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Pharm for Tech 11-17

Pharmacology for Technicians chapters 11 - 17

What technique is defined by the FDA as using living organisms or parts of organisms for specific purposes? A) recombinant DNA B) complementary DNA (cDNA) C) biologic-response modification D) transcription A) recombinant DNA
What determines protein activity? A)sequence of 3 amino acids is req B)Linear chains of amino acids convey protein activity. C)Twist & folding of amino acid chains into a 3D shape is req. for protein activity D)folding & refolding of amino acid ch C) Twisting and folding of amino acid chains into a three-dimensional shape is required for protein activity.
What is the first step in creating a protein, based on a specific DNA sequence? A) replication B) transcription C) translation D) opsonization A) replication
Antitumor drugs are A) most efficient when tumor cells are dividing rapidly. B) extremely toxic. C) periodicaly stopped for two to six weeks. D) all of the above D) all of the above
Which of the following is NOT a drug used to prevent nausea and vomiting resulting from chemotherapy? A) ondansetron (Zofran) B) granisetron (Kytril) C) meperidine (Demerol) D) aprepitant (Emend) E) palonosetron (Aloxi) C) meperidine (Demerol)
Which of the following drugs is produced using recombinant DNA technology? A) flutamide (Eulexin) B) cyclosporine (Sandimmune) C) aldesleukin (Proleukin) D) tamoxifen (Nolvadex) E) all of the above C) aldesleukin (Proleukin)
Which of the following drugs is given to suppress infection & increase white blood cells in patients receiving chemotherapy? A)pegfilgrastim (Neulasta) B)interferon beta-1a (Avonex) C)interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) D)dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) A)pegfilgrastim (Neulasta)
Which of the following statements about erythropoietin is true? A)produced by the kidneys B)recombinant DNA product is known as epoetin alfa. C)Erythropoietin increases production of red blood cells. D)should not be shaken E)all of the above E)all of the above
Which of the following interferons is used to treat multiple sclerosis? A) interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) B) interferon alfa-2a (Roferon A) C) interferon alfa-2b (Intron A) D) all of the above A) interferon beta-1b (Betaseron)
Which of the following drugs is a tissue plasminogen activator and is used to dissolve formed clots? A) altepase (Activase) B) dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) C) antihemophilic factor (Alphanate) D) filmgastim (Neupogen) A) altepase (Activase)
Which type of immune cells are involved in humoral immunity? A) T cells B) B cells C) small lymphocytes D) macrophages B) B cells
What is the most common immunoglobulin, making up about 80% A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM D) IgG
Which immunity process is mediated by lymphocytes and macrophages and is responsible for organ transplant rejection and hypersensitivity reactions? A) humoral B) cellular C) lymphatic D) opsonization B) cellular
Which of the following drugs is used to treat symptoms of organ rejection, although the first dose may cause severe pulmonary edema? A) muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3) B) azathioprine (Imuran) C) mycophenolate (CellCept) D) tacrolimus (Prograf A) muromonab-CD3 (Orthoclone OKT3)
Which of the following hormones is incorrectly paired with the type of cancer it is used to treat? A) abarelix (Plenaxis) -- prostate B) flutamide (Eulexin) -- breast C) triptorelin (Trelstar) -- prostate D) megestrol -- breast B) flutamide (Eulexin) -- breast
Which drug listed below is indicated for ovarian cancer, should not be used in pregnant patients, and almost always causes hair loss? A) paclitaxel (Taxol) B) cisplatin (Platinol) C) fludarabine (Fludara) D) chlorambucil (Leukeran) A) paclitaxel (Taxol)
Which of the following cytoprotective (rescue) drugs is used to reduce the side effects and toxicity of chemotherapy agents? A) amifostine (Ethyol) B) dexrazoxane (Zinecard) C) leucovorin (folinic acid) D) all of the above D) all of the above
What 2 drugs should be prescribed for patients given alemtuzumab-Campath for B-cell lymphocyticleukemia? A)aspirin/erythromycin B)clopidogrel/carbamazepine C)acyclovir-Zovirax/azithromycin-Zithromax D)diphenhydramine-Benadryl/acetaminophen-Tylenol D)diphenhydramine-Benadryl/acetaminophen-Tylenol
What drug combination, used for mucositis, is known as "Magic Swizzle"? A) phenol-sodium borate-sodium bicarbonate-glycerin B) chlorhexidine gluconate C) lidocaine-diphenhydramine-Maalox D) sodium hyaluronate-sodium thiosulfate C) lidocaine-diphenhydramine-Maalox
What drug has the National Cancer Institute recommended oncologists to prescribe to patients for no more than 5 years? A) tamoxifen (Nolvadex) B) anastrozole (Arimidex) C) fulvestrant (Faslodex) D) letrozole (Femara) E) all of the above A) tamoxifen (Nolvadex)
What organ maintains the largest stores of fat-soluble vitamins? A) small intestines B) liver C) kidneys D) spleen B) liver
What vitamin found in dairy products, liver, and fish oils is also known at retinol? A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) vitamin E D) vitamin K A) vitamin A
Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? A) vitamin A B) vitamin C C) vitamin D-3 D) vitamin E E) all of the above B) vitamin C
What is another name for vitamin B-9? A) thiamine B) riboflavin C) nicotinic acid D) pyridoxine E) folic acid E) folic acid
In contrast to two-in-ones, three-in-one TPN solutions A) are more stable and thus last longer. B) allow precipitants to be easily seen. C) may crack or oil out. D) can remain at room temperature for 48 hours. C) may crack or oil out.
