antenatal & postnatal
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what does syntocinon do | contains oxytocin. stimulates rhythmic contraction of the womb during & after delivery
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What is konakionn for | vit.K to prevent or treat blood clotting problems
can be given in multiple tablet doses or 1 I/M
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What is ergometerine for | treatment of postpartum or postabortion haemorrhage. stimulates contraction of uterine
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what is the safety formula for baby sleeping. aids in protection from SUDI | Face up. Face clear. Smokefree
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what's the average weight of neonate | 2700-4000 grams (6-9 pounds)
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how much weight do baby's loose in the first 3-4 days and why? | 10% of their body weight. Output of meconium & urine exceeds input
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what is the average length of a newborn | 46-56cm
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what is the average chest & head circumference of a baby | chest: 30.5-33cm
Head:32-36cm (should be 2-3cm larger than chest)
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what is the normal vital signs of a new born | resp: 30-60
H/R: 120-160
Temp: 36.3-37.5
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what is the length of the umbilical cord | about the length of the baby (50cm)
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what is the purpose of hip checks | to check for congenital dislocation of the hip
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why is BGL screening important | transient physiological drop may occur in 1st 2 hours of life. screening is directed at infants at risk for pathological hypoglycaemia
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what is a serum bilirubin test | a blood test to measure levels of bile pigment in blood serum to evaluate their liver function
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what does an elevated bilirubin test suggest | accelerated RBC destruction or may indicate bilirubin is not being excreted properly
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what is TORCH/S screen for | a blood test that checks for toxoplasmosis, rubella, cytomagalovirus, herpes simplex, HIV & syphilis
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what is a guthrie test for | A blood test obtained from the heel tests for PKU a genetic disorder caused by the faulty metabolism of phenylaline.
Recommended to be obtained 48-72 hours after birth
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what are the reflexes of position & movement | Moro reflex: birth-1/3mth
Tonic neck: birth-5/7mth
Palmar grasp: birth-4mth
Babinski: birth-2yr
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what are the reflexes to sound | blinking response & turning response
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What are the reflexes of vision | blinking to threat: 6-7mth
horizontal following: 4-6wk
vertical following: 2-3mth
Postrotational nystagmus: birth
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what are the food reflexes | rooting response: birth- 3/8mth
suckling response
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what is the reflex not categorized | headlag
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what causes Rh or ABO incompatibility | if mother is Rh- and foetus is Rh+
antibodies are made by mother for foetus's antigens
ABO when mother is O & baby is A or B
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what is 'isoimmunizaton' | if foetal Rh+ blood leaks into Rh- mothers circulation her body may make antibodies to destroy the Rh+ erythrocytes
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what is the treatment for Rh incompatibility | prevent manufacture of anti-Rh-antibodies by giving Rh(D) immune globulin to the Rh- woman 28wk gestation & 72hours after birth of Rh+ baby
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what is meconium | The first stools. is made of amniotic fluid, mucus bile, and cells that have been shed from the skin and the intestinal tract
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how many stools do infants pass a day | Breastfed: 3-6/day
Bottlefed: 1-4 then reduce to 1-2/day
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what is physiological jaundice | normal jaundice due to immature liver & slow processing of bilirubin. Appears 2-4days & disappears 1-2 weeks
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what is pathological jaundice | evident in first 24hour. liver cannot handle hemolysis & bilirubin levels rise. O2 capacity of RBC diminishes
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what is kenicterus | Accumulation of bilirubin in the brain tissue. a result from bilirubin toxicity.
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what are the aims of ante-partum care | maintenance of wellness for mother & child
early detection & treatment of problems
pregnancy to term followed by healthy birth
preparation for breastfeeding
preparation for parenting
assist other family members to adapt to change
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what are the blood tests for in ante-partum care | blood group & antibodies
Full blood count
Hep B, Rubella & Syphilis
?HIV if needed
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why is folic acid needed 1 month prior to pregnancy & first 3 months in pregnancy | reduces the risk of neural tube defects
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why is iodine needed in pregnancy | As iodine is essential for normal brain development, it's important that the foetus have adequate intake. needed for thyroid hormones
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what are the presumptive signs of pregnancy | amenorrhoea, breast changes, nausea/vomiting, quickening, deepening pigmentation, urinary frequency
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what are the probable signs of pregnancy | Braxon-Hicks contractions, abdominal enlargement, ballottement, vaginal examination (Goodwells, Chadwick, Hegar & macdonald signs)
Striae graviderum & + pregnancy test
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what are the positive signs of pregnancy | fetal heart, movement & fetal parts able to be palpated. Visualization on ultrasound
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what is engorgement | when vessels enlarge around breasts. Breasts become hard & painful & baby cannot fix on
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what is chloasma | increased pigmentation of face.
