used to stain Corynebacterium spp

used to stain all types of bacteria, living or dead

used to stain Mycobacterium spp.

the temperature at which most medically important fungi grow well

too hot for pathogenic bacteria to grow

too cold for pathogenic bacteria to grow.

a bacterium that is obligated to grow without oxygen and is killed when exposed to oxygen

a bacterium that grows only in the presence of oxygen and a capnophilic bacterium grows only in the presence of 5% to 10% carbon dioxide.

A gram-negative bacterium’s ability to ferment this sugar is the first step in its identification.

Lactose; The most common media used for gram negatives allow for the differentiation into lactose fermenters and nonlactose fermenters.

These are enzymes that cut the bacterial DNA at specific locations.

Restriction enzymes allow a bacteria to cut a place in its genome and insert specific sequences of foreign DNA. The resulting fragments are also used by researchers to identify identical genomes. Bacteriophage enzymes do not cut the host bacteria DNA.

The nuclear membrane in prokaryotes is:

Missing; Nuclear membranes are never impenetrable because mRNA templates must be able to pass out of the nucleus into the endoplasmic reticulum. The cellular membrane is a lipid bilayer. A classic membrane is a vague term that is not very descriptive.

What enables the microbiologist to select the correct media for primary culture and optimize the chance of isolating a pathogenic organism?

Understanding the growth requirements of a particular bacterium

based on biochemical test results

based on serologic test results

The function of a cell wall is to:

Provide rigidity and strength to the exterior of the cell.

regulates the transport of macromolecules in and out of the cell

provides energy to the eukaryotic cell.

What is the purpose of a capsule?

Act as a virulence factor in helping the pathogen evade phagocytosis

a relationship where two organisms live together and their association benefits both organisms.

organisms that live off a host and harm the host.

the organism that provides the nutrients to the other organisms

microorganisms that inhabit the body sites of healthy individuals.

A biological relationship in which one species gains benefits at the expense of the host.

those in which a host does not show symptoms of a disease, but can infect other hosts with pathogenic organisms

An opportunistic infection

occur when the host has changes in body chemistry associated with age, disease states, and drug or antibiotic effects.

Mechanisms used by the skin to prevent infection and protect the underlying tissue from invasion by potential pathogens include all the following EXCEPT:

Antibiotics that inhibit many microorganisms

A laboratory professional is testing a new antimicrobial soap. The tech washes her forearm, then does a culture of the skin. Which organisms should she expect to find growing in the culture?

S. epidermidis and Propionibacterium

Diphtheroids are found:

in moist areas such as the axillae and toes

resident flora of the oropharynx and is an opportunistic pathogen.

H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, and N. meningitides

all potential pathogenic organisms and are not considered opportunistic pathogens.

The stomach can be considered the first line of defense against microbial infections because:

Most microorganisms are susceptible to the acid pH of the stomach.

the space between the internal organs and the abdominal wall--a normally sterile space

The human body is constantly challenged by pathogens in the environment. It is not infected by every pathogen it encounters because the microbial flora:

Produce conditions at the microenvironmental level that block colonization.

An iatrogenic infection occurs

the result of medical treatment or procedure

A parasitic infection occurs

when an organism invades a host and only the organism benefits from the biological relationship.

An opportunistic infection occurs

when the condition of the host changes and resident flora cause an infection.

