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According to the AAPD, by what age should a child be taken for his her first dental visit:
A. 3mos
B. 6mos
C. 12mos
D. 24mos
A. 3mos
B. 6mos
C. 12mos
D. 24mos
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Anticipatory guidance during the infant oral health visit should include :
A. Oral development & diet/nutrition counseling
B. Caries control & genetic predisposition
C. Oral health & financial implications.
D. Medical & social hx
A. Oral development & diet/nutrition counseling
B. Caries control & genetic predisposition
C. Oral health & financial implications.
D. Medical & social hx
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QE Review
QE MCQs - 100
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| According to the AAPD, by what age should a child be taken for his her first dental visit: A. 3mos B. 6mos C. 12mos D. 24mos | C. 12mos Handbook p2 "Professional intervention within six months after the eruption of the fi rst primary tooth or no later than 12 months of age" |
| Anticipatory guidance during the infant oral health visit should include : A. Oral development & diet/nutrition counseling B. Caries control & genetic predisposition C. Oral health & financial implications. D. Medical & social hx | A. Oral development and diet/nutrition counseling Handbook p4 |
| According to the AAPD Guidelines Supplemental Fluoride Dosage Schedule, a 3-year old child with multiple carious teeth, living in a community with .5 ppm fluoride should be Rx'dd what dose of supplemental fluoride? A. None B. 0.25 mg C. 0.50 mg D. 1.0 | B. 0.25mg * although if not hi risk, consider 00 supplementation Handbook p143 Reference p58 |
| What is the active ingredient in topical fluoride varnish? A. Sodium fluoride B. Stannous fluoride C. Acidulated phosphate fluoride D. Monofluorophosphate | A. Sodium fluoride Reference p57 |
| Enamel calcification of a maxillary permanent central incisor crown is usually completed by what age? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years | D. 4 years starts @ 3-4IU, completes 4-5m, root 10y |
| What is the material of choice for direct pulp cap in permanent teeth? A. Zinc oxide-eugenol B. Zinc phosphate C. Glass ionomer D. Calcium hydroxide | D. Calcium hydroxide ** GIC, MTA CRPD p250 |
| Which of the following materials should not be used under composite resin restorations? A. Calcium hydroxide B. Zinc phosphate C. Zinc oxide-eugenol D. Glass ionomer | C. Zinc oxide-eugenol Eugenol interferes w/resin bonding Ref (???) |
| Success of formocresol in pulp treatment of primary teeth is related to what two properties? A. Germicidal and fixative B. Healing and fixative C. Bacteriostatic and fixative D. Calcific bridging and fixative | A. Germicidal and fixative |
| Of the following food and beverage sweeteners, which is the LEAST cariogenic? A. Fructose B. Xylitol C. Dextrose D. Lactose | B. Xylitol |
| At what age would the presence of any smooth surface caries be defined as Severe Early Childhood Caries (S-ECC)? A. 36 months B. 48 months C. 60 months D. 71 months | A. 36 months |
| Using the AAPD Caries-Risk Assessment (CAT), what would be the caries risk of a caries-free, 5 year old patient with Down Syndrome who lives in an affluent community? A. High risk B. Moderate risk C. Low risk D. Insufficient information | C. Low Risk |
| For patients with an electrical burn to the mouth, when should an oral appliance be inserted to prevent contracture? A. W/i 24h post injury B. W/i 7 dd post injury C. 10-14d post injury D. 21-28d post injury | B. W/i 7 dd post injury |
| What is a common problem occurring within the first several hours to the first few days of an electrical burn to the mouth? A. Adhesion B. Hemorrhage C. Contracture D. Infection | D. Infection |
| Localized enamel hypoplasia ( Turner’s Hypoplasia) noted on a mandubular permanent central incisor of a 6yo most likely resulted from an insult to enamel development of the permanent tooth at what age? A. 3 – 9mos B. 19 – 24mos C. 36 – 48mos D. 60mos | B. 19 - 24 mos |
| What fraction of a normal radiographic exposure time should be used to maximize visualization of the soft tissue of the lower lip to locate a tooth fragment? A. 1/8 B. ¼ C. ½ D. ¾ | B. ¼ = 1/4 |
| Which of the following injuries to permanent teeth has the poorest prognosis? A. Complicated enamel and dentin fracture B. Lateral luxation C. Intrusion D. Subluxation | b. Lateral luxation |