What form of calcium is most commonly used in antacids? A) calcium chloride B) calcium carbonate C) calcium acetate D) calcium gluconate B) calcium carbonate
Which of the following is the leading cause of fatal poisonings in children? A) mouthwash B) antidepressants C) iron tablets D) aspirin C) iron tablets
What term describes a method in which the patient is fed through a vein? A) enteral nutrition B) total parenteral nutrition C) peroral nutrition D) none of the above B) total parenteral nutrition
What characterizes marasmus? A)due to an imbalance between protein & calorie intake & produces growth retardation B)develops rapidly, usually within 1 to 3 days C)also known as kwashiorkor. D) It can only be treated via total parenteral nutrition. A)due to an imbalance between protein & calorie intake & produces growth retardation
What is a complication associated with total parenteral nutrition (TPN)? A) acid-base imbalance B) high serum lipid concentrations C) electrolyte imbalance D) liver toxicity E) all of the above E) all of the above
Which of the following is a recommended or common addition to total parenteral nutrition mixtures? A) sodium B) vitamin B-6 C) copper D) insulin, regular E) all of the above E) all of the above
What herbal supplement, sometimes referred to as "Nature's Prozac", is used for mild-to-moderate depression? A) ginkgo B) feverfew C) St. John's wort D) saw palmetto C) St. John's wort
Which dietary supplement is incorrectly paired with its medicinal use? A) echinacea -- common cold B) chondroitin/glucosamine -- arthritis C) melatonin -- sleep D) garlic -- impotence D) garlic -- impotence
Which of the following drugs may cause tinnitus (ringing in the ear), nausea, and vomiting in children with doses greater than 150mg/kg? A) fluoxetine (Prozac) B) aspirin C) morphine D) acetaminophen (Tylenol) B) aspirin
What drug may be used to treat cholinergic agonist-induced bradycardia? A) digoxin immune Fab (Digibind) B) atropine C) naloxone (Narcan) D) penicillamine (Cuprimine) B) atropine
What reversal agent may be used to treat respiratory depression caused by an opioid (narcotic) overdose? A) edetate calcium disodium (Calcium Disodium Versenate) B) phentolamine (Regitine) C) naloxone (Narcan) D) glucagon (GlucaGen) C) naloxone (Narcan)
What is the drug of choice for treating an overdose of acetaminophen (Tylenol)? A) flumazenil (Romazicon) B) acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) C) protamine sulfate D) sodium thiosulfate (Versiclear) B) acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
How can grapefruit juice affect the pharmacological disposition of many drugs? A) It decreases their absorption. B) It alters their distribution. C) It affects their metabolism. D) It enhances their (renal) excretion. C) It affects their metabolism.