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Clin Microbio tests

Old test

Question	Answer
The three basic shapes of bacteria include all the following EXCEPT:	Cell-wall deficient;Cell-wall deficient is not one of the basic shapes of bacteria. It refers to the cell wall composition, not the bacterial shape
What stain is used to stain medically important fungi?	Lactophenol cotton blue;
Methylene blue	used to stain Corynebacterium spp
acridine orange	used to stain all types of bacteria, living or dead
acid-fast	used to stain Mycobacterium spp.
Some bacteria grow at 25° C or 42° C, but diagnostic laboratories routinely grow pathogenic bacteria at what temperature?	35° C
30° C	the temperature at which most medically important fungi grow well
60° C	too hot for pathogenic bacteria to grow
10°	too cold for pathogenic bacteria to grow.
These bacteria cannot grow in the presence of oxygen.	Obligate anaerobe
Obligate anaerobe	a bacterium that is obligated to grow without oxygen and is killed when exposed to oxygen
obligate aerobe	a bacterium that grows only in the presence of oxygen and a capnophilic bacterium grows only in the presence of 5% to 10% carbon dioxide.
A gram-negative bacterium’s ability to ferment this sugar is the first step in its identification.	Lactose; The most common media used for gram negatives allow for the differentiation into lactose fermenters and nonlactose fermenters.
These are enzymes that cut the bacterial DNA at specific locations.	Restriction enzymes allow a bacteria to cut a place in its genome and insert specific sequences of foreign DNA. The resulting fragments are also used by researchers to identify identical genomes. Bacteriophage enzymes do not cut the host bacteria DNA.
Prokaryotic cells have the following organelle in their cytoplasm:	Ribosome
The nuclear membrane in prokaryotes is:	Missing; Nuclear membranes are never impenetrable because mRNA templates must be able to pass out of the nucleus into the endoplasmic reticulum. The cellular membrane is a lipid bilayer. A classic membrane is a vague term that is not very descriptive.
What enables the microbiologist to select the correct media for primary culture and optimize the chance of isolating a pathogenic organism?	Understanding the growth requirements of a particular bacterium
Bacterial species that exhibit phenotypic differences are considered:	Subspecies
Biovarieties	based on biochemical test results
serovarieties	based on serologic test results
The function of a cell wall is to:	Provide rigidity and strength to the exterior of the cell.
plasma membrane	regulates the transport of macromolecules in and out of the cell
mitochondria	provides energy to the eukaryotic cell.
What is the purpose of a capsule?	Act as a virulence factor in helping the pathogen evade phagocytosis
Organisms that take place in a biological relationship where both benefit from one another are called:	Symbionts
Symbiosis	a relationship where two organisms live together and their association benefits both organisms.
Parasites	organisms that live off a host and harm the host.
host	the organism that provides the nutrients to the other organisms
Flora	microorganisms that inhabit the body sites of healthy individuals.
Parasitism is:	A biological relationship in which one species gains benefits at the expense of the host.
This state occurs when a host sheds a disease-causing organism, but does not show signs of disease.	Carrier
Carrier	those in which a host does not show symptoms of a disease, but can infect other hosts with pathogenic organisms
Diabetics may sometimes be infected with their own resident flora. This type of infection is called:	An opportunistic infection
An opportunistic infection	occur when the host has changes in body chemistry associated with age, disease states, and drug or antibiotic effects.
Mechanisms used by the skin to prevent infection and protect the underlying tissue from invasion by potential pathogens include all the following EXCEPT:	Antibiotics that inhibit many microorganisms
A laboratory professional is testing a new antimicrobial soap. The tech washes her forearm, then does a culture of the skin. Which organisms should she expect to find growing in the culture?	S. epidermidis and Propionibacterium
Diphtheroids are found:	in moist areas such as the axillae and toes
Propionibacterium colonizes	deep sebaceous glands
All the following pathogenic organisms may be found in the nasopharynx of healthy individuals EXCEPT:	Moraxella catarrhalis
M. catarrhalis	resident flora of the oropharynx and is an opportunistic pathogen.
H. influenzae, S. pneumoniae, and N. meningitides	all potential pathogenic organisms and are not considered opportunistic pathogens.
The stomach can be considered the first line of defense against microbial infections because:	Most microorganisms are susceptible to the acid pH of the stomach.
After perforation of the colon, surgeons must guard against infection in the _____ because of leakage of the contents of the colon.	Peritoneal cavity
Peritoneal cavity	the space between the internal organs and the abdominal wall--a normally sterile space
