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MedSurge-Respiratory

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Question
Answer
ABG - pH, value:   7.35 - 7.45  
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ABG - PaO2   80 - 100 mmHg  
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ABG - SaO2   >95%  
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ABG - PaCo2   32 - 48 mmHg  
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HCO3   22 - 26 mEq/L  
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Tissue hypoxia and cardiac dysrhythmias can be expected at PaO2 /SpO2 values?   <40 PaO2 / <75 SpO2  
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SpO2 is?   hemoglobin saturation (the degree to which oxygen is bound to hemoglobin)  
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PaO2 is?   plasma saturation (how much oxygen is avail. in the alveoli to dissolve in the blood)  
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PaCO2 is?   the measurement of the partial pressure of carbon dioxide dissolved in the plasma  
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Resonance: sound / location?   low-pitch / over normal lungs  
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Hyperresonance: sound / location?   loud, low-pitch / hyperinflated lungs (eg. asthma, chronic obstructive lung disease)  
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Dull: sound / location?   medium intensity pitch / solid and lung tissue, liver, pneumonia, fluid filled pleural space  
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Flat: sound / location?   soft, high-pitch / dense tissue w/no air (posterior chest below diaphragn)  
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Lung tissue, sound?   resonant  
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Liver, sound?   dull  
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Heavy muscles and bones, sound?   flat  
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Stomach, sound?   tympany  
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Spinous process, sound?   flat  
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Scapula, sound?   flat  
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viscera, sound?   flat  
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The body's oxygen is carried attached to?   hemoglobin molecules  
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Formula for SpO2?   (maximum oxygen capacity/actual oxygen content) x 100  
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Oxygen's affinity for hemoglobin changes depending on?   pH, temperature, CO2, 2,3-DPG  
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2,3,-DPG is a?   metabolic by-product which competes with O2 for binding sites  
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In a left shift, O2's affinity for hemoglobin?   increases; more hemoglobin saturated w/O2  
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Tissue hypoxia   result of very high SpO2, but O2 rides back to lungs without being used  
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Left shift conditions?   alkalosis, hypothermia  
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Right shift conditions?   acidosis, fever  
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In a right shift, O2's affinity for hemoglobin?   decreases; less O2 carried from the lungs  
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Mechanical ventilation can be delivered via?   endotracheal tube / tracheostomy tube / nasal or face mask  
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Volume in endotracheal cuff should be checked every ____ hours?   8  
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Pressure of endotracheal cuff should be maintained below ____ mm Hg?   20; to reduce the risk of tracheal necrosis, inadequate oxygenation and/or accidental extubation  
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Reposition the oral endotracheal tube every ____ hours?   24 (minimum); check for skin breakdown  
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Following extubation, monitor clients for signs of respiratory distress, such as?   ineffective cough, dyspnea, and stridor  
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Endotracheal Suctioning (ETS) should be performed wearing a ____ ____ and ____ ____.   face mask / STERILE gloves  
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Suctioning should be applied while?   withdrawing the catheter and rotating it with the thumb and forefinger  
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Suctioning of non-sterile oropharyngeal cavity should be performed (before / after) endotracheal?   after; to prevent cross contamination  
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Constant suctioning can result in?   hypoxia  
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ABG sample, nursing intervention?   perform Allen test prior to obtaining the sample / aspirate in heparinized syringe / hold pressure at site for 5 min  
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Structural changes in the skeletal system of cancer pts., result in a decrease in _____ _____.   diaphragmatic expansion  
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Assessment finding of pt. with lung cancer?   rust-colored or blood-tinged sputum / Hoarseness / Dyspnea / Unilateral wheezing / Muffled heart sounds / Fatigue, weight loss, or anorexia / Fever / Clubbing of fingers  
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Tactile Fermitus usually (increases / decreases) with lung cancer?   increases; due to air spaces being replaced with tumor tissue or fluid  
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Masses in lungs will sound?   dull or flat  
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Best position to promote breathing in pt. with emphysema   high Fowler's with arms supported on the over-bed table  
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For active tuberculosis, nurse should implement _____ precautions?   airborne  
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Tachypnea is?   an abnormally rapid rate of breathing  
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A pneumothorax is?   the presence of air or gas in the pleural space that causes lung collapse  
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In tension pneumothorax tracheal deviation is toward the (affected / unaffected) side?   unaffected  
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Effectiveness of mechanical ventilation is assessed best via?   ABG testing  
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Chronic bronchitis (blue bloaters), S/S...   obese, frequent cough, use of accessory muscles, coarse rhonchi and wheezing, may have signs of right HF  
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Emphysema (pink puffers), S/S...   may be very thin with a barrel chest, no cough, may adopt the tripod sitting position, breathing w/purses lips & accessory muscles, wheezing, heart sounds very distant  
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Total hip arthroplasty, places pt. at risk for a ____ ____   pulmonary embolus; due to surgery & decreased mobility of affected extremity  
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Surfactant is?   a lipoprotein that lowers the surface tension in the alveoli  
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Surfactant function?   reduces the amount of pressure needed to inflate the alveoli and decreases the tendency of the alveoli to collapse  
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During inspiration, the diaphragm?   contracts; increasing intrathoracic volume and pushing the abdominal contents downward  
