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antenatal & postnatal

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Question
Answer
what does syntocinon do   contains oxytocin. stimulates rhythmic contraction of the womb during & after delivery  
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What is konakionn for   vit.K to prevent or treat blood clotting problems can be given in multiple tablet doses or 1 I/M  
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What is ergometerine for   treatment of postpartum or postabortion haemorrhage. stimulates contraction of uterine  
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what is the safety formula for baby sleeping. aids in protection from SUDI   Face up. Face clear. Smokefree  
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what's the average weight of neonate   2700-4000 grams (6-9 pounds)  
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how much weight do baby's loose in the first 3-4 days and why?   10% of their body weight. Output of meconium & urine exceeds input  
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what is the average length of a newborn   46-56cm  
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what is the average chest & head circumference of a baby   chest: 30.5-33cm Head:32-36cm (should be 2-3cm larger than chest)  
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what is the normal vital signs of a new born   resp: 30-60 H/R: 120-160 Temp: 36.3-37.5  
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what is the length of the umbilical cord   about the length of the baby (50cm)  
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what is the purpose of hip checks   to check for congenital dislocation of the hip  
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why is BGL screening important   transient physiological drop may occur in 1st 2 hours of life. screening is directed at infants at risk for pathological hypoglycaemia  
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what is a serum bilirubin test   a blood test to measure levels of bile pigment in blood serum to evaluate their liver function  
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what does an elevated bilirubin test suggest   accelerated RBC destruction or may indicate bilirubin is not being excreted properly  
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what is TORCH/S screen for   a blood test that checks for toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomagalovirus, herpes simplex, HIV & syphilis  
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what is a guthrie test for   A blood test obtained from the heel tests for PKU a genetic disorder caused by the faulty metabolism of phenylaline. Recommended to be obtained 48-72 hours after birth  
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what are the reflexes of position & movement   Moro reflex: birth-1/3mth Tonic neck: birth-5/7mth Palmar grasp: birth-4mth Babinski: birth-2yr  
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what are the reflexes to sound   blinking response & turning response  
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What are the reflexes of vision   blinking to threat: 6-7mth horizontal following: 4-6wk vertical following: 2-3mth Postrotational nystagmus: birth  
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what are the food reflexes   rooting response: birth- 3/8mth suckling response  
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what is the reflex not categorized   headlag  
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what causes Rh or ABO incompatibility   if mother is Rh- and foetus is Rh+ antibodies are made by mother for foetus's antigens ABO when mother is O & baby is A or B  
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what is 'isoimmunizaton'   if foetal Rh+ blood leaks into Rh- mothers circulation her body may make antibodies to destroy the Rh+ erythrocytes  
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what is the treatment for Rh incompatibility   prevent manufacture of anti-Rh-antibodies by giving Rh(D) immune globulin to the Rh- woman 28wk gestation & 72hours after birth of Rh+ baby  
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what is meconium   The first stools. is made of amniotic fluid, mucus bile, and cells that have been shed from the skin and the intestinal tract  
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how many stools do infants pass a day   Breastfed: 3-6/day Bottlefed: 1-4 then reduce to 1-2/day  
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what is physiological jaundice   normal jaundice due to immature liver & slow processing of bilirubin. Appears 2-4days & disappears 1-2 weeks  
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what is pathological jaundice   evident in first 24hour. liver cannot handle hemolysis & bilirubin levels rise. O2 capacity of RBC diminishes  
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what is kenicterus   Accumulation of bilirubin in the brain tissue. a result from bilirubin toxicity.  