| Which is TRUE wrt sealants? A. The highest rate of failure occurs w/i 6 mos B. GI's have a retention rate similar to resin-based sealants. C. Reapplication has no effect on sealant retention. D. Bonding agents have no effect on sealant retention. | A. The highest rate of failure occurs w/i 6 mos |
| Which of the following properties of calcium hydroxide contribute to its antibacterial effect? A. Low pH and low solubility B. Low pH and high solubility C. High pH and high solubility D. High pH and low solubility | C. High pH and high solubility |
| What is the material of choice for a partial pulpotomy (Cvek pulpotomy) in a traumatically injured tooth? A. Formocresol B. Glutaraldehyde C. Calcium hydroxide D. Ferric sulfate | C. Calcium Hydroxide |
| Which is TRUE regarding the Cvek pulpotomy for a traumatically injured tooth? A. Procedure can be delayed until the next day if necessary. B. Procedure must be done w/i few hours of the injury. C. Pulpectomy to avoid necrosis risk D. No pulp removed | A. Procedure can be delayed until the next day if necessary. |
| Which of the following is the goal of apexification of a permanent tooth? A. Continued root development B. Formation of a cementoid barrier C. Increase dentinal wall deposition D. Retain vitality in the apical part of the tooth. | B. Formation of a cementoid barrier |
| Which of the following is the BEST transport medium for an avulsed permanent tooth? A. Milk B. Water C. Cell transport media (Hank’s Balance Solution) D. Topical fluoride rinse | C. Cell transport media (Hank’s Balance Solution) |
| According to the AAPD Guidelines what is the appropriate length of time for flexible splinting of an avulsed permanent incisor? A. 1 – 2 days B. 1 week C. 3 – 4 weeks D. 6 – 8 weeks | B. 1 week |
| What is the responsibility of the pediatric dentist who suspects child abuse? A. Interrogate the child B. Interrogate the parents C. Report the abuse to child protective services D. Provide proof that abuse occurred. | C. Report the abuse to child protective services |
| Which of the following is likely indicator of child abuse? A. Bruising of the forehead in a toddler. B. Torn frenum of a toddler C. Bruising of the shins of a toddler. D. Presentation of injury which is not consistent with the parental explanation | D. Presentation of injury which is not consistent with the parental explanation |
| Which is true about ankylosed primaries? A. Ankylosed primaries rarely exfoliate normally. B. Early ankylosis of 2nd primary molars is more disruptive to normal occlusion than ankylosis of 1st primary molars. C.Ankylosed primaries result in long-term p | C. Ankylosed primary teeth usually result in long-term periodontal defects. |
| The primary mechanism of osteogenesis in the bony structures of the cranium, maxilla & the body of the mandible is through which of the following bone formation? A. Endochondral B. Intramembranous C. Intersititial D. Hyalinization | B. Intramembranous bone formation |
| The average leeway space in each separate quadrant of the mandibular arch is one of the following dimensions. Which is the CORRECT leeway space per lower quadrant? A. -1.7 mm B. + 0.7 mm C. +1.7 mm D. +2.7 mm | C. +1.7 mm |
| The MOST frequently encountered skeletal dysplasia related to malocclusions in U.S. school children involves which of the following descriptive patterns? A. Max prognathism B. Max retrognathia C. Mand prognathism D. Mand retrognathia | D. Mandibular retrognathia |
| In calculating the % of children falling in to the various Angle classification descriptors, Class II, Division 1 malocclusions comprise approximately what percentage of U.S. youth in epidemiological surveys? A. 2 % B. 5% C. 15 % D. 25% | C. About 15 % |
| The GREATEST amount of space loss would probably occur with the loss of the maxillary ...? A. D prior to 6-year molar eruption. B. E prior to 6 eruption. C. D after 6 eruption D. Loss of the max E after 6 eruption | B. Loss of the maxillary E prior to 6 year molar eruption. |
| The average change in mandibular intercanine arch width s/b anticipated in the transition from the a 5yo to a teenager? A. A dec of about -2 - 4mm. B. A dec about -1 mm - 0 change. C. An inc of about +2 - 3 mm. D. An inc of about +4 - 6 mm. | C. An increase of about +2 to 3 mm. |
| During transition of the maxillary incisors at 7 to 8 years of age, one would expect maxillary intercanine arch width to change how much in the average child? A. Decrease 2 to 4 mm B. Increase 2 to 4 mm C. Increase 4 to 6 mm D. No change. | C. Increase 4 to 6 mm |
| The average arch length change in each lower quadrant during late mesial shift of the 6's would be on the order of how many mm? A. Increase of 2 - 4mm B. No change C. Decrease of -2 - 3mm D. Decrease of -4 - 6mm | C. Decrease of -2 - 3mm |