The human body is constantly challenged by pathogens in the environment. It is not infected by every pathogen it encounters because the microbial flora:	Produce conditions at the microenvironmental level that block colonization.
The ability of an organism to produce disease in a susceptible individual is called:	Pathogenicity
An iatrogenic infection occurs	the result of medical treatment or procedure
A parasitic infection occurs	when an organism invades a host and only the organism benefits from the biological relationship.
An opportunistic infection occurs	when the condition of the host changes and resident flora cause an infection.
A patient with an indwelling catheter develops a fever and lethargy. In addition, the urine in the catheter bag has turned a brownish color and is foul smelling, which indicates an infection. What type of infection does this describe?	Iatrogenic
The most common bacterial characteristic that allows for evasion of phagocytosis by the host is:	Polysaccharide capsule
Lancefield deals with	classifying b-hemolytic streptococci on the basis of antigens found on their outer covering
Hemolysins are	produced by streptococci, and these lyse red blood cells.
Adhesins are	cell-surface structures that mediate attachment to other cells
The Panton-Valentine leukocidin is	lethal to leukocytes and contributes to the invasiveness of staphylococci.
The effects of endotoxins consist of dramatic changes in all the following EXCEPT:	Fluid imbalance
The effects of endotoxins consist of dramatic changes	An increase in body temperature, Severe hypotension, intravascular coagulation
Lysozyme is:	A low-molecular-weight enzyme that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls
Exotoxins	are produced by bacteria and toxic to the host.
Antibodies	are produced only the lymphocytes.
This class of antibodies is a pentamer.	IgM
This class of antibodies is a monomer	IgG and IgE
This class of antibodies is a dimer	IgA
Quality control is	hose measures designed to ensure the medical reliability of lab data
Actual laboratory testing is called a(n):	Analytic activity
Preanalytic activity	what happens before a lab test is run.
Postanalytic activity	what happens after a lab test is run.
All of the following activities will directly affect the quality of a laboratory test EXCEPT:	Accreditation
Accreditation	a peer review of the policies and procedures of a laboratory that may indirectly affect the quality of a laboratory test.
In January 2004, (JCAHO) implemented performance measurements for organizational systems that are critical to patient safety, quality of care, treatment, and services. This new initiative is called	Shared visions--new pathway
Thermometers used in the laboratory must be calibrated before they are put into use. This is accomplished by:	Checking against an NIST thermometer
Preventive maintenance on an instrument includes all the following EXCEPT:	Disinfecting the surface of the instrument
Media that do not need to be retested by the hospital laboratory must still undergo observation for all of the following EXCEPT:	Organism colony characteristics
When a medium needs to be quality controlled because it was prepared “in-house” or because it is complex, all the following rules must be followed EXCEPT:	Only media not specified in Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines should be tested.
When a medium needs to be quality controlled because it was prepared “in-house” or because it is complex, all the following rules	All in-house media must be tested for pH, sterility, and positive and negative reacting organisms, that is, if a medium should inhibit a specific organism or group of organisms, it should be tested with those organisms to ensure it “works.”
Media that do not need to be retested by the hospital laboratory must still undergo observation for all of the following	When a laboratory is not required to retest prepared media, it still must observe media for moisture, sterility, breakage, and appearance.
All of the following reagents that should undergo quality control in the microbiology laboratory include all the following EXCEPT:	Sudan IV stains only
Antimicrobial susceptibility is hard to control because many of the same species of organisms have a varied susceptibility to particular antibiotics. To reduce this variation, Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) guidelines recommend	Use specific strains from American Type Culture Collection (ATCC)
How can personnel competency be determined?	Proficiency testing
Quality control stock cultures are available from all of the following EXCEPT:	Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Popular media choices for maintaining stock cultures include:	TSA deeps
All the following are components of JCAHO recommendations for establishing performance monitors EXCEPT:	Do
All the following are components of JCAHO recommendations for establishing performance monitors	The components of the recommendations are plan, design, measure, and assess.
What is benchmarking?	Seeking an industry’s or profession’s best practices to imitate and improve
An iatrogenic infection is one that is:	one that is acquired in a healthcare setting.