A presumptive sign of pregnancy
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what is linea nigra | a line extending in the midline of abdomen from just above the umbilicus to the symphysis pubis
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what is quickening | fetal movement felt by mother. first perceived at 16-20weeks as a faint fluttering in lower abdo.
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what are braxton hicks contractions | are irregular painless, uterine contractions that begin in the 2nd trimester & become progressively noticeable as term approaches
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what are the dates for the trimesters | 1st trimester is to 12-14 weeks gestation, the 2nd trimester up to 28 weeks gestation, and the 3rd trimester is till term.
3 months each
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what is ballottement | a maneuver by which the fetal part is displaced by a light tap of a finger on the cervix and then rebounds quickly
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what are the readings for gestational hypertension | 130/90 two readings over a period of 6hours.
30 above systolic baseline & 15 above diastolic
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what are the signs of pre-eclampsia | oedema, increased BP & protein urea
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what are the main signs of worsening pre-eclampsia | complain of frontal headache
oedema around retina
egigastric pain
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what is eclampsia | cerebral oedema causes convulsions. affects circulation O2 (hypoxia of mother & baby). Placental abruption. Death. Convulsions can continue 48-72 hours after birth
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what is the treatment for eclampsia | I/V magnesium sulfate postpartum (for convulsions)
I/V hydralasine (for BP)
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what is HELLP syndrome | Heamolysis of RBC
ELevated liver enzymes
Low Platelets
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how much folic acid is needed to reduce effects of neural tube defects | 0.4mg
0.5-0.6mg for pregnant or breastfeeding
0.8mg if hx of neural tube defect
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how much blood loss is considered post partum heamorrhage | >500ml
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what can you do to help a woman with a post partum heamorrhage | stimulate fudus. becomes tight & stops bleeding.
Bladder must be empty so it can contract down
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what is DIC ( disseminated intravascular coagulation) | the proteins that control blood clotting become abnormally active. Won't return to normal until placenta is removed
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gestational diabetes and baby weight | >4kg baby tend to become diabetic
20% more than normal expected weight gain (normal 9-11kg)
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what are the signs of impending labour | braxton hicks contractions
Increased vaginal discharge
Bloody show
Rupture of membranes
Energy spurt
weight loss
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what are the mechanisms of labour | descent, engagement, flexion, internal rotation, extensions, external roataions & expulsion
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what are the 3 types of lochia | rubra, serosa, alba
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define lochia rubra | red because composed mostly of blood. Lasts for 3 days
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Define lochia serosa | pinkish because of blood & mucus content. lasts 3-10days
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define lochia alba | is mostly mucus & is clear or colourless. Lasts 10-21 days
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what are the 4 P's of the birth process | Power
Passage
passenger
Psyche
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What does APGAR test for | Activity
Pulse
Grimace
Appearance
Respiration
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when should APGAR be done | one & 5 min after birth
May be repeated at 10min
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what score of APGAR indicates intervention | points out of 10. Below 7 indicates intervention
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what does a score of 1 for activity in APGAR show | arms & legs extended
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What does a score of 1 for pulse in APGAR mean | pulse above 100
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What does a score of 1 indicate in APGAR for appearance | pink body, blue extremeties
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what is pelvic inflammatory disease | a spectrum of inflammatory disorders of the upper female genital tract. endometriosis, salpigitis, tubo-ovarian abcess, pelvic peritonitis
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what is acute P.I.D | sudden violent attack. often with high fever, abcess may occur
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what is recurrent P.I.D | if untreated or not cleared. May be related to inappropraite use of antibiotics or reinfection by partner
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What causes chronic P.I.D | when untreated or inadequate treatment causes ongoing pain.