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what are the aims of ante-partum care   maintenance of wellness for mother & child early detection & treatment of problems pregnancy to term followed by healthy birth preparation for breastfeeding preparation for parenting assist other family members to adapt to change  
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what are the blood tests for in ante-partum care   blood group & antibodies Full blood count Hep B, Rubella & Syphilis ?HIV if needed  
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why is folic acid needed 1 month prior to pregnancy & first 3 months in pregnancy   reduces the risk of neural tube defects  
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why is iodine needed in pregnancy   As iodine is essential for normal brain development, it's important that the foetus have adequate intake. needed for thyroid hormones  
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what are the presumptive signs of pregnancy   amenorrhoea, breast changes, nausea/vomiting, quickening, deepening pigmentation, urinary frequency  
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what are the probable signs of pregnancy   Braxon-Hicks contractions, abdominal enlargement, ballottement, vaginal examination (Goodwells, Chadwick, Hegar & macdonald signs) Striae graviderum & + pregnancy test  
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what are the positive signs of pregnancy   fetal heart, movement & fetal parts able to be palpated. Visualization on ultrasound  
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what is engorgement   when vessels enlarge around breasts. Breasts become hard & painful & baby cannot fix on  
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what is chloasma   increased pigmentation of face. A presumptive sign of pregnancy  
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what is linea nigra   a line extending in the midline of abdomen from just above the umbilicus to the symphysis pubis  
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what is quickening   fetal movement felt by mother. first perceived at 16-20weeks as a faint fluttering in lower abdo.  
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what are braxton hicks contractions   are irregular painless, uterine contractions that begin in the 2nd trimester & become progressively noticeable as term approaches  
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what are the dates for the trimesters   1st trimester is to 12-14 weeks gestation, the 2nd trimester up to 28 weeks gestation, and the 3rd trimester is till term. 3 months each  
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what is ballottement   a maneuver by which the fetal part is displaced by a light tap of a finger on the cervix and then rebounds quickly  
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what are the readings for gestational hypertension   130/90 two readings over a period of 6hours. 30 above systolic baseline & 15 above diastolic  
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what are the signs of pre-eclampsia   oedema, increased BP & protein urea  
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what are the main signs of worsening pre-eclampsia   complain of frontal headache oedema around retina egigastric pain  
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what is eclampsia   cerebral oedema causes convulsions. affects circulation O2 (hypoxia of mother & baby). Placental abruption. Death. Convulsions can continue 48-72 hours after birth  
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what is the treatment for eclampsia   I/V magnesium sulfate postpartum (for convulsions) I/V hydralasine (for BP)  
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what is HELLP syndrome   Heamolysis of RBC ELevated liver enzymes Low Platelets  
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how much folic acid is needed to reduce effects of neural tube defects   0.4mg 0.5-0.6mg for pregnant or breastfeeding 0.8mg if hx of neural tube defect  
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how much blood loss is considered post partum heamorrhage   >500ml  
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what can you do to help a woman with a post partum heamorrhage   stimulate fudus. becomes tight & stops bleeding. Bladder must be empty so it can contract down  
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what is DIC ( disseminated intravascular coagulation)   the proteins that control blood clotting become abnormally active. Won't return to normal until placenta is removed  
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gestational diabetes and baby weight   >4kg baby tend to become diabetic 20% more than normal expected weight gain (normal 9-11kg)  
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what are the signs of impending labour   braxton hicks contractions Increased vaginal discharge Bloody show Rupture of membranes Energy spurt weight loss  
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what are the mechanisms of labour   descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation, extensions, external roataions & expulsion  
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what are the 3 types of lochia   rubra, serosa, alba  
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define lochia rubra   red because composed mostly of blood. Lasts for 3 days  
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Define lochia serosa   pinkish because of blood & mucus content. lasts 3-10days  
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define lochia alba   is mostly mucus & is clear or colourless. Lasts 10-21 days  
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what are the 4 P's of the birth process   Power Passage passenger Psyche  
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What does APGAR test for   Activity Pulse Grimace Appearance Respiration  
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when should APGAR be done   one & 5 min after birth May be repeated at 10min  
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what score of APGAR indicates intervention   points out of 10. Below 7 indicates intervention  
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what does a score of 1 for activity in APGAR show   arms & legs extended  
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What does a score of 1 for pulse in APGAR mean   pulse above 100  
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What does a score of 1 indicate in APGAR for appearance   pink body, blue extremeties  
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what is pelvic inflammatory disease   a spectrum of inflammatory disorders of the upper female genital tract. endometriosis, salpigitis, tubo-ovarian abcess, pelvic peritonitis  
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what is acute P.I.D   sudden violent attack. often with high fever, abcess may occur  
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what is recurrent P.I.D   if untreated or not cleared. May be related to inappropraite use of antibiotics or reinfection by partner  
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What causes chronic P.I.D   when untreated or inadequate treatment causes ongoing pain.  