| What percentage of posterior crossbite in school-age children exhibit a functional shift of the mandible as a component of the crossbite pattern? A. 10-20% B. 30-40% C. 60-70% D. 80 plus % | D. 80 plus % |
| The diagnostic test for cystic fibrosis is based on the quantitative analysis of what material? A. CPK B. Alkaline phosphatase C. Sweat chloride D. Blood glucose | C. Sweat chloride |
| What does the underlying pathology of cystic fibrosis involve? A. Endocrine glands B. Exocrine glands C. Bronchial constriction D. Cholelithiasis | B. Exocrine glands |
| What procedure is recommended in patients with cystic fibrosis and emphysema? A. Conscious sedation B. Narcotic analgesia C. Nitrous oxide/oxygen analgesia D. Upright seating during dental treatment | D. Upright seating during dental treatment |
| Identify a common oral finding associated with cystic fibrosis? A. Increased dental caries B. Increased periodontal disease C. Anterior open-bite malocclusion D. Early loss of primary teeth | C. Anterior open-bite malocclusion |
| What is the dental anomaly that may be characterized by an unusually large tooth, a single radicular canal and single coronal pulpal chamber? A. Concrescence B. Gemination C. Fusion D. Holoprosencephaly | B. Gemination |
| What form of histiocytosis X (Langerhans cell disease) MOST frequently occurs in children during the first year of life? A. Eosinophilic granuloma B. Letterer-Siwe C. Hand-Schuler-Christian D. Polyostotic histiocytosis X | B. Letterer-Siwe |
| What is the MOST common form of histiocytosis X? A. Eosinophilic granuloma B. Letterer-Siwe C. Hand-Schuler-Christian D. Polyostotic histiocytosis X | D. Polyostotic histiocytosis X |
| Which form of histiocytosis X has the WORST prognosis? A. Eosinophilic granuloma B. Letterer-Siwe C. Hand-Schuler-Christian D. Polyostotic histiocytosis X | B. Letterer-Siwe |
| What is the MOST variable component of the Robin Sequence? A. Micrognathia B. Glossoptosis C. Cleft palate D. Ear deformities | D. Ear deformities |
| What type of cancer are children with Down syndrome MOST predisposed? A. Liver B. Pancreatic C. Leukemia D. Neuroblastoma | C. Leukemia |
| Where are the lesions that are characteristic of herpangina typically located? A. Buccal mucosa B. Hard palate C. Oropharynx D. Sublingual | C. Oropharynx |
| Patients w/hereditary hypophosphatemic rickets exhibit: A. Multiple dental abscesses B. Calcific pulp chambers of reduced size C. Normal dentin formation w/abnormal enamel morphology D. Def. cementum leading to early tooth loss | A. Multiple dental abscesses not associated with caries or trauma hereditary hypophosphatemic rickets = (vitamin D resistant rickets) |
| What is the MOST common type of pediatric leukemia? A. Acute lymphocytic B. Acute non-lymphoblastic C. Chronic myeloblastic D. Acute myeloblastic | A. Acute lymphocytic |
| In the child with leukemia, what is the clinical significance of granulocytopenia? A. Prolonged bleeding B. Anemia C. Inability to fight infection D. Engorgement of tissues with immature white blood cells | C. Inability to fight infection |
| What is an example of radiation-induced maxillofacial abnormality? A. Gingival hyperplasia B. Accelerated bony growth C. Xerostomia D. Enlarged salivary glands | C. Xerostomia |
| What factor MOST often correlates with the amount of overgrowth in a child who demonstrates phenytoin induced gingival hyperplasia? A. Poor oral hygiene B. Phenytoin dosage C. Age of the child D. Classification of seizure | A. Poor oral hygiene |
| Which of the following medications are associated with gingival overgrowth? A. Phenytoin and cyclosporine B. Cyclosporine and erythromycin C. Phenytoin and clonidine D. Nifedipine and albuterol | A. Phenytoin and cyclosporine |
| What dental characteristic is associated with a patient diagnosed with Down syndrome? A. High caries rate B. High incidence of periodontal disease C. Early loss of primary teeth D. Class II malocclusion | B. High incidence of periodontal disease |
| What is a common problem of occlusal development in adolescent sickle cell disease patients? A. Posterior crossbite B. Ectopic eruption C. Protrusive maxilla D. Impacted canines | C. Protrusive maxilla |
| What do inclusion cysts (Epstein’s pearls) clustered at the midpalatal raphe in infants contain? A. Epithelial cells B. Ectopoic remnants of the dental lamina C. Mucous gland remnants D. Osteocytes | A. Epithelial cells |
| What is the MOST common primary malignant bone tumor of childhood? A. Wilm’s tumor B. Ewing’s sarcoma C. Osteogenic sarcoma D. Rhabdomyosarcoma | C. Osteogenic sarcoma |
