I (human T-lymphotropic virus type 1) because it is associated with with what? | adult T-cell leukemia
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| Donated blood is tested for HTLV-II (human T-lymphotropic virus type 2) because it is associated with what? | large granular lymphocyte leukemia
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| What kind of test is confirmatory for the antibody to HIV 1/2 and HTLV 1/2? | Western Blot Test
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| During the Western Blot Test, antibodies in the serum are tested for a reaction with individual __ __ on strips containing antigens to the antibodies. | protein bands
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| Two out of 3 specific bands must be positive on the Western Blot Test for the patient to be positive for HIV or HTLV. Name the 3 bands. | 1. p24 2. gp41 3. gp120/160
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| Donors are screened for West Nile Virus using ? | NAT
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| Look-back investigations must be performed when a donor is found positive for what diseases? | 1. hepatitis 2. HIV 3. HTLV 4. WNV
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| What mononucleosis-like virus is also tested on donate blood? | cytomegalovirus
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| CMV-negative blood is given to __ or anyone who is __. | infants, immunocompromised
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| Chagas disease is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi and transmitted by the ? | reduviid bug
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| Blood collection facilities in areas with many __ immigrants perform EIA test on donated blood for chagas disease. | latino
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| Apheresis platelets and platelet concentrates must be tested for __ contamination. | bacterial
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| Donated blood is collected in a primary bag containing __ and __. | anticoagulants and preservatives
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| The blood collection set is sterile and considered a __ system. | closed
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| If ports in the blood collection set are exposed to __, it is considered an open system. | air
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| Donated blood stored in a closed system is usually good for about how long? | 42 days
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| Donated blood stored in an open system is good for about how long? | 24 hours
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| Blood stored using citrate-phosphate-dextrose (CPD) is good for how long? | 21 days
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| Blood stored using citrate-phosphate-2-dextrose (CP2D) is good for how long? | 21 days
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| Blood stored using citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine (CPDA-1) is good for how long? | 35 days
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| To get donated blood to last a full 42 days, a solution must be added within how many hours? | 72
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| How long do RBCs live in your body? | about 120 days
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| What blood component is expelled into a satellite bag when blood is centrifuged at a light (slow) spin? | platelet-rich plasma (PRP)
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| During a light spin, an additive solution is added to RBCs followed by an optional __ filtration process. | leukoreduction
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| When platelet rich plasma (PRP) is centrifuged at a heavy (faster) spin, platelets are separated from plasma. The plasma can then be further processed as ? | fresh frozen plasma (FFP)
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| Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) can be processed into ? | cryoprecipitate
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| The minimum quality control requirements for RBC blood components is a hematocrit of at least __ and storage in __ units. | 80% hematocrit, CPDA-1 units (lasting 35 days or 42 with further additives)
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| RBCs must be stored at what temperature and shipped at what temperature? | stored: 1-6C shipped: 1-10C
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| Frozen RBCs must be stored at what temperature and expire after how long? | Stored: -65C or less Expire after: 10 years
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| Sometimes donated blood is irradiated to prevent __ especially in immunocompromised patients. | graft VS host disease
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| Irradiated RBCs must be stored at what temp and expire how long after irradiation? | Stored: 1-6C Expire: 28 days or at original expiration date (whichever comes first)
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| Leukoreduced blood must be stored at what temp? Expiration time is the same as whole blood depending on anticoagulant and preservative. | 1-6C
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| Donated platelets must be stored at what temp and expire after how long? | Stored: 20-24C Expire: 5 days
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| How long can fresh frozen plasma remain viable when stored at -18C? What if stored at -65C? | -18C: 1 year -65C: 7 years
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| Whole blood, which contains ALL blood components, is only given to patients under what 2 conditions? | 1. actively bleeding due to massive trauma 2. undergoing exchange transfusion
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| A whole blood or RBC transfusion will increase the recipient's hemoglobin by what? | 1 g/dL
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| A transfusion of one unit of whole blood or RBCs will increase the recipient's hematocrit by ? | 3%
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| Whole blood transfusions must by __ identical and __. | ABO identical and crossmatched
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| 1 unit of blood is about __ mLs. | 450-500
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| Patients undergoing chemotherapy or irradiation treatment would be given what kind of transfusion? | RBC components
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| Reactions to leukocytes in blood can cause what 3 symptoms? | 1. fever 2. shaking 3. chills
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| __ produced by leukocytes can cause febrile reactions. | Cytokines
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| Trauma victims would receive which kind of blood transfusion? | RBC components
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| Patients undergoing cardiac, orthopedic, or other surgeries would receive what kind of blood transfusion? | RBC components
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| An __ filter removes most leukocytes before storage. | in-line
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| Patient's with end stage renal disease would receive which kind of blood transfusion? | RBC components
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| Leukoreduction removes what kind of virus which resides in WBCs? | cytomegalovirus (CMV)
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| True or false: Removal of WBCs does NOT prevent GVH disease? | True
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| Premature infants in need of blood would receive which kind of blood transfusion? | RBC components
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| Patients with sickle cell would receive which kind of blood transfusion? | RBC componenets
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| After filtration, the final unit of donated blood must contain less than how many WBCs? | 5x10^6 (5,000,000)
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| You may donate 1 unit of apheresis RBCs ever __ weeks. 2 units are allowed over twice that length of time. | 8