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what causes P.I.D   ascending spread of micro-organisms from vagina & endocervix to upper GI tract. often occurs at end or after menses  
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Define exclusive breast feeding   infant has never had any other liquid or solid foods only breast milk prescribed medicines have been given since birth  
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Define full breast feeding   within past 48 hours the infant has had BM only, no other liquids/solids, except minimal water or prescribed meds  
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Define partial breast feeding   infant taken some BM & some formula or other solids in past 48 hours  
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Define artificial feeding   infant had no BM but has had alternative liquid such as formula, with/without solid food in past 48 hours  
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what is WHO hierarchy of infant feeding   1. Breast 2. Expressed BM given in another way 3. Milk from another human mum 4. Artificial milk  
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risks of formula for infant from WHO   Decreased resistance against illnesses, Reduced cognitive development & visual acuity. Increase risk of 1 & 2 diabetes, child obesity & coeliac. Increased mortality in 1st year.long term negative impacts for heart health  
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What are the long term benefits for breast fed children (WHO)   Lower BP. Lower total cholesterol. Less likely of being overweight. less likely to get type 2 diabetes. better school performance in late adolescent or young adulthood  
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What are the benefits for mothers that breast feed. (WHO)   prevent post partum haemorrhage, breast & ovarian cancer & potentially prevent post manopausal hip fracture  
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name the benign breast diseases (6)   fibroadenoma. Fibrocystic disease. Fat necrosis. Breast abscess. Ductal papiloma. Mammary duct ectasia  
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what is fibroadenoma   smooth, hard movable lumps, not painful. common in mid 30s. AKA breast mice  
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what is fibrocystic disease   round tumors, may be multiple. common 35-45. associated with menustruation, hormonal changes, tender, larger than normal breast  
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what is fat necrosis   common in women over 50. can mimic cancer, is usually painless. Is responsive to tissue injury (MVA)  
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what is a breast abscess   often seen in breast feeding women. Staph aureus reaching breast via cracked nipple from pharynx of infant. very hot, tender & women systemically unwell. Antibiotics needed & sometimes surgical draining  
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what is ductal papiloma   benign tumor of ductal epithelium. Lump in areola region. may present as blood stained discharge, causes discomfort. Duct surgically removed [microdochectomy]  
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What is mammary duct ectasia   common 40-50. abnormal involution of breast ducts, dilated ducts, leakage & inflammatory changes, pain & nipple discharge (not bloody) and lumpiness. Lumps treated with anti inflammatory  
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what is breast cancer   a malignant area of the breast. most in milk ducts but other begin in lobules. may develop over years. Spreads to lymph nodes then commonly to lungs, bones & liver. may also spread in blood  
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what are the risk factors for breast cancer   ageing. Previous breast biopsy identifying risk. family Hx genetic factors exposure to repeated radiation obesity, weight gain after 18. alcohol intake not having kids first kid after 35. HRT, oral contraception & depo provera ovarian cancer, t  
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what are the signs of breast cancer   a new lump or thickening. Change in shape/size. Pain that is unusual. Puckering/dimpling of skin. Changes in nipple, inverted/discharge. Rash/ redness only on 1 breast  
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whats the best way to find breast cancer early   educate women, breast models to enable detection. Fine needle biopsy, mammography & ultrasound  
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what is mammography   women 45-69, every 2 years. can detect tissue changes in breast before being seen/felt. Can detect 75-90% of unsuspected cancer. Early detection does not prevent cancer.  
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what are the surgical options for breast cancer   total mastectomy& axillary node dissection or local excision of breast tumor with axillary node dissection  
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what are the treatments options, other than surgery, for breast cancer   radiotherapy to breast & axillary. Hormonal therapy & chemotherapy. counselling ect  
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breast screening in NZ   Breastscreen Aoteroa is a free national screening for 45-69years. Uses mammography to detect early breast cancer-only proven method  
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What is used for Cervical screeing   Gardisal 12-18 years vaccine. Screeing in 3 yearly intervals until age of 70 commencing at beginning of sexual activity. Colposcopy & biopsy to detect changes in cervix  
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 1   1. low grade, mild dysplasia, cells mildly abnormal, seen within 5-6mths of referral then one follow up appointment  
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 2   high grade changes or moderate dysplasia, cells moderately abnormal, seen withing 4wk of referal. 2 follow up after treatment  
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 3   high grade changes, sever dysplasia or carcinoma in situ seen within 4wk of referal. 2 follow up after treatment  
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breast screening in NZ   Breastscreen Aoteroa is a free national screening for 45-69years. Uses mammography to detect early breast cancer-only proven method  
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what is the reason for a cone biopsy of the cervix   Gardisal 12-18 years vaccine. Screeing in 3 yearly intervals until age of 70 commencing at beginning of sexual activity. Colposcopy & biopsy to detect changes in cervix  
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 1   cryotherapy- ice expands, cracks, scab breaks away away leaving healthy epithelium. Laser- local. destorys cells, strict aftercare to avoid infection. Diathermy-local. abnormal cells cut away from cervix  
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 2   high grade changes or moderate dysplasia, cells moderately abnormal, seen withing 4wk of referal. 2 follow up after treatment  
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 3   high grade changes, sever dysplasia or carcinoma in situ seen within 4wk of referal. 2 follow up after treatment  
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what is a cone biopsy   minor surgical procedure under general A when a cone shaped segment moved from cervix.  
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what are the reasons for a cone biopsy   lesions not adequately seen in coloscopy. abnormal cells in high neck of cervix unable to be reached. abnormal area developing below surface of cervix  
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treatment for abnormal cervix cells   cryotherapy-ice expands, cracks, scabs break away leaving healthy cells laser- under local. destroys cells, after care to avoid infection, minimal bleeding Diathermy- under local. abnormal cells cut away in segments  
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what are the tubal causes for infertility (14%)   inability to conceive after 12mths of unprotected intercourse aprox. affects 10-15% of couples  
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What is the difference between primary & secondary infertilty   Primary- woman never been able to conceive. Secondary- conception has taken place regardless of outcome  
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what are the 4 main causes of infertility   anovulation (no release of ovum) tubular factor/adhesions endometriosis male factors- semen abnormalities  
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what are male factors of infertility (24%)   testicular disease, orchitis (inflam. of tetes) trauma, drugs. Obstruction of ductus deferens- surgical functional cystic fibrosis Sperm antibodies  
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tubular factor affecting infertility (14%)   PID, endometriosis, surgical adhesions, bowel disease-ruptured appendix, chrons  
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what are miscellaneous factors affecting infertility   endometriosis 6% sexual dysfunction 6% cervical mucus hostility 3% unexplained infertility 27%  
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ART ( assisted reproductive therapy) options for infertility - In vitro fertilisation   indicated for tubal disease, unexplained infertility, endometriosis, male infertility, failed donor insemination or cervical hostility  
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ART ( assisted reproductive therapy) options for infertility- donor   donor oocytes used with ovarian disorder e.g early menopause  
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ART ( assisted reproductive therapy) options for infertility - Gamete intrafallopian transfer   suitable for all indications of IVF except where there may be a blockage or absent tubes. Not a common choice for ART  
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ART ( assisted reproductive therapy) options for infertility - intracytoplasmic sperm injection   used for sperm dysfunction. sperm are harvested from epidydimis or testes & injected into ovum. embryo is transferred to uterus  
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Name the types of contraception   combined pill, mini pill, depo provera, intra-uterine device, diaphragm & caps, condoms, emergency pill, fertility awareness, female sterilisation, vasectomy  
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what is endometriosis   endometrial tissue in parts of the body other than in the uterine cavity  
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what is the average age for endometriosis   20-45 Highest in 40-44  
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what are the S&S of endometriosis   worsening menstrual cramps. painful poo & diarrhoea painful sex abnormal bloating heavy bleeding stomach upset infertility  
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what are the management options for endometriosis   suppression of oestrogen levels- reduction in endometrial growth Contraception for menstruation surgery if needed  
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what is a complete miscarriage   the entire pregnancy is lost  
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what is an incomplete miscarriage   part of the pregnancy is lost. parts of the placenta & blood remain in the uterus  
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what is an inevitable miscarriage   the woman experiences bleeding, the cervix opens thus the products of contraception will be expelled  
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what is a missed abortion   the pregnancy has stopped growing, often due to an abnormal ovum, the woman will expel the products of contraception  
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what is secondary health for addictions   early detection & intervention: screening, advice, assistance programmes, media campaigns, community education programmes, stress management techniques  
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