| Under what circumstance should antibiotic prophylaxis be given to a child on chemotherapy who requires emergency dental treatment? A. ANC is 500/mm3 B. WBC is 2000/mm3 C. Platelet count is 20,000/mm3 D. Patient has a central venous catheter | D. Patient has a central venous catheter (per Dr. Patel, it should really be all of the above) |
| What is an example of a long term complication of chemotherapy in a developing child? A. Supernumary teeth B. Agenesis of teeth C. Ankylosed teeth D. Delayed primary teeth exfoliation | B. Agenesis of teeth |
| What is the cause of Factor VIII inhibitor development? A. Folate deficiency during pregnancy B. Malabsorption of Vitamin B12 C. Antibody to the factor D. Peripheral platelet function abnormality | C. Antibody to the factor |
| A GA pt experiences malignant hyperthermia. Name the signs & symptoms A. Laryngospasm, bradycardia, rise in temp B. Muscle rigidity, bradycardia, sudden rise CO2 C. Masseter spasm, tachycardia, sudden rise CO2 D. Laryngospasm, tachycardia, rise in t | C. Masseter spasm, tachycardia, sudden increase CO2 |
| What two commonly used agents in anesthesia are MOST likely to cause malignant hyperthermia? A. Nitrous oxide, lidocaine B. Halothane, succinylcholine C. Lidocaine, halothane D. Succinylcholine, lidocaine | B. Halothane, succinylcholine |
| 80. What drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia? A. Succinylcholine B. Diazepam C. Epinephrine D. Dantrolene | D. Dantrolene |
| 81. What is the recommended oral dose range of acetaminophen for a 30 lb (13.6 kg) child for postoperative discomfort? A. 68 – 136 mg B. 136 – 204 mg C. 204 – 272 mg D. 272 – 340 mg | B. 136 – 204 mg |
| The MOST appropriate action to take immediately when a pt experiences a seizure in the chair: A. Place the patient on the floor B. Keep the patient from biting the tongue C. Call the local paramedics D. Discontinue treatment and recline the patient | D. Discontinue treatment and recline the patient |
| A cardinal sign of subacute bacterial endocarditis in a susceptible child. A. Acute abdominal distress B. Fever of unknown origin C. Acute chest pain D. Apnea | B. Fever of unknown origin |
| Which of the following BEST defines asthma? A. Acute inflammation of the airway B. Acute allergic response C. Chronic disease of the respiratory tract D. Chronic inflammatory allergic condition | D. Chronic inflammatory allergic condition |
| What is the MOST common factor which can lead to hypoxemia during sedation? A. Drug overdose B. Airway obstruction C. Medical condition which compromises the patient’s oxygenation D. Cyanosis | B. Airway obstruction |
| In which of the following conditions can nitrous oxide produce an undesirable side effect? A. Acute otitis media B. Hepatitis C. Hyperthyroidism D. Neuromuscular disorders | A. Acute otitis media |
| A DISADVANTAGE of nitrous oxide? A. It is a weak agent which may be ineffective in highly anxious children. B. Has an irritating effect on the upper airway. C. Can produce post-op nightmares. D. Cant be safely used w/pharmacological mood altering dr | A. It is a weak agent which may be ineffective in highly anxious children. |
| 91. Which BEST describes respiratory compromise in a young child during sedation? A. Respiration rate <10/min B. Heart rate of 180 beats per minute C. Oxygen saturation of 96% D. Agitation and struggling in a papoose board | A. Respiration rate <10/min |
| 92. What anatomic structure is PRIMARILY responsible for upper airway obstruction in the sedated child? A. Tongue B. Mandible C. Hypertrophied adenoids D. Epiglottis | A. Tongue |
| 95. According to the AAPD sedation guidelines, what is the MINIMUM number of personnel required for managing a child who exhibits a level of deep sedation? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four | C. Three CRPD p123 Personnel needed for Minimal and Moderate Sedation, 2. Only Deep sedation needs 3. Monitors: Minimal=intermitt observe, Mod=O2Sat, HR, intermit BP,RR, Deep O2Sat, HR, BP+RR q5min |
| 97. How much of the upper arm MUST a blood pressure cuff cover to obtain accurate readings? A. ¼ - ½ B. ½ - 2/3 C. 2/3 – ¾ D. ¾ - entire upper arm | B. 1/2 - 2/3 |
| 98. What is the INITIAL drug of choice in the management of anaphylaxis? A. Diphenhydramine B. Epinephrine C. Physostigmine D. Anectine | B. Epinephrine |
| 100. Which of the following local anesthetic agents has the LONGEST duration of soft tissue action? A. Lidocaine B. Carbocaine C. Procaine D. Bupivacaine | D. Bupivacaine (Marcaine) |
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