What drug is recommended by ACLS guidelines for cardiac emergencies and Code Blue carts? A) atropine B) dopamine (Intropin) C) naloxone (Narcan) D) verapamil (Isoptin) E) all of the above E) all of the above
What bioterrorism agent is derived from castor beans, inhibits protein synthesis, and has no known treatment? A) anthrax B) tularemia C) smallpox D) ricin D) ricin
Which of the following is a type of sweat gland? A) eccrine B) endocrine C) epocrine D) sebaceous A) eccrine
What is the top layer of skin known as? A) ectoderm B) endoderm C) epidermis D) none of the above C) epidermis
What term is used to describe the excessive response of the skin to sun in the presence of a sensitizing agent? A) photoreactivity B) phototoxicity C) photoconductivity D) acne B) phototoxicity
Which of the following drugs is used to treat acne vulgaris? A) tretinoin (Retin-A) B) botulinum toxin type A (Botox) C) alefacept (Amevive) D) nystatin (Mycostatin) A) tretinoin (Retin-A)
Which of the following drugs is a neurotoxin used to treat facial wrinkles? A) botulinum toxin type A (Botox) B) pimecrolimus (Elidel) C) azelaic acid (Azelex) D) tretinoin (Retin-A) A) botulinum toxin type A (Botox)
What skin condition is methotrexate, an inhibitor of normal bone marrow tissue cell growth, used to treat? A) dandruff B) acne C) psoriasis D) unwanted facial hair E) all of the above C) psoriasis
What drug is used to treat cold sores? A) docosanol (Abreva) B) imiquimod (Aldara) C) diethyl ether (Wartner) D) miconazole (Monistat) A) docosanol (Abreva)
Which of the following drugs is not used to treat fungal infections? A) butenafine (Lotrimin Ultra, Mentax) B) clotrimazole (Lotrimin) C) tolnaftate (Tinactin) D) fluorouracil (Efudex) D) fluorouracil (Efudex)
Which of the following antibiotics is available in a topical dosage form? A) clindamycin (Cleocin T) B) metronidazole (MetroGel) C) mupirocin (Bactroban) D) all of the above D) all of the above
In general, what is the maximum dosage and the number of consecutive weeks that superpotent steroids are given? A) 1 to 2 g per week; 10 weeks B) 10 to 20 g per week; 5 weeks C) 45 to 50 g per week; 2 weeks D) 100 g per week; 1 week C) 45 to 50 g per week; 2 weeks
Which of the following drugs, derived from chrysanthemums, is available OTC and is used for head lice? A) lindane B) pyrethrins (Rid Mousse) C) permethrin (Elimite, Nix) D) betamethasone dipropionate (Diprosone) B) pyrethrins (Rid Mousse)
What term defines chemicals that free objects from pathogenic organisms or render them inert? A) disinfectant B) germicide C) preservative D) sanitizer A) disinfectant
What chemical was traditionally used in the eyes of newborns to prevent gonococcal infection? A) silver nitrate B) benzalkonium chloride (Zephiran) C) benzocaine (Hurricaine) D) povidone-iodine (Betadine) A) silver nitrate
What drug applied topically for wound healing is also used as an anticonvulsant? A) phenytoin (Dilantin) B) carbamazepine (Tegretol) C) chlorhexidine gluconate (Hibiclens) D) carbamide peroxide (Gly-Oxide Oral) A) phenytoin (Dilantin)
What causes age-related macular degeneration (AMD)? A) excessive sun exposure B) adverse reaction to antibiotics C) infection D) unknown D) unknown
What drug is used to treat chronic ketatococonjunctivitis (dry eye)? A) cyclosporine (Restasis) B) loteprednol (Alrex, Lotemax) C) ketotifen (Zaditor) D) olopatadine (Patanol) E) all of the above A) cyclosporine (Restasis)
What is the most commonly occurring eye disease? A) keratoconjunctivitis (dry eye) B) cataracts C) glaucoma D) otalgia C) glaucoma
Which of the following is given orally to treat glaucoma? A) apraclonidine (Iopidine) B) betaxolol (Betoptic) C) echothiophate iodide (Phospholine Iodide) D) acetazolemide (Diamox) E) all of the above D) acetazolemide (Diamox)
Which drug used to treat glaucoma may cause light-colored eyes to turn brown? A) latanoprost (Xalatan) B) dorzolamide (Trusopt) C) apraclonidine (Iopidine) D) ketotifen (Zaditor) A) latanoprost (Xalatan)
Which of the following otic agents contains an antibiotic to fight infection & a steroid to reduce inflammation? A)ciprofloxacin-dexamethasone(Ciprodex) B)triethanolamine polypeptide-oleate condensate C)antipyrine-benzocaine D)sulfacetamide-prednis A) ciprofloxacin-dexamethasone (Ciprodex)