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During inspiration, the external intercostal muscles and scalene muscle?   contract; increasing the lateral and anterioposterior dimension of the chest  
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The ability of the lungs to oxygenate arterial blood adequately is determined by examination of?   the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) and arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2)  
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Respiratory defense mechanisms include?   filtration of air, the mucociliary clearance system, the cough reflex, reflex bronchoconstriction, and alveolar macrophages  
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When the curve shifts to the right?   blood picks up oxygen less rapidly in the lungs but delivers oxygen more readily to the tissues  
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The right shift is seen?   in cases of acidosis and hyperthermia and when the PaCO2 is increased  
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Early symptoms of inadequate oxygenation include?   unexplained restlessness and irritability  
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With aging, costal cartilages?   calcify; interfere with chest expansion  
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Auscultation should proceed from the lung ...   apices to the bases; if pt. will tire, start at the base  
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The term abnormal breath sounds is used to describe?   bronchial or bronchovesicular sounds heard in the peripheral lung fields  
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Thoracentesis is?   the insertion of a large-bore needle through the chest wall into the pleural space to obtain specimens for evaluation, remove pleural fluid, or instill medication  
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Kussmaul respirations, possible etiology?   Metbolic acidosis; ↑ rate aids in CO2 exertion  
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Abdominal paradox is?   inward instead of outward movement on inspiration  
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COPD, usual inspection finding?   barrel chest, cyanosis, tripod position, use of accessory muscles  
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Hematocrit Hematocrit finding in chronuc hypoxemia?   ↑ hematocrit  
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Hemoglobin values   M: 13.2 - 17.3 F: 11.7 - 16.0  
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Hematocrit values   M: 39 - 50% F: 35 - 47%  
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ABGs test syringe to use for collection?   heparinized  
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Gram stain sputum collection, best done when?   A.M., after mouth care  
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Prior to CT Scan insure pt. is not allergic to?   shellfish (test is iodine based)  
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Ventilation/Perfusion (V/P) test performed to?   access V/P of lungs; V w/o P suggests pulmonary embolus  
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Positron Emission Tomography (PET) performed to?   distinguish between benign and malignant pulmonary nodules  
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Bronchoscopy, nursing interventions?   pt. NPO 6 - 12 hrs prior / get signed consent / after, keep pt. NPO until gag reflex returns  
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Test performed after Thoracentesis?   chest x-ray, tk check for pheumothorax  
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Positive TB response is?   >= 5 mm induration  
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False negative TB test can occur within?   8 - 10 weeks of infection  
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False positive TB test can occur with previous?   BCG Vaccine  
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Tidal Volume is?   volume of air inhaled/ exhaled during each breath  
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Normal Tidal Volume is?   0.5 L  
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Max lung capacity is?   6.0 L  
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FEV is?   forced expiratory volume  
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PEFR is?   peak expiratory flow rate (max airflow during expiration  
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In allergic rhinitis, Corticosteroid and Mast Cell Stabilizer nasal sprays should be started?   2 weeks prior to pollen season, 10 - 15 min prior to exposure to trigger  
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1st generation antihistamines cross the?   Blood-Brain barrier, causing sedation  
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2nd generation antihistamines dont take with?   MAOIs  
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Nasal spray, don't take longer than?   3 days, longer can cause rebound  
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Temperature of ________ indicates _______?   100.4, Infection  
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Pt. position to alleviate dyspnea?   low fowler's - 30 - 40 degrees  
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Pt. position to decrease aspiration risk?   high fowler's - 90 degrees  
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Inflation of endotracheal/tracheostoma cuff should be kept between _____ and _____ mm Hg.   15, 20  
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Examples of equipment that can allow speech with trachea tube?   small cuffless tube / fenestrated tube, speaking valve / speaking track tube  
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Trachea care should be done every ____ to ____ hrs as appropriate   4, 8  
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When a supraglottic laryngectomy is performed, pt (can / cannot) speak?   CAN speak; true vocal cords remain intact, but pt. must lean a new way to swallow  
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Leukoplakia / Erythoplakia patches are?   white / red patches inside the mouth  
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Comprehensive pain assessment should include?   location, characteristics, onset/duration, frequency, quality, intensity, precipitating factors  
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Laryngectomy/Radical Neck Surgery speech aides include?   tracheal-esophageal prosthesis / artificial larynx / electrolarynx / esophageal speech  
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Tracheal stenosis is?   a narrowing of the trachea that causes breathing problems  
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Esophageal speech involves?   swallowing air, trapping it in the esophagus, then releasing to create sounds  
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LPNs can do trachea care on pts. who are?   stable with non-acute airway problems  
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PORT (Pneumonia Patient Outcomes Research Team), SI (Severity Index) used to?   supplement clinical judgment as to where (home or hospital) to treat patient  
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PORT Scale - Low Risk : Outpatient   None - Class I / <70 - Class II / 71-90 - Class III  
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PORT Scale - Moderate Risk : Inpatient   91 - 130 - Class IV  
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PORT Scale - High Risk : Inpatient   >130 - Class V  
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Asplenia is?   absence of normal spleen function and is associated with some serious infection risks  
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Patients with high gastric residuals are at risk for?    