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what causes P.I.D | ascending spread of micro-organisms from vagina & endocervix to upper GI tract. often occurs at end or after menses
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Define exclusive breast feeding | infant has never had any other liquid or solid foods only breast milk prescribed medicines have been given since birth
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Define full breast feeding | within past 48 hours the infant has had BM only, no other liquids/solids, except minimal water or prescribed meds
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Define partial breast feeding | infant taken some BM & some formula or other solids in past 48 hours
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Define artificial feeding | infant had no BM but has had alternative liquid such as formula, with/without solid food in past 48 hours
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what is WHO hierarchy of infant feeding | 1. Breast
2. Expressed BM given in another way
3. Milk from another human mum
4. Artificial milk
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risks of formula for infant from WHO | Decreased resistance against illnesses, Reduced cognitive development & visual acuity. Increase risk of 1 & 2 diabetes, child obesity & coeliac. Increased mortality in 1st year.long term negative impacts for heart health
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What are the long term benefits for breast fed children (WHO) | Lower BP. Lower total cholesterol. Less likely of being overweight. less likely to get type 2 diabetes. better school performance in late adolescent or young adulthood
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What are the benefits for mothers that breast feed. (WHO) | prevent post partum haemorrhage, breast & ovarian cancer & potentially prevent post manopausal hip fracture
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name the benign breast diseases (6) | fibroadenoma. Fibrocystic disease. Fat necrosis. Breast abscess. Ductal papiloma. Mammary duct ectasia
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what is fibroadenoma | smooth, hard movable lumps, not painful. common in mid 30s.
AKA breast mice
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what is fibrocystic disease | round tumors, may be multiple. common 35-45. associated with menustruation, hormonal changes, tender, larger than normal breast
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what is fat necrosis | common in women over 50. can mimic cancer, is usually painless. Is responsive to tissue injury (MVA)
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what is a breast abscess | often seen in breast feeding women. Staph aureus reaching breast via cracked nipple from pharynx of infant.
very hot, tender & women systemically unwell.
Antibiotics needed & sometimes surgical draining
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what is ductal papiloma | benign tumor of ductal epithelium. Lump in areola region. may present as blood stained discharge, causes discomfort. Duct surgically removed [microdochectomy]
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What is mammary duct ectasia | common 40-50. abnormal involution of breast ducts, dilated ducts, leakage & inflammatory changes, pain & nipple discharge (not bloody) and lumpiness. Lumps treated with anti inflammatory
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what is breast cancer | a malignant area of the breast. most in milk ducts but other begin in lobules. may develop over years. Spreads to lymph nodes then commonly to lungs, bones & liver. may also spread in blood
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what are the risk factors for breast cancer | ageing.
Previous breast biopsy identifying risk.
family Hx
genetic factors
exposure to repeated radiation
obesity, weight gain after 18.
alcohol intake
not having kids
first kid after 35.
HRT, oral contraception & depo provera
ovarian cancer, t
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what are the signs of breast cancer | a new lump or thickening. Change in shape/size. Pain that is unusual. Puckering/dimpling of skin. Changes in nipple, inverted/discharge. Rash/ redness only on 1 breast
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whats the best way to find breast cancer early | educate women, breast models to enable detection. Fine needle biopsy, mammography & ultrasound
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what is mammography | women 45-69, every 2 years. can detect tissue changes in breast before being seen/felt. Can detect 75-90% of unsuspected cancer.
Early detection does not prevent cancer.
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what are the surgical options for breast cancer | total mastectomy& axillary node dissection or local excision of breast tumor with axillary node dissection
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what are the treatments options, other than surgery, for breast cancer | radiotherapy to breast & axillary.
Hormonal therapy & chemotherapy.
counselling ect
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breast screening in NZ | Breastscreen Aoteroa is a free national screening for 45-69years.
Uses mammography to detect early breast cancer-only proven method
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What is used for Cervical screeing | Gardisal 12-18 years vaccine.
Screeing in 3 yearly intervals until age of 70 commencing at beginning of sexual activity.
Colposcopy & biopsy to detect changes in cervix
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 1 | 1. low grade, mild dysplasia, cells mildly abnormal, seen within 5-6mths of referral then one follow up appointment
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 2 | high grade changes or moderate dysplasia, cells moderately abnormal, seen withing 4wk of referal. 2 follow up after treatment
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 3 | high grade changes, sever dysplasia or carcinoma in situ seen within 4wk of referal. 2 follow up after treatment
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breast screening in NZ | Breastscreen Aoteroa is a free national screening for 45-69years.