What large molecule is broken down by thyroid cells to produce thyroid hormones? A) triiodothyronine B) thyroxine C) thyroglobulin D) thyroid-stimulating hormone C) thyroglobulin
Which hormone listed below is not released by the pituitary gland? A) growth hormone (GH) B) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C) prolactin (PRL) D) thyroxine (T-4) D) thyroxine (T-4)
When a patient has had the thyroid surgically removed, due to cancer, for example, what is the drug of choice for chronic therapy? A)levothyroxine(Levothroid, Synthroid) B)liotrix(Thyrolar) C)methimazole(Tapazole) D)propylthiouracil E)all the ab A) levothyroxine (Levothroid, Synthroid)
Which of the following drugs or drug classes may cause male impotence? A) alcohol B) corticosteroids C) haloperidol (Haldol) D) opiates E) all of the above E) all of the above
Which of the following drugs used to treat male impotence does not act by inhibiting the enzyme phosphodiesterase? A) alprostadil (Caverject, Edex, Muse) B) sildenafil (Viagra) C) vardenafil (Levitra) D) tadalafil (Cialis) A) alprostadil (Caverject, Edex, Muse)
What is a danger of using nicotine in combination with estrogen? A) birth defects B) ineffective birth control C) increased risk of blood clots D) increased risk of breast cancer E) all of the above C) increased risk of blood clots
What is the use of progestins in women? A)birth control B)preventions uterine cancer in post-menopausal women taking hormone replacement therapy C)treating menstrual dysfunctions D)reducing the incidence of endometrial hyperplasia E)all the abov E) all of the above
Which of the following drugs is used for emergency contraception? A) ethinyl estradiol-drospirenone (Yasmin) B) levonorgestrel (Plan B) C) estradiol cypionate-medroxyprogesterone (Lunelle) D) estradiol (Estrace, Vivelle) B) levonorgestrel (Plan B)
Which of the following drugs may interact adversely with oral contraceptives? A) erythromycin B) carbamazepine C) prednisolone D) clofibrate E) all of the above E) all of the above
What is needed for calcium to get into the bone? A) vitamin A B) vitamin B C) vitamin C D) vitamin D E) vitamin E D) vitamin D
Which of the following drugs act to prevent bone loss by modulating estrogen receptors? A) alendronate (Fosamax) B) risedronate (Actonel) C) zoledronic acid (Zometa) D) raloxifene (Evista) D) raloxifene (Evista)
Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a fungus? A) syphilis B) gonorrhea C) nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) D) candidiasis D) candidiasis
Which of the following drugs is used to treat genital herpes? A) acyclovir (Zovirax) B) doxycycline (Vibramycin) C) penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin L-A) D) clotrimazole (GyneLotrimin, Mycelex) A) acyclovir (Zovirax)
Which of the following antibiotics is often the drug of choice for treating syphilis? A) penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin L-A) B) ketoconazole (Nizoral ) C) valacyclovir (Valtrex) D) azithromycin (Zithromax) A) penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin L-A)
What is not a potential adverse effect of corticosteroids? A) hypotension due to increased sodium excretion B) cataracts C) increased susceptibility to infections D) osteoporosis A) hypotension due to increased sodium excretion
What is the most common form of diabetes? A) type I B) type II C) gestational D) secondary B) type II
Which drug listed below has been shown to speed the healing of lower extremity diabetic ulcers? A) nateglinide (Starlix) B) rosiglitazone (Avandia) C) repaglinide (Prandin) D) becaplermin gel (Regranex) E) all of the above D) becaplermin gel (Regranex)
Which synthetic insulin is the longest acting? A) lispro (Humalog) B) aspart (Novolog) C) NPH (Humulin N) D) glargine (Lantus) D) glargine (Lantus)
Which of the following oral hypoglycemic agents acts by interfering with carbohydrate metabolism and glucose absorption? A) acarbose (Precose) B) pioglitazone (Actos) C) glipizide (Glucotrol) D) metformin (Glucophage) A) acarbose (Precose)
Which of the following growth hormones are recommended for use in children of short stature? A)somatrem(Protropin) B)somatropin (Humatrope) C)Both drugs are good for boys but somatrem is more effective in girls. D)Growth hormones are not recommend D) Growth hormone treatment is not recommended in this population.
What is the effect of preventing acetylcholine (ACh) destruction on skeletal muscle? A) pain B) neuromuscular anesthesia C) paralysis by fatigue D) involuntary muscle contractions C) paralysis by fatigue
Which of the following muscle relaxant acts on benzodiazepine receptors? A) dantrolene (Dantrium) B) diazepam (Valium) C) methocarbamol (Robaxin) D) orphenadrine (Norflex) B) diazepam (Valium)
Which of the following muscle relaxants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance? A) diazepam (Valium) B) carisoprodol (Soma) C) metaxalone (Skelaxin) D) baclofen (Lioresal) A) diazepam (Valium)
What substances reduce pain, fever, and inflammation? A) synovia B) salicylates C) tophi D) acetaminophen B) salicylates
What effect of nonnarcotic analgesics most commonly limits their use? A) fever B) allergic reactions C) visceral pain D) water retention E) gastrointestinal disturbances E) gastrointestinal disturbances
What is the prototype NSAID? A) acetaminophen (Tylenol) B) ibuprofen (Motrin) C) naproxen (Aleve, Naprosyn) D) aspirin (or indomethacin, Indocin for comparison) D) aspirin (or indomethacin, Indocin for comparison)
How do salicylates reduce fever? A) increasing blood flow to skin B) decreasing blood flow to skin C) increasing blood flow to hypothalamus D) decreasing blood flow to hypothalamus A) increasing blood flow to skin
What dose of aspirin (per day)may be fatal? A) 650mg B) 1 g C) 3.5 g D) 10 g D) 10 g
What patient should not take misoprostol (Cytotec), a drug sometimes used to counter the gastric irritating effects of NSAIDs? A) young children B) adolescent males C) pregnant women D) senior citizens E) all of the above C) pregnant women
Why should aspirin not be given to children? A)It may cause salicylism. B)It increases the risk of developing chicken pox. C)Reye's syndrome can develop in children who have been exposed to chicken pox D)It can cause irreversible bleeding problems. C) Reye's syndrome can develop in children who have been exposed to chicken pox.
What prostaglandin molecule, which facilitates platelet aggregation, is inhibited by low dose (81 mg-325 mg) aspirin? A) thromboxane A-2 B) prostacyclin C) PGE - 2 D) cyclooxygenase A) thromboxane A-2
What clinical effect of aspirin is also produced by acetaminophen (Tylenol)? A) fever reduction B) GI irritation C) altered platelet adhesion and bleeding D) inflammation reduction A) fever reduction
What is the most serious adverse effect associated with acetaminophen? A) kidney damage B) anaphylaxis C) liver damage D) GI bleeding C) liver damage
What form of enzyme cyclooxygenase is associated with inflammatory pain, but not with protection of the GI lining? A) COX-1 B) COX-2 C) COX-3 D) COX-4 B) COX-2
What is a laboratory test for rheumatoid arthritis? A) CBC B) ESR C) Hct D) WBC with differential B) ESR
NSAIDs can interact with which of the following drug classes? A) other NSAIDs, including aspirin B) diuretics C) oral hypoglycemics D) digoxin E) all of the above E) all of the above
When injected, a 30 mg dose of which of the following NSAIDs is as effective as 12 mg of morphine in relieving pain? A) ibuprofen (Motrin) B) indomethacin (Indocin) C) ketorolac (Toradol) D) piroxicam C) ketorolac (Toradol)
Which of the following drugs is least likely to produce GI irritation at analgesic doses? A) naproxen (Aleve) B) sulindac (Clinoril) C) aspirin D) celecoxib (Celebrex) D) celecoxib (Celebrex)
Which of the following is an example of a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? A) adalimunab (Humira) B) anakinra (Kineret) C) methotrexate (Rheumatrex) D) azathioprine (Imuran) E) all of the above E) all of the above
Which of the following drugs used to treat gout interferes with leucocytes, reducing their mobility and joint phagocytosis? A) colchicine B) indomethacin (Indocin) C) allopurinol (Zyloprim) D) sulfinpyrazone (Anturane) A) colchicine
What pacemaker cells of the heart generate a normal cardiac rhythm? A) sinoatrial (SA) node B) bundle of His (AV bundle) C) left ventricle D) chordae tendineae A) sinoatrial (SA) node
What term describes an abnormal, hyper-excitable site within the heart that becomes the dominant pacemaker? A) atrial flutter B) ectopic pacemaker C) infarct D) atrioventricular (AV) pacemaker B) ectopic pacemaker