Nosocomial infections are:	acquired in the community are called community-acquired infections and include places like prisons and schools
An outbreak occurs when:	Numbers of isolates or infection rates increase above the baseline
An index case is:	The first case described in an outbreak
Swarming is:	A hazy blanket of growth on the surface of the agar that extends way beyond the streak lines
Organisms that swarms	Proteus mirabilis and P. vulgaris, gram-negative and motile
When making slides of thin materials such as urine and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF):	Mark the area of the sample drop on the reverse side with a wax pencil, then place a drop of the specimen into the marked area.
Why should laboratory professionals look for contamination of a specimen by normal microbial flora?	Contamination of specimens with normal flora that is not collected from sterile sites diminishes the value of the culture studies.
To inoculate triple sugar iron (TSI) agar or Kligler’s iron agar (KIA), the laboratory scientist should pick a well-isolated colony with an inoculating needle and:	Stab the butt almost all the way to the bottom of the tube, then move the needle back and forth over the surface of the slant all the way to the top of the tube.
If a bacterium utilizes lactose and/or sucrose and produces H2S, what will the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction look like?	Acid/acid, black butt
Other sugars that can be used by bacteria to produce energy for glucose include all of the following EXCEPT:	Sucralose
Examples of sugars used to differentiate bacteria	lactose, maltose, rhamnose, sucrose, raffinose, arabinose, adonitol, dulcitol, mannitol, and sorbitol.
A tech is reading the biochemical tests for identifying a particular gram-negative rod. The organism has produced acid, indicated by a color change, in the closed tube only. This indicates that the organism is:	A fermenter
The initial screening of gram-negative rods is done by testing for the utilization of this carbohydrate.	Lactose
In the microbiology laboratory, this instrument is routinely used to examine smears for structures that are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.	Compound microscope
cytocentrifuge	makes monolayer smears from specimens
thermal cycler	carries out DNA amplification.
electron microscope	a specialized piece of equipment available in some laboratories for viewing special specimens
The purpose of transport media is to:	Not to promote the multiplication of microorganisms, but ensure their preservation.
A safe method of transporting aspirated material would be in:	An anaerobic transport system
What is the mechanism of action of the glycopeptides (vancomycin and teicoplanin)?	The glycopeptides bind to the substrate of the transpeptidation enzyme and disrupt the cell membrane construction.
Glycopeptides	bind to the substrate of the transpeptidation enzyme while penicillins bind to the enzyme mediating the transpeptidation reaction.
If a bacteria fermented glucose only and utilized peptones, what would the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction be?	Alkaline/acid
These antibiotics affect the DNA replication by targeting topoisomerases II and IV, enzymes considered important in controlling DNA replication. What is this antibiotic?	Quinolones
Quinolones	disrupt the DNA replication cycle of bacteria by targeting topoisomerases II and IV.
A cytocentrifuge is an excellent method for preparing nonviscous fluids because:	It deposits cellular elements and microorganisms from the specimen onto the surface of a glass slide as a monolayer.
A sputum specimen, they know that the upper respiratory tract contains many indigenous organisms and to identify every organism in the culture would be a time-consuming, cost-prohibitive, and insurmountable task. So the microbiologist must:	Differentiate the potential pathogens from the “usual” inhabitants of the upper respiratory tract and direct the diagnostic work-up only to potential pathogens.
The members of the macrolide class of antibiotics include all the following EXCEPT:	Rifamycin
All of the following are signs of acute inflammation on a bacterial smear EXCEPT:	Mucus
All of the following are signs of acute inflammation on a bacterial smear	Red blood cells, neutrophils, protein background, and necrosis are all signs of acute inflammation on a bacterial smear.
Bacteria can utilize carbohydrates by:	Oxidation
Oxidation	when the bacteria metabolize the carbohydrate aerobically, through the Embden-Meyerhof pathway.
The biochemical pathway that the methyl red test is confirming is:	Glucose to pyruvic acid to mixed acid fermentation
The decarboxylase tests determine:	Whether the bacteria possess enzymes capable of removing the carboxyl group of specific amino acids in the test medium
All of the following steps should be used to prepare a smear from thick, granular, or mucoid materials EXCEPT:	Take an additional swab and rub it back and forth on the two glass slides to ensure the material is thin enough to read once it is stained.
