QE MCQs - 100
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| According to the AAPD, by what age should a child be taken for his her first dental visit: A. 3mos B. 6mos C. 12mos D. 24mos | show 🗑
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| Anticipatory guidance during the infant oral health visit should include : A. Oral development & diet/nutrition counseling B. Caries control & genetic predisposition C. Oral health & financial implications. D. Medical & social hx | show 🗑
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| According to the AAPD Guidelines Supplemental Fluoride Dosage Schedule, a 3-year old child with multiple carious teeth, living in a community with .5 ppm fluoride should be Rx'dd what dose of supplemental fluoride? A. None B. 0.25 mg C. 0.50 mg D. 1.0 | show 🗑
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| What is the active ingredient in topical fluoride varnish? A. Sodium fluoride B. Stannous fluoride C. Acidulated phosphate fluoride D. Monofluorophosphate | show 🗑
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| Enamel calcification of a maxillary permanent central incisor crown is usually completed by what age? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years | show 🗑
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| show | D. Calcium hydroxide
** GIC, MTA
CRPD p250
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| show | C. Zinc oxide-eugenol
Eugenol interferes w/resin bonding
Ref (???)
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| Success of formocresol in pulp treatment of primary teeth is related to what two properties? A. Germicidal and fixative B. Healing and fixative C. Bacteriostatic and fixative D. Calcific bridging and fixative | show 🗑
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| show | B. Xylitol
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| At what age would the presence of any smooth surface caries be defined as Severe Early Childhood Caries (S-ECC)? A. 36 months B. 48 months C. 60 months D. 71 months | show 🗑
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| Using the AAPD Caries-Risk Assessment (CAT), what would be the caries risk of a caries-free, 5 year old patient with Down Syndrome who lives in an affluent community? A. High risk B. Moderate risk C. Low risk D. Insufficient information | show 🗑
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| For patients with an electrical burn to the mouth, when should an oral appliance be inserted to prevent contracture? A. W/i 24h post injury B. W/i 7 dd post injury C. 10-14d post injury D. 21-28d post injury | show 🗑
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| show | D. Infection
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| Localized enamel hypoplasia ( Turner’s Hypoplasia) noted on a mandubular permanent central incisor of a 6yo most likely resulted from an insult to enamel development of the permanent tooth at what age? A. 3 – 9mos B. 19 – 24mos C. 36 – 48mos D. 60mos | show 🗑
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| show | B. ¼ = 1/4
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| Which of the following injuries to permanent teeth has the poorest prognosis? A. Complicated enamel and dentin fracture B. Lateral luxation C. Intrusion D. Subluxation | show 🗑
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| show | A. The highest rate of failure occurs w/i 6 mos
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| Which of the following properties of calcium hydroxide contribute to its antibacterial effect? A. Low pH and low solubility B. Low pH and high solubility C. High pH and high solubility D. High pH and low solubility | show 🗑
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| show | C. Calcium Hydroxide
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| show | A. Procedure can be delayed until the next day if necessary.
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| Which of the following is the goal of apexification of a permanent tooth? A. Continued root development B. Formation of a cementoid barrier C. Increase dentinal wall deposition D. Retain vitality in the apical part of the tooth. | show 🗑
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| Which of the following is the BEST transport medium for an avulsed permanent tooth? A. Milk B. Water C. Cell transport media (Hank’s Balance Solution) D. Topical fluoride rinse | show 🗑
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| According to the AAPD Guidelines what is the appropriate length of time for flexible splinting of an avulsed permanent incisor? A. 1 – 2 days B. 1 week C. 3 – 4 weeks D. 6 – 8 weeks | show 🗑
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| What is the responsibility of the pediatric dentist who suspects child abuse? A. Interrogate the child B. Interrogate the parents C. Report the abuse to child protective services D. Provide proof that abuse occurred. | show 🗑
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| Which of the following is likely indicator of child abuse? A. Bruising of the forehead in a toddler. B. Torn frenum of a toddler C. Bruising of the shins of a toddler. D. Presentation of injury which is not consistent with the parental explanation | show 🗑
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| show | C. Ankylosed primary teeth usually result in long-term periodontal defects.
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| show | B. Intramembranous bone formation
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| show | C. +1.7 mm
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| The MOST frequently encountered skeletal dysplasia related to malocclusions in U.S. school children involves which of the following descriptive patterns? A. Max prognathism B. Max retrognathia C. Mand prognathism D. Mand retrognathia | show 🗑
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| In calculating the % of children falling in to the various Angle classification descriptors, Class II, Division 1 malocclusions comprise approximately what percentage of U.S. youth in epidemiological surveys? A. 2 % B. 5% C. 15 % D. 25% | show 🗑
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| The GREATEST amount of space loss would probably occur with the loss of the maxillary ...? A. D prior to 6-year molar eruption. B. E prior to 6 eruption. C. D after 6 eruption D. Loss of the max E after 6 eruption | show 🗑
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| show | C. An increase of about +2 to 3 mm.
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| show | C. Increase 4 to 6 mm
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| The average arch length change in each lower quadrant during late mesial shift of the 6's would be on the order of how many mm? A. Increase of 2 - 4mm B. No change C. Decrease of -2 - 3mm D. Decrease of -4 - 6mm | show 🗑
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| show | D. 80 plus %
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| show | C. Sweat chloride
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| What does the underlying pathology of cystic fibrosis involve? A. Endocrine glands B. Exocrine glands C. Bronchial constriction D. Cholelithiasis | show 🗑
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| show | D. Upright seating during dental treatment
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| Identify a common oral finding associated with cystic fibrosis? A. Increased dental caries B. Increased periodontal disease C. Anterior open-bite malocclusion D. Early loss of primary teeth | show 🗑
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| What is the dental anomaly that may be characterized by an unusually large tooth, a single radicular canal and single coronal pulpal chamber? A. Concrescence B. Gemination C. Fusion D. Holoprosencephaly | show 🗑
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| What form of histiocytosis X (Langerhans cell disease) MOST frequently occurs in children during the first year of life? A. Eosinophilic granuloma B. Letterer-Siwe C. Hand-Schuler-Christian D. Polyostotic histiocytosis X | show 🗑
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| show | D. Polyostotic histiocytosis X
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| Which form of histiocytosis X has the WORST prognosis? A. Eosinophilic granuloma B. Letterer-Siwe C. Hand-Schuler-Christian D. Polyostotic histiocytosis X | show 🗑
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| show | D. Ear deformities
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| show | C. Leukemia
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| Where are the lesions that are characteristic of herpangina typically located? A. Buccal mucosa B. Hard palate C. Oropharynx D. Sublingual | show 🗑
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| Patients w/hereditary hypophosphatemic rickets exhibit: A. Multiple dental abscesses B. Calcific pulp chambers of reduced size C. Normal dentin formation w/abnormal enamel morphology D. Def. cementum leading to early tooth loss | show 🗑
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| show | A. Acute lymphocytic
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| show | C. Inability to fight infection
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| What is an example of radiation-induced maxillofacial abnormality? A. Gingival hyperplasia B. Accelerated bony growth C. Xerostomia D. Enlarged salivary glands | show 🗑
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| What factor MOST often correlates with the amount of overgrowth in a child who demonstrates phenytoin induced gingival hyperplasia? A. Poor oral hygiene B. Phenytoin dosage C. Age of the child D. Classification of seizure | show 🗑
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| Which of the following medications are associated with gingival overgrowth? A. Phenytoin and cyclosporine B. Cyclosporine and erythromycin C. Phenytoin and clonidine D. Nifedipine and albuterol | show 🗑
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| What dental characteristic is associated with a patient diagnosed with Down syndrome? A. High caries rate B. High incidence of periodontal disease C. Early loss of primary teeth D. Class II malocclusion | show 🗑
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| show | C. Protrusive maxilla
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| show | A. Epithelial cells
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| What is the MOST common primary malignant bone tumor of childhood? A. Wilm’s tumor B. Ewing’s sarcoma C. Osteogenic sarcoma D. Rhabdomyosarcoma | show 🗑
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| Under what circumstance should antibiotic prophylaxis be given to a child on chemotherapy who requires emergency dental treatment? A. ANC is 500/mm3 B. WBC is 2000/mm3 C. Platelet count is 20,000/mm3 D. Patient has a central venous catheter | show 🗑
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| What is an example of a long term complication of chemotherapy in a developing child? A. Supernumary teeth B. Agenesis of teeth C. Ankylosed teeth D. Delayed primary teeth exfoliation | show 🗑
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| show | C. Antibody to the factor
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| A GA pt experiences malignant hyperthermia. Name the signs & symptoms A. Laryngospasm, bradycardia, rise in temp B. Muscle rigidity, bradycardia, sudden rise CO2 C. Masseter spasm, tachycardia, sudden rise CO2 D. Laryngospasm, tachycardia, rise in t | show 🗑
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| show | B. Halothane, succinylcholine
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| 80. What drug is used to treat malignant hyperthermia? A. Succinylcholine B. Diazepam C. Epinephrine D. Dantrolene | show 🗑
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| show | B. 136 – 204 mg
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| show | D. Discontinue treatment and recline the patient
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| show | B. Fever of unknown origin
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| show | D. Chronic inflammatory allergic condition
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| show | B. Airway obstruction
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| In which of the following conditions can nitrous oxide produce an undesirable side effect? A. Acute otitis media B. Hepatitis C. Hyperthyroidism D. Neuromuscular disorders | show 🗑
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| show | A. It is a weak agent which may be ineffective in highly anxious children.
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| show | A. Respiration rate <10/min
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| show | A. Tongue
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| 95. According to the AAPD sedation guidelines, what is the MINIMUM number of personnel required for managing a child who exhibits a level of deep sedation? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four | show 🗑
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| show | B. 1/2 - 2/3
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| 98. What is the INITIAL drug of choice in the management of anaphylaxis? A. Diphenhydramine B. Epinephrine C. Physostigmine D. Anectine | show 🗑
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| show | D. Bupivacaine (Marcaine)
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