Which of the following is a Class I or membrane stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug? A) flecainide (Tambocor) B) lidocaine (Xylocaine) C) procainamide (Pronestyl) D) quinidine E) all of the above E) all of the above
Which antiarrhythmic drug also has anticonvulsant properties? A) lidocaine (Xylocaine) B) phenytoin (Dilantin) C) propranolol (Inderal) D) diltiazem (Cardizem, Dilacor XR) E) all of the above B) phenytoin (Dilantin)
What term describes a thickening of the heart muscle in an enlarged heart? A) cardioversion B) cardiomegaly C) myocardial hypertrophy D) myocardial infarction (MI) C) myocardial hypertrophy
Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of angiotensin-converting enzyme and is used to treat congestive heart failure and hypertension? A) digoxin (Lanoxin) B) lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril) C) atropine (Atropin) D) clonidine (Catapres) B) lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
Beta blockers may be used in combination with what other drug to reduce the risk of death or recurrence following a myocardial infarction? A) digoxin (Lanoxin) B) atenolol (Tenormin) C) aspirin D) bismuth subsalicylate C) aspirin
What form of angina is characterized by coronary artery spasm? A) stable angina B) unstable angina C) variant angina D) coronospasm C) variant angina
Which of the following drug classes is not used to treat angina? A) nitrates B) beta blockers C) calcium channel blockers D) angiotensin II- receptor antagonists D) angiotensin II- receptor antagonists
What drug below is a phosphodieterase inhibitor used for IV therapy of congestive heart failure and calcium channel blocker intoxication? A) nitroprusside (Nitropress) B) digoxin immune Fab (Digibind) C) milrinone(Primacor) D) nesiritide(Natre C) milrinone (Primacor)
What does the systolic blood pressure reading represent? A) pressure during the filling of the heart B) pressure after the heart has emptied C) total peripheral resistance D) cardiac output D) cardiac output
Which of the following is a selective aldosterone antagonist used to treat hypertension? A) eplerenone (Inspra) B) losartan (Cozaar) C) minoxidil (Loniten) D) doxazosin (Cardura) A) eplerenone (Inspra)
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs binds to angiotensin II-receptors and rarely causes coughing as an adverse effect? A) valsartan (Diovan) B) benazepril (Lotensin) C) prazosin (Minipress) D) propranolol (Inderal) A) valsartan (Diovan)
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is also available in a topical form that can be used to treat baldness? A) epeprostenol (Flolan) B) terazosin (Hytrin) C) minoxidil (Loniten, Rogaine) D) propranolol (Inderal) E) none of the abo C) minoxidil (Loniten, Rogaine)
Which of the following anticoagulant drugs is available in tablet form? A) heparin B) buvalirudin (Angiomax) C) dalteparin (Fragmin) D) warfarin (Coumadin) D) warfarin (Coumadin)
Which of the antiplatelet drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody? A) abciximab (ReoPro) B) eptifibatide (Integrilin) C) tirofiban (Aggrastat) D) clopidogrel (Plavix) E) all of the above A) abciximab (ReoPro)
What class of drugs are used to dissolve clots that have already formed? A) anticoagulants B) antiplatelets C) fibrinolytic agents D) all of the above C) fibrinolytic agents
Which fibrinolytic agent below binds to fibrin, converts plasminogen to plasmin, and is incompatible with dextrose? A) streptokinase (Streptase) B) alteplase (Activase) C) tenecteplase (TNKase) D) urokinase (Abbokinase) C) tenecteplase (TNKase)
Which of the following drugs used for TIAs and stroke prevention blocks ADP receptors, reducing platelet adhesion and aggregation? A) aspirin B) clopidogrel (Plavix) C) pentoxifylline (Trental) D) dipyridamole (Persantine) B) clopidogrel (Plavix)
Diuretics help to lower blood pressure by A) reducing preload B) increasing preload C) reducing afterload D) increasing afterload A) reducing preload
What term is used to describe the working units of the kidneys? A) glomeruli B) renin C) nephrons D) filtrons C) nephrons
What do the kidneys regulate? A) blood plasma volume B) concentration of waste products in the blood C) plasma acid-base balance D) electrolyte concentrations E) all of the above E) all of the above