Specimens such as blood, bone marrow, and synovium are mixed with anticoagulants right after collection. Why should this occur?	Organisms become bound up in the clotted material and are difficult to isolate.
By looking at a bacterial smear, how can you tell if the infection is polymicrobial?	More than one morphologic type of bacteria are present on the smear
polymicrobial infection	more than one morphologic type of organism on the smear, not only bacteria
The specimen of choice for detecting gastrointestinal pathogens is a:	A stool specimen
When examining specimen smears for pathogenic bacteria, this is important to note.	Intracellular and extracellular forms
When performing the oxidative/fermentative (O/F) test, one tube is covered with mineral oil and one tube is left uncovered. Why is one tube covered with mineral oil?	To create a anaerobic (fermentative) environment
A technician is reading a vaginal culture. She sees the very white colonies that are g-hemolytic on a blood agar plate, but appear to have feet. What organism could this possibly be?	Yeast
The chemical reaction for the Ortho-Nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test is:	O-nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside is oxidized into acetoin and glucose
Some bacteria are asaccharolytic. This means that these bacteria:	Do not utilize any carbohydrate; instead they use other organic molecules for energy and carbon sources; do not use Embden-Meyerhof and Entner-Doudoroff metabolic pathways
Because cell wall-damaged bacteria, antibiotic-treated bacteria, or dead bacteria may appear falsely gram-negative, what are “critical cocharacteristics?”	Shape and size
The direct microscopic examination of infected materials, along with specimen site and historical information, may suggest modifications in routine culture techniques to allow the isolation of a suspected pathogen. Modifications BUT	Changing the amount of humidity in the incubator
modifications in routine culture techniques to allow the isolation of a suspected pathogen. Modifications can include all of the following	The options for increasing isolation chances include ordering other culture tests, adding special media, changing incubation temperature or atmosphere, or changing incubation time.
When a microbiologist sets up a biochemical identification using a commercial system on a suspected pathogen from a culture, she/he must:	Correlate colony characteristics with the suspected identification of the organism.
What is the most common causative agent of urethritis?	Neisseria gonorrhea
Streptococcus pneumoniae common caused infection	pneumonia
Sta. aureus common caused infection	abscesses or pyodermas
H. influenzae common caused infection	tracheobronchitis or meningitis in infants
C. perfringens common caused infection	gas gangrene
Nocardia spp. common caused infection	lung abscesses, and gonococcal urethritis
A specimen that is spread on a smear and appears to have a homogenous constitution is said to:	Have material spread evenly throughout the slide
The outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria is composed of:	Lipopolysaccharides, phospholipids, and porin proteins
Penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, and carbapenems all have this ring in their structure that is responsible for inhibiting the transpeptidation reaction, resulting in bacterial lysis and cell death. What is the name of the ring?	b-Lactam
Plate reading is:	A comparative examination of bacteria growing on a variety of culture media
What is the most common causative agent of pyoderma?	Staphylococcus aureus
A technician is reading stool culture plates. She is looking for enteric pathogens on the MacConkey (MAC) plate. What do they look like?	Clear, colorless colonies
MAC is used to differentiate	lactose fermenters (bright pink) from lactose nonfermenters (clear, colorless).
If a bacterium utilizes lactose and/or sucrose, what will the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction look like?	Acid/acid
All the following cells reflect chronic inflammation EXCEPT:	Neutrophils
A technician is reading stool culture plates. She sees an organism that has a dry, pink colony with a surrounding “halo” of pink on MacConkey (MAC). What is a good presumptive identification of this organism?	Escherichia/Citrobacter-like organism
Enteric pathogens are	nonlactose fermenters, so they would not produce a pink colony
H. influenzae is	fastidious and does not grow on MAC.
Klebsiella/Enterobacter-like organisms	produce large, mucoid, pink colonies that occasionally have cream-colored centers.
Escherichia/Citrobacter-like organisms	produce a dry, pink colony with a surrounding “halo” of pink.
A sputum culture on the bench. There is growth on the BAP and CHOC plates, but no growth on the MAC plate. The colonies growing on the BAP have discolored the media to a green color around and under the colonies. What organism could this be?	Streptococcus pneumoniae
The members of the polypeptide class of antibiotics include all the following EXCEPT:	Oxycycline
“gram-negative bacillus, small and pleomorphic” implies what bacteria as the infecting agent?	Haemophilus influenzae
The purpose of a simple stain is to:	Color the forms and shapes present.