Uses mammography to detect early breast cancer-only proven method
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what is the reason for a cone biopsy of the cervix | Gardisal 12-18 years vaccine.
Screeing in 3 yearly intervals until age of 70 commencing at beginning of sexual activity.
Colposcopy & biopsy to detect changes in cervix
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 1 | cryotherapy- ice expands, cracks, scab breaks away away leaving healthy epithelium.
Laser- local. destorys cells, strict aftercare to avoid infection.
Diathermy-local. abnormal cells cut away from cervix
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 2 | high grade changes or moderate dysplasia, cells moderately abnormal, seen withing 4wk of referal. 2 follow up after treatment
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Define the Cervical intraepithelial neoplasm 3 | high grade changes, sever dysplasia or carcinoma in situ seen within 4wk of referal. 2 follow up after treatment
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what is a cone biopsy | minor surgical procedure under general A when a cone shaped segment moved from cervix.
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what are the reasons for a cone biopsy | lesions not adequately seen in coloscopy.
abnormal cells in high neck of cervix unable to be reached.
abnormal area developing below surface of cervix
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treatment for abnormal cervix cells | cryotherapy-ice expands, cracks, scabs break away leaving healthy cells
laser- under local. destroys cells, after care to avoid infection, minimal bleeding
Diathermy- under local. abnormal cells cut away in segments
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what are the tubal causes for infertility (14%) | inability to conceive after 12mths of unprotected intercourse
aprox. affects 10-15% of couples
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What is the difference between primary & secondary infertilty | Primary- woman never been able to conceive.
Secondary- conception has taken place regardless of outcome
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what are the 4 main causes of infertility | anovulation (no release of ovum)
tubular factor/adhesions
endometriosis
male factors- semen abnormalities
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what are male factors of infertility (24%) | testicular disease, orchitis (inflam. of tetes) trauma, drugs.
Obstruction of ductus deferens- surgical functional cystic fibrosis
Sperm antibodies
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tubular factor affecting infertility (14%) | PID, endometriosis, surgical adhesions, bowel disease-ruptured appendix, chrons
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what are miscellaneous factors affecting infertility | endometriosis 6%
sexual dysfunction 6%
cervical mucus hostility 3%
unexplained infertility 27%
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ART ( assisted reproductive therapy) options for infertility - In vitro fertilisation | indicated for tubal disease, unexplained infertility, endometriosis, male infertility, failed donor insemination or cervical hostility
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ART ( assisted reproductive therapy) options for infertility- donor | donor oocytes used with ovarian disorder e.g early menopause
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ART ( assisted reproductive therapy) options for infertility - Gamete intrafallopian transfer | suitable for all indications of IVF except where there may be a blockage or absent tubes.
Not a common choice for ART
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ART ( assisted reproductive therapy) options for infertility - intracytoplasmic sperm injection | used for sperm dysfunction.
sperm are harvested from epidydimis or testes & injected into ovum.
embryo is transferred to uterus
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Name the types of contraception | combined pill, mini pill, depo provera, intra-uterine device, diaphragm & caps, condoms, emergency pill, fertility awareness, female sterilisation, vasectomy
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what is endometriosis | endometrial tissue in parts of the body other than in the uterine cavity
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what is the average age for endometriosis | 20-45
Highest in 40-44
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what are the S&S of endometriosis | worsening menstrual cramps.
painful poo & diarrhoea
painful sex
abnormal bloating
heavy bleeding
stomach upset
infertility
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what are the management options for endometriosis | suppression of oestrogen levels- reduction in endometrial growth
Contraception for menstruation
surgery if needed
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what is a complete miscarriage | the entire pregnancy is lost
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what is an incomplete miscarriage | part of the pregnancy is lost. parts of the placenta & blood remain in the uterus
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what is an inevitable miscarriage | the woman experiences bleeding, the cervix opens thus the products of contraception will be expelled
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what is a missed abortion | the pregnancy has stopped growing, often due to an abnormal ovum, the woman will expel the products of contraception
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what is secondary health for addictions | early detection & intervention:
screening, advice, assistance programmes, media campaigns, community education programmes, stress management techniques
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