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Reaction to TB occurs ____ to ____ weeks after initial exposure? An induration reading of ____ is considered positive.   2, 12, induration >=5 mm  
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TB Drug : Isonizaid (INH), S/E?   hepatitis  
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TB Drug : Rifampin (Rifadin), S/E?   hepatitis, thrombocytopenia, orange secretions  
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TB Drug : Pyrazinamide (PZA), S/E?   hepatitis, arthralgias, hyperuricemia  
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TB Drug : Ethambutol (Myambutol), S/E?   ocular toxicity (decreased red/green color discrimination / acuity)  
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QuantiFERON-TB (QFT) is a ____ ____ ____?   rapid diagnostic test for TB  
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The A___ F___ B___ test is done for ___ consecutive days to test for TB?   Acid Fast Bacilli, 3 days (A.M.)  
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What two TB drugs cannot be used together for latent TB?   Rifampin and Pyrazinamide; severe liver injury/death  
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Fungal Infection: HISTOPLASMOSIS   found in soil of N.America / generally self-limiting  
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Fungal Infection: COCCIDIODOMYCOSIS   found in semiarid regions SW-US / symptomatic in 1/3 exposures  
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Fungal Infection: BLASTOMYCOSIS   SW-US & NW-US / insidious progression, skin involvement  
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Fungal Infection: CRYPTOCCOSIS   true yeast, worldwide soil, pigeon excreta / possible meningitis  
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Fungal Infection: ASPERGILLOSIS   true mold in mouth / risk of necrotizing pneumonia  
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Fungal Infection: CANDIDIASIS   leading cause mycotic infections, upper respiratory & GI tract  
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Fungal Infection: ACTINOMYCOSIS   not a true fungus (anaerobic) / lower lobes w/abscess or emphysema  
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Fungal Infection: NOCARDIOSIS   not a true fungus (aerobic) / infection from nature / rarely in sputum  
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Fungal Infection: PNEUMOCYSTIC PNEUMONIA (PCP)   fungus in environment / opportunistic  
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Oxygen-hemoglobin Dissociation curve right shift caused by?   Increased acid / CO2 / temperature / BPG  
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SAO2 on tissue level, when right shift is (improved / worsened)?   Improved; More O2 loose for quicker binding in tissues  
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Possible causes of left shift?   Alkalosis / hypothermia  
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Oxygen-hemoglobin Dissociation curve left caused by?   Decreased acid / CO2 / temperature / BPG  
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Intravesical indicates what type of cancer?   bladder  
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Intrarterial indicates what type of cancer?   osteogenic sarcoma  
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Intrathecal indicates what type of cancer?   brain  
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Intraperitoneal indicates what type of cancer?   colorectal  
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Intravenous indicates what type of cancer?   leukemia  
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Chest tubes are inserted through what type of incision?   thoracotomy  
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Chest tube water seal allows air to?   exit pleural space on exhalation; stop air from entering on inhalation  
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For chest tube intra-procedure, position pt. in?   supine or semi-Fowler's position  
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For chest tube post-procedure, position pt. in?   Fowler's or semi-Fowler's position  
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Asthma and emphysema pts. chest presentation?   barrel chest  
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COPD pts. usually have _____-sided heart failure?   right  
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Right sided heart failure is when?   this side of the heart cannot effectively return blood from the body, or the veins, to the lungs  
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Right sided heart failure, S/S?   abdominal pain, nausea, and loss of appetite, unintentional weight gain, edema  
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Tracheostomy care - accidental decannulation within first 72 hrs. post-surgery, nursing action   call for assistance, this is a medical emergency; tract has not matured and replacement is difficult  
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