Why is a clean-catch midstream urine used for a urine culture as opposed to a clean-catch urine?	The first portion of the urine flow washes contaminants from the urethra and the next portion of urine is more representative of the bladder.
What role does the laboratory play in antibiotic selection if the physician has already treated the patient before receiving the culture results?	The physician expects the laboratory to affirm or reject the antibiotic choice made after the presumptive diagnosis.
When a laboratory professional examines a specimen smear, he/she should be looking for all of the following EXCEPT:	Mucus
Why should the laboratory professional look for unexpected structures in smears?	Large granules, grains, or fungal forms, such as spherules or fungal mats can best be recognized at low power and give the tech and the physician an insight to the infectious process occurring at that site.
A technician is reading stool culture plates. She sees an organism that has a large, mucoid pink colony on MacConkey (MAC). What is a good presumptive identification of this organism?	Klebsiella/Enterobacter-like organism
Klebsiella/Enterobacter-like organism on MAC	organisms produce large, mucoid, pink colonies that occasionally have cream-colored centers.
Escherichia/Citrobacter-like organisms on MAC	produce a dry, pink colony with a surrounding “halo” of pink.
H. influenzae on MAC	fastidious and does not grow on MAC.
Enteric pathogens on MAC	nonlactose fermenters, so they would not produce a pink colony
These two classes of antibiotics allow initiation and mRNA translation to begin, but act by inhibiting peptide elongation.	Macrolides and tetracyclines
a-Hemolysis is:	Partial lysing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony
a-Hemolysis appearance	green discolorization of the media due to the partial destruction of the red blood cells around and under the colony
b-hemolysis apperance	Complete clearing of erythrocytes in blood agar around and under the colony
g-Hemolysis apperance	no hemolysis, where the organism has no lytic effect on the erythrocytes in the blood agar
During this process, glucose enters the glycolysis pathway, resulting in the formation of pyruvic acid, which is further oxidized to other acids. What is this process called?	Fermentation
Oxidative/fermentative (O/F) basal medium is a medium that will test the oxidative and fermentative capabilities of a microbe. The pH indicator is _____	Bromthymol blue
Nucleic acid assays are based on the _____ of the organism and are believed to be more accurate.	Genotype
Culture results:	Confirm the correctness of the therapeutic choices already made and implemented.
This antibiotic inhibits folate synthesis, which provides the essential precursor molecule, pyridine thymidylate, needed in DNA synthesis. What is this antibiotic?	Sulfamethoxazole
The mechanisms of action of antibiotics include all the following EXCEPT:	Blocking the Embden-Meyerhof pathway
The mechanisms of action of antibiotics	their mechanisms of action target bacterial cell wall biosynthesis, folate synthesis, DNA replication, RNA transcription, and mRNA translation
Mechanisms that mediate intrinsic antibiotic resistance include all the following EXCEPT:	Alternate biosynthetic pathways
Mechanisms that mediate intrinsic antibiotic resistance	cell-wall impermeability, efflux, biofilm formation, and the expression of genes producing inactivating enzymes.
What indicator is used in the methyl red test?	Methyl red, an acidic indicator that turns red at a low pH,the presence of mixed acids as metabolic by-products.
Shipping clinical specimens and cultures of microorganisms is governed by a complex set of national and international guidelines issued by:	The Department of Transportation and the U.S. Postal Service
b-Hemolysis is:	Complete clearing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony
How should specimen collection instructions be given to the patient to ensure collection of a good specimen for culture?	Written, using simple language (in several languages) and pictures to help the patient understand the procedure as it is verbally explained
What kind of bacteria cannot ferment lactose or glucose?	Nonenteric bacilli
Colony morphology is defined as:	Colony characteristics and form
She notices that there is growth on chocolate agar (CHOC), but no growth on sheep blood agar (SBA) or MacConkey (MAC) agar. The Gram stain showed a gram-negative bacillus. CSF specimen What organism should be suspected?	H. influenzae is a tiny, gram-negative rod that is very fastidious. It will not grow on MAC and will not grow on SBA. It will grow on CHOC because additional nutritional growth requirements are added to the media.
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Staphylococcus aureus are	gram-positive cocci that grow well on BAP, but do not grow on MAC.
Swabs are appropriate for specimens collected from all the following sites EXCEPT:	Urine
Sputum specimens are often collected for the diagnosis of:	Bacterial pneumonia
Generally, microbiologists observe the colonial morphology of organisms on primary culture after how many hours of incubation?	18 to 24 hours