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| What replaces the lost fluid in the donor after RBC apheresis takes place? | saline
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| After collection, donated apheresis RBCs must have a hemoglobin of __g and a minimum volume of __mL. | 51g, 153mL
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| RBCs frozen with the high-glycerol method should have a concentration of glycerol at what percent? | 40%
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| RBCs frozen with the low-glycerol method should have a glyercol concentration of what percent? | 20%
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| RBCs frozen with the high-glycerol method should be frozen at what temp? | between -65C and -80C
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| RBCs frozen with the low-glycerol method should be frozen at what temp? | -196C
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| RBCs frozen with the high-glycerol method should be stored at what temp? | -65C
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| RBCs frozen with the low-glyercol method should be stored at what temp? | -120C max
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| Both low and high-glycerold frozen RBCs can stored for how long? | 10 years
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| Which is the more common method of freezing RBCs: low-glyercol or high-glycerol? | high-glycerol is more commonly used
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| After thawing, a unit of frozen RBCs is washed with what to remove the glycerol? | saline solutions
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| Frozen RBCs are stored in what kind of system? | open system
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| Once washed, RBCs must be within how long? | 24 hours
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| Washing with normal saline may remove __ __ that cause allergic, febrile, or anaphylactic reactions. | plasma proteins
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| Irradiating RBCs prevents transfusion-related __ disease. | graft VS host (GVH) disease
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| Graft versus host disease is a reaction toward __ on T cells. | HLAs (human leukocyte antigens)
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| Donated RBCs and platelets must be irradiated in what 3 circumstances? | 1. donation is from a blood relative 2. unit is HLA matched 3. patient immunocompromised
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| Irradiated RBCs expire after how many days? | 28
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| Platelets maintain vascular integrity and stabilize platelet plugs by contributing to __ formation. | fibrin
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| Platelet concentration should contain at least ? | 5.5 x 1010 (5555) platelets
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| One unit of platelets increases the platelet count by how many uL? | 5000 to 10,000
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| Pooled platelets are an open system that expires after how many hours? | 4
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| Each unit of apheresis platelets must contain at least how many platelets? | 3 x 1011 (3033)
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| Leukoreduced platelets prevent febrile reactions and __ alloimmunization. | HLA
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| Fresh frozen plasma and plasma frozen within 24 hours all coagulation factors. But PF24 may have less factor ? | VIII or 8
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| FFP and PF24 may be given to patients in needs of what coag factors when concentrates are not available? | II, V, X, XI
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| FFP and PF24 may be given to patients taking __ who are bleeding. | warfarin
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| FFP and PF24 may be given to patients with __ disease and factor deficiencies. | liver
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| FFP and PF24 maybe be given to patients with what potentially fatal coagulation disorder when fibrinogen is less than 100mg/dL? | DIC
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| FFP and PF24 will thaw in how many mins? | 30-45
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| FFP and PF24 must be transfused within how long? | 24 hours
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| If FFP and PF24 are not transfused within 24 hours of thawing, they must be relabeled at "thawed plasma" and can be stored up to 5 days if kept at what temp? | 1C-6C
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| Thawed plasma CANNOT be used to replace what factor? | VIII or 8
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| How many mL/kh of FFP or PF24 is given for factor replacement? | 10-20 mL/kg
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| What do we call the cold precipitate that forms when FFP is thawed between 1C and 6C? | CRYO (cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor)
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| CRYO (cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor) is refrozen within 1 hour or preparation and stored at what temp for up to 1 year? | -18C
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| CRYO (cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor) must have __ mg of fibrinogen and __ international units of factor VIII per unit. | 150 mg fibrinogen, 80 IU of factor VIII
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| What 5 things can be found in CRYO (cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor)? | 1. VWF 2. Fibrinogen 3. factor VIII 4. fibronectin 5. factor XIII
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| CRYO is a secondary treatment for __ and __ disease. | hemophilia A and von Willebrand's disease
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| The plasma left over after removing CRYO is called ? | CRYO-reduced plasma
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| CRYO-reduced plasma can be removed with __ hours of removing CRYO. | 24 hours
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| Once thawed, CRYO (cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor) can be stored at what temp for up to how many days? | 1-6C, 5 days
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| TTP (thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura) can be treated with ? | CRYO (cryoprecipitated antihemophilic factor)
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| Pooled CRYO is kept at room temp and administered within 4 hours, unless it is stored in a closed system. Then it can be given every __ hours. | 6
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| CRYO is mixed with __ to control surface bleeding after surgery. | thrombin
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| Apheresis granulocytes contain leukocytes and ? | platelets (plus some RBCs)
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| Apheresis granulocytes should be stored, without agitation, at what temp for 24 hours? | 20D-24C
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| Apheresis granulocytes must be __ before use. | irradiated
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| How should autologous units of donated blood be labeled? | "for autolgous use only" - duh
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| Pooled blood components must have the final __ listed and the name of the facility preparing the pool on them. | volume
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| Irradiated blood components must have the name of the __ performing the irradiation. | facility
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| Stored blood should be examined for __ and abnormal color or clots. | hemolysis
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| Whole blood or RBCs should be kept at what tempt when transported? | 1C-10C
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| Frozen units of blood are shipped on ? | dry ice
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| When transported, platelets are kept at what temp? | 20C-24C
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