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Block 4


When using a table saw, feeding stock, what must be used? A push stick
Lumber stored in tiers will be: Stacked, blocked and interlocked
Qualified operators who have been TRAINED and issued a qualified operators card will be permitted to use which tools? Powder-actuated tools
Chicken ladders or crawling boards will have the cleats spaced at intervals not to exceed how many inches? 24 inches
Who will be consulted for evaluation of the need for respiratory protection, during masonry operations? Installation BE
Scaffolds with wheels constructed on the base section will not be used unless _____ are intact and at least ______ on each side is locked to prevent movement. All wheels; 1 wheel
Never be any closer than how many feet to electrical power lines? 10 feet
Tests and certification of cranes and hoists will be by ___. Experienced, qualified inspectors
Certification, inspection, and test reports will be available on the premises where the crane or hoise is located or ___. In the supervisors office.
Only personnel designated as qualified by the ____ shall be permitted to operate cranes. Supervisor
What will be stenciled or otherwise plainly marked on all jacks and hoists? Load ratings
Flammable wastes wuch as oily rags, steel wool, sweepings, and excelsior will be contained in what type of containers? Self closing metal containers.
Two-wheeled hand trucks will be parked in what type of position? Upright
Pallet loads will be stacked with how much clearance on all sides to prevent dislocation of adjacent stacks? 2 inches
Corner markings must be not less than ___ high and ___ wide and colored with alternating yellow/black diagonal stripes ___ wide. 30"high and 24”wide; 3-5” wide.
What type of lighting will not be used in flammable storage areas? Fluorescent lighting
How much clearance will be maintained between stacks and sprinklers when stacks are less than 15’ high? 18 inches
Stacks will not be located within how many inches of light and/or heat fixtures? 18 inches
Flammable liquids are defined as: A liquid with a closed cup flash point below 100F
Combustible liquids are defined as: A liquid with a closed up flash point above 100F
Facilities located within how many feet of another building must have a blank wall? 50 feet
Facilities with a blank wall must also possess a fire rating of how many hours? 2 hours
What type of lighting will be used on all electrical equipment and wiring in storage rooms/buildings? Spark proof, explosion proof, electrical fixtures
How many personnel will work together when energized high voltage circuits are exposed? 2
Personnel whose normal daily job exposes them to energized circuits will receive what training? CPR, shock management, care of persons with open wounds or burns
CPR training must be accomplished with in how many days of assignment? 30 days
High Voltage is how many volts or greater? 600 volts
Vehicle or mechanical equipment with elevated structures will not operate within how many feet of overhead power lines? 10ft
The 3 primary phases of a POL operation are: Fuel storage, fuel servicing, fuels laboratory
Who is responsible for making the initial notification to predetermined support agencies of adverse weather conditions? Base weather station
Refueling vehicles should not be parked within how many feet of inhabited buildings? 100ft
Fuel servicing Safety Zone is an area within_____feet of a pressurized fuel carrying servicing component, and_____ feet around aircraft fuel vent outlets? 50ft; 25ft
When will fueling/de-fueling operations cease? Aircraft being serviced is in the beam of high-powered radar, the radio on the aircraft is in operation, if a spill/leak develops, or aircraft engine running intrudes.
Fuel servicing will not commence when lighting is within how many nautical miles? 5nm
The maximum quantity of test fuel in the lab will be how many gallons? 10gal
All lab equipment will be_____when in use? Grounded and Bonded
In addition to AFOSH, hospitals are required to be in compliance with: Pertinent federal regulations, consensus standards, centers for disease control, EPA, and JCAHO
A failure of a JCAHO inspection can mean a loss of what? Accreditation
The assigned qualified safety person or the appointed safety monitor will be responsible for the internal hospital safety program is who? Plant manager
Which type of extension cords are prohibited in any patient care areas? TWO-wire cords
Who will receive job safety training? All personnel
“Wet areas” will be equipped with what? GFCI’s
Supervisors will ensure all machines are given a thorough inspection at least every_____days? 60 days
Walk in refrigerators/cold storerooms must be equipped with at least_____door that can be opened from_____. One door; from the inside
A confined space is a space that: Large enough for a worker to enter and work, limited entry and exit, is not designed for continuous human occupancy.