g-Hemolysis is:	When organisms have no lytic effect on the erythrocytes in the blood agar plate
What is the most common causative agent of gas gangrene?	Clostridium perfringens
The methyl red test detects metabolic by-products from what pathway?	Mixed acid fermentation pathway
Embden-Meyerhof pathway	Glucose is metabolized, , producing several intermediate by-products, including pyruvic acid.
Colonies of Bacillus anthracis are described as:	Medusa’s heads because of the filamentous appearance of the colony.
Medusa’s heads	a center with many snakes coming from it
The two reagents used in the Voges-Proskauer Test are:	40% KOH and a-naphthol, acetoin is oxidized to diacetyl, which forms a red complex.
When using a swab to make a smear:	Ensure the swab has not been used to inoculate culture media first.
The best way to minimize the amount of upper respiratory flora in a sputum specimen is to follow these procedures:	Have the patient rinse their mouth with water and expectorate with the aid of a really deep cough directly into a sterile container.
a vaginal culture on the bench Growth on the sheep blood agar (SBA) and chocolate (CHOC) plates, but no growth on the MacConkey (MAC) plate. The colonies growing on the SBA have produced a narrow, diffuse zone of b-hemolysis around and under the colonies	Streptococcus agalactiae
All specimens must be transported	In leak-proof secondary containers
In the Voges-Proskauer test, you are testing for the metabolic by-products of which pathway?	Glucose to pyruvic acid to acetoin to diacetyl KOH
Antibiotics work by targeting all of the following EXCEPT:	Bacterial plasmid DNA
What chemicals are added to triple sugar iron (TSI) to detect the production of hydrogen sulfide gas?	Ferrous sulfate and sodium thiosulfate
This test determines if an organism is a delayed lactose-fermenter	Ortho-Nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test determines whether the organism is a delay lactose-fermenter or a true nonlactose-fermenter.
Why does a fecal sample for culture need to be collected in a leak-proof, nonsterile container?	Many types of bacteria call the intestinal tract home; the specimen cannot become contaminated.
How would the tech store the CSF until time permits to work on the CSF specimen?	Place the specimen in a 35º C incubator for 6 hours.
Biochemical tests are based on the _____ of microorganisms.	Phenotype
What are the sugars present in triple sugar iron (TSI)?	Sucrose, glucose, lactose
Antimicrobial agents include all of the following EXCEPT:	Plant extracts
Antimicrobial agents include	antiseptics, antibiotics, preservatives, sterilants, and disinfectants; all have the capacity to kill or suppress the growth of microorganisms.
A patient comes to the emergency room with a productive cough, shortness of breath, and a fever of 102° F. The patient is diagnosed with pneumonia. What organism commonly encountered in the microbiology laboratory can cause this disease?	Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae typically produces colonies that are said to resemble coins. The technical term for this colony shape is:	Umbilicate
Umbilicate colony	a depressed center and raised edges: concave.
umbonate colony	a raised or bulging center
raised colony	raised, and a flat colony is flat.
What is the cell wall of streptococci and enterococci made out of?	Teichoic acid and peptidoglycan
The streptococci possess	typical gram-positive cell wall consisting of peptidoglycan and teichoic acid; have a layer of a group or common C carbohydrate (polysaccharide),
A young man goes to his physician complaining of large, raised, suppurative abscesses on his neck. The man denies having a fever or the chills. What is the name of the lesions on his neck and what organism causes this type of lesions?	S. aureus and furuncles
common skin infections cause by S. aureus	folliculitis, furuncles, carbuncles, and bullous impetigo.
What test presumptively differentiates b-hemolytic group A streptococci and nonhemolytic group D enterococci from other streptococcal species?	PYR
PYR hydrolysis test	provides a high probability for the presumptive differentiation of the b-hemolytic group A streptococci and the nonhemolytic group D enterococci from the other streptococcal species.
What is the mechanism by which toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 (TSST-1) causes toxic shock syndrome (TSS)?	The toxin is a superantigen that stimulates T-cell proliferation with production of large amounts of cytokines.
TSST-1	a superantigen stimulating T-cell proliferation and the subsequent production of a large concentration of cytokines that are responsible for the symptoms
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus are suppurative, meaning:	The infection is filled with pus and necrotic tissues
What is the hemolysin responsible for hemolysis on SBA incubated anaerobically?	Streptolysin O
All of the following is used to describe the colonial morphology of Staphylococcus epidermidis EXCEPT	b-Hemolytic
S. epidermidis colonies	usually small- to medium-size, nonhemolytic, white colonies.