Which of the following should a patient undergoing dialysis NOT take? A) multivitamins B) iron pills C) antacids D) aspirin E) laxatives C) antacids
What is the clinical syndrome resulting from renal dysfunction called? A) dialysis B) uremia C) acute renal failure D) interstitial nephritis B) uremia
During what stage of renal failure does the patient require chronic dialysis? A) loss of renal reserve B) renal insufficiency C) chronic renal failure D) end-stage renal disease D) end-stage renal disease
What is a goal of renal therapy? A) reestablishing an appropriate intravascular volume B) restricting fluids in volume-overload patients C) treating underlying fluid, electrolyte, or pH problems D) all of the above D) all of the above
What hormone is diminished in patients with anemia due to renal failure? A) hematocrit B) erythropoietin C) pyridoxine D) renin B) erythropoietin
Which drug below causes immature red blood cells (reticulocytes) to be released from bone marrow into the bloodstream? A) epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit) B) pyridoxine (vitamin B-6) C) levocarnitine (Carnitor) D) cinacalcet (Sensipar) A) epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit)
What drug is an amino acid derivative and is a cofactor needed for the transformation of long-chain fatty acids? A) ergocalciferol B) epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit) C) sevelamer (Renagel) D) levocarnitine (Carnitor) D) levocarnitine (Carnitor)
Which of the following drugs used for renal disease may be given by mouth? A) cinacalcet (Sensipar) B) epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit) C) iron sucrose (Venofer) D) darbepoetin alfa (Aranesp) E) all of the above A) cinacalcet (Sensipar)
Which of the following drugs may be used to prevent rejection in kidney transplant patients? A) epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit) B) cyclosporine (Sandimmune) C) oxybutynin (Ditropan) D) tolterodine (Detrol) B) cyclosporine (Sandimmune)
What is the first oral therapy for interstitial cystitis? A) bethanechol (Urecholine) B) methenamine (Cystex, Hiprex, Urex) C) pentosan polysulfate sodium (Elmiron) D) mycophenolic acid (Myfortic) C) pentosan polysulfate sodium (Elmiron)
Which of the following agents for urinary tract problems is available OTC? A) flavoxate (Urispas) B) oxybutynin (Ditropan) C) tolterodine (Detrol) D) phenazopyridine (Azo-Standard, Uristat) E) All of the above D) phenazopyridine (Azo-Standard, Uristat)
What antibiotic (or combination) may be used to treat urinary tract infections (UTIs)? A) amoxicillin (Amoxil, Trimox) B) amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) C) ciprofloxacin (Cipro) D) nitrofurantoin (Macrobid, Macrodantin) E) all of the a E) all of the above
When taking which of the following antibiotics (or combinations) should sunscreen be used? A)amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) B)sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim, Cotrim, Septra) C)amoxicillin (Trimox) D)finasteride (Proscar) E)all the a B) sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim, Cotrim, Septra)
What class of drugs is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? A) alpha-adrenergic blockers B) beta-1 adrenergic agonists C) histamine (H-1) blockers D) penicillins E) all of the above A) alpha-adrenergic blockers
What drug is often given in combination with flutamide (Eulexin) to treat BPH? A) leuprolide (Eligard, Lupron Depot, Viadur) B) nilutamide (Nilandron) C) alfuzosin (Uroxatral) D) Flutamide should never be used in combination with other drugs. A) leuprolide (Eligard, Lupron Depot, Viadur)
Who should never handle crushed tablets of finasteride (Propecia, Proscar)? A) adolescents B) pregnant women C) men with BPH D) children B) pregnant women
What is the only osmotic diuretic on the market? A) furosemide (Lasix) B) hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix) C) mannitol (Osmitrol) D) spironolactone (Aldactone) C) mannitol (Osmitrol)
What is an example of a "loop" diuretic? A) furosemide (Lasix) B) triamterene (Dyrenium) C) goserelin (Zoladex) D) methenamine (Cystex, Hiprex, Urex) A) furosemide (Lasix)
Created by: sesmith61



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