Who assists the functional managers and commanders in developing and administering confinded space programs? Confined Space Program Team (CSPT)
Who coordinates the installation confined space program? Chief of Ground Safety
Who leads the installation Confined Space Program Team? Chief of Ground Safety
Who provides rescue support for confined space entries according to local agreements? Installation Fire Chief
Who ensures a written confined space program is developed? Commanders/functional managers
Who serves as a member or designates a representative to the CSPT for management of confined spaces within the functional manager’s control and assist in the development of the MEPs? Commanders/functional managers
Maintain the organizational MEP, issues entry permits consistent with the MEP, and revokes the permit and contacts SEG when any entry conditions are not consistent with the MEP? Entry supervisor
Who maintains an accurate accounting of entrants in the permit space? Confined space attendants
Entry supervisors will ensure workers enter a permit-required confined space ONLY after an AF IMT_____or an approved entry permit which contains the minimum requirements of the AF permit has been obtained. AF IMT 1024
All master entry plans shall be reviewed by the organizational representative at least how often? Annually
Non-permit confined spaces shall be reviewed at least_____,to ensure conditions have not changed which could result in a potential for hazards and a change in confined space classification Annually
In what sequence will atmospheric testing be performed? OFTEN: Oxygen, Flammable, Toxic
What is the preferred method of rescue? Self-rescue
Whenever workers will perform hot riveting, welding, cutting or burning, or heating operations within a confined space, they will obtain what form from the Fire Dept? AF IMT 592
What is the preferred method to control the accidental release of stored energy from equipment? Lockout/ Tagout
LO/TO procedures shall only be performed by whom? Certified supervisors and operators
Where a lock cannot be used due to design of equipment, tags with a minimum of how many pounds of unlocking strength shall be attached? 50 lbs
Training will be certified and documented, will be kept up to date, and documented on which AF Form? Form 55
When does LO/TO retraining occur? Annually or a change in the job, equipment or LO/TO procedures
LO/TO program inspection will be conducted at least_____by_____. Annually by SEG
A documented,__self inspection will be conducted by the__ to ensure comp. with all program elements and will include the ID of machines and equip. and a review of each person’s resp. ensuring all necessary training has been conducted and documented. Periodic; unit
Substances, mistures, or compounds are categorized as either: Corrosives, explosives, flammables, or toxic
Explosives are: substances, mixtures, or compounds that can enter into a combustion reaction so rapidly and violently that they can cause an explosion
Corrosives can destroy: living tissue
Flammable liquids are those liquids with a flash point of: below 100F
Combustible liquids are those with a flash point of: 100F or above
What are the different modes of entry into the body? Ingestion, Absorption, Inhalation, and Injection
The two major causes of occupation dermatitis are: predisposing and direct
Threshold Limit Value is: A time weighted average concentration under which most people can work consistently for 8 hours a day, day after day, with no harmful effects.
Threshold Limit Value-Time Weighted Average is: the time weighted average concentration for a normal 8-hour day or 40-hour workweek to which nearly all workers may be repeatedly exposed without adverse reaction or effect (8/40)
Threshold Limit Value-Short Term Exposure Limit is: the maximum concentration to which workers can be exposed for up to 15 minutes continuously (4 times in one 8 hour day- must be at least 60 minutes between exposures)
Threshold Limit Value-Ceiling is: the concentration level that should never be exceeded at any time
Locations are divided into ____ and ____. Classes and divisions
Division 1 locations are designated as such because: a flammable gas, vapor, dust, or easily ignitable material is normally present in hazardous quantities
Division 2 locations are designated as such because: the existence of hazardous quantities of these materials is not normal but they occasionally exist, either accidentally or when material in a storage is handled
Who must develop fire prevention regulations to meet their specific needs? Each base
There are four classifications of fires; what are they? Class A-involves wood, paper, and/or rags Class B-involves flammable liquids/vapors,ect. Class C-involves electrical equipment (energized) Class D-involves combustible metals
True/False Signs are intended for use as a management control of hazards and can be used as a substitution for safe work practices. False
Green signifies what? Safety & first aid equipment
Red signifies what? Fire prevention equipment/danger and/or stop
Standard coloring of piping reduces what? The chance of error in identification by workers
Bands should completely encircle the pipe and may be _______ inches wide. 8 to 32 in.
Operators will be trained in: The proper operation, safety procedures, cleaning, hazard recognition, and emergency shutdown procedures for each machine or piece of equipment they are to use
Supervisors and operators will receive training on: LO/TO procedures
What type of guard may be moved or reconfigured to allow for different types of production, such as different sizes of stock or raw materials? Adjustable guard
Who is responsible for the procurement of the proper types of guarding and for ensuring the proper guarding is in place for each piece of machinery? Management
Operator’s inspection shall be conducted when? Prior to the start of each shift, following a new setup, or when operators change
When work is performed from the scaffold, what shall be secured? Footing and anchorage
Scaffolds and their components will be capable of supporting at least how many times the maximum intended load? 4 times
Scaffold guarding will consist of the following parts: A guardrail of 2-by 4-inch lumber or equivalent material installed at as height of 36 to 42 inches above the platform
What is the primary hazard associated with the use of portable ladders? Falls
Extra heavy duty IA = 300lbs
Heavy duty 1= 250lbs
Medium duty II= 225lbs
Light duty III= 200lbs
Which type of ladder should not be procured for industrial use? TypeIII, light duty
Metal and metal-reinforced ladders used for electrical hazards shall be marked with: “Danger—do not use around electrical equipment”
Place straight and extension-type ladders in a position to have at least _____ foot of slope for each _____ foot of ladder length. 1ft slope; 4ft of ladder length
A formal, full documented inspection of all fixed ladders will be accomplished upon installation and at least every _____ years thereafter. 3yrs
What are three common methods of protection for those who work in excavation and trenching? Shoring, sloping, and benching
True/False Dirt bands 5 feet or more in depth require worker protection. True
Tools, equipment, and excavated material will be kept _____ or more from the lip of the trench. 2ft
Workers within trenches must have an adequate means of exit and should not have to travel more than ______ of travel. 25ft
Inspections of lifting devices must be accomplished how often? Daily, before each use & annually
In addition to initial training and certification, a qualified instructor shall evaluate each operator at least once every _____ years and provide refresher training in relevant topics anytime there is reason to believe there is a need. 3yrs
Forks will not be elevated more than _____ above the ground surface. 6 in.
OSHA defines ergonomics as: Designing the job to fit the worker
What are the goals of ergonomics? Increased productivity, safety, health, and job satisfaction
Ergonomic factors include: Environmental and physical
Sprains account for approximately _____ of the lost time injuries in the Air Force. 30%
Who must train personnel who regularly perform manual lifting duties? Supervisors
Training will be documented IAW which AFI? AFI 91-301
There are three basic methods of lifting. What are they? Strait back bent knees Freestyle Kinetic
When must personnel perform equipment inspections? Prior to each use and daily
A comprehensive training plan must be established and the training must be documented. Where can training be annotated? AF For 55’s or 623’s
What type of equipment will be used indoors, ideally? Electric or battery powered
Whenever it becomes necessary to perform required tasks where a worker can fall __________, fall protection will be used. 4 ft. or more
The two common systems for fall protection are: Fall arrest and fall restraint
Anchorage for lanyards that tie off one worker will be capable of supporting at least how many pounds? 5000
Lanyards, D-rings, locking snap-hooks, and all components of a fall arrest system will also be capable of sustaining a minimum tensile load of _____ pounds. 5000
Who acts as the central focal point and local expert on matters relating to RFR hazards and bio-effects? BE
Who will investigate all alleged or suspected overexposure? BE
Who will work closely with BE in investigating RFR incidents and provide medical surveillance feedback to BE? Public Health
Who will prepare and distribute AF Form 190 for all incidents of alleged personnel overexposure to RFR? Public Health
Whose responsibility is it to provide and document initial and refresher training to all personnel? Supervisors
Who should review unit RFR safety training materials and attendance records during their annual industrial hygiene visits? BE
Who is the program facilitator for Laser safety program? BE
What are the classifications for lasers? 1-Non-hazardous 2-Visible Laser; Aversion Response will protect 3a-Eye hazard with optical aides 3b-Eye hazard, some skin at high power 4-Eye hazard, skin hazard, fire hazard, diffuse reflection hazard
What is the main organ of concern? The eye
Upon notification of a suspected exposure, who will promptly investigate the incident or accident? BE
Who is required to establish a written Exposure Control Plan designed to eliminate or minimize employee exposure? Each Employer
The Exposure Control Plan shall be reviewed and updated at least ______ and whenever necessary to reflect new or modified tasks and procedures which affect occupation al exposure and to reflect new or revised employee positions with occupational exposure. Annually
Created by: SEG



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