The tests used to detect clumping factor will differentiate Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococcal species. What are these tests?	Coagulase and latex agglutination
What are the effects of the b-hemolysin produced by Staphylococcus aureus?	It acts on sphingomyelin in the plasma membrane of red blood cells.
This staphylococcal species is associated with urinary tract infections in young, sexually active females.	S. saprophyticus
What test differentiates staphylococci from streptococci?	catalase
What is the function of protein A in the cell wall of Staphylococcus aureus?	To bind the IgG and prevent phagocytosis
What causes the red spreading rash in scarlet fever?	Streptococcal pyrogenic exotoxins
What is VRE?	Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus
What antibiotic is used for detection of methicillin resistance?	Oxacillin
Staphylococcal enterotoxin B is linked to	Staphylococcal pseudomembranous enterocolitis
What two tests are used to presumptively identify Enterococcus?	Bile esculin and 6.5% NaCl broth
Staphylococci are catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that resemble other bacteria that are members of this family. What is this family?	Micrococcaceae
Streptokinase is an enzyme produced by group A streptococci that:	Lysis fibrin clots
Infections by this organism are predominantly hospital acquired, and some predisposing factors include catheterization, medical implantation, and immunosuppressive therapy.	S. epidermidis
This infection occurs secondary to influenza A virus, has a high mortality rate, and occurs among the infants and immunocompromised patients.	Staphylococcal pneumoniae; secondary to influenza A virus infection
This is a rare but potentially fatal multisystem disease characterized by high fever, hypotension, and shock, and it is associated with highly absorbent tampons.	Toxic shock syndrome
What is the name of the test used to presumptively identify group B streptococci?	CAMP
Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxins	commonly A and D, have been identified and associated with gastrointestinal disturbances
Staphylococcal food poisoning	approximately 2 to 8 hours after ingestion of the food, and resolve within 24 to 48 hours. Although no fever is associated with this condition, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and severe cramping are common.
Automated antimicrobial susceptibility testing methods are not reliable in detecting these resistant staphylococci. What antibiotic are the bacteria resistant to?	Vancomycin
This staphylococcus produces wide zones of beta hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar.	S. aureus
The two most common species of coagulase-negative staphylococci are:	S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus
What organism on sheep blood agar (SBA) has colonies that are small and transparent, surrounded by a wide zone of b-hemolysis?	Streptococcus pyogenes
What are the effects of the Panton-Valentine leukocidin toxin produced by Staphylococcus aureus?	It kills polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
How is Staphylococcus saprophyticus presumptively identified?	Novobiocin susceptibility
The primary reservoir for staphylococci is:	Nares
The atmospheric conditions best suited to grow streptococci and enterococci are:	Oxygen-free atmosphere
facultative anaerobes	they grow in the presence of oxygen but are unable to use oxygen for respiration, they may be considered aerotolerant anaerobes.
What two tests have been mainstays in identification schemes for the non–b-hemolytic, catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci?	Bile esculin and salt tolerance
The bile esculin test is a two-step:	bacteria must grow in the presence of 40% bile and be able to hydrolyze esculin to produce a positive reaction.
Growth in 6.5% sodium chloride broth is used to identify	Enterococcus and Aerococcus
Common schemes to classify streptococci include all the following EXCEPT:	Flagellar antigens
Most doctors’ offices use the rapid throat swab methods to identify Streptococcus pyogenes. If the test is positive, the physician treats the patient. What should happen if the test is negative?	The physician should perform a throat culture.
Physiologic classification of streptococci divide the species into all the following groups EXCEPT:	b-Hemolytic streptococci
Physiologic classification of streptococci divide the species into all the following groups	pyogenic streptococci, lactococci, enterococci, and viridans streptococci
pyogenic streptococci	those that produce pus; mostly b-hemolytic and constitute the majority of the Lancefield groups.
lactococci	members of the genus Lactococcus, are nonhemolytic organisms with Lancefield group N antigen that are often found in dairy products
enterococci	comprise those species found as part of the normal flora of the human intestines;this group of organisms belongs to the genus Enterococcus
Streptococcus-like organisms that resemble enterococci and viridans streptococci include all the following EXCEPT	Moraxella
Streptococcus-like organisms that resemble enterococci and viridans streptococci include	The genera Aerococcus, Gemella, Lactococcus, Leuconostoc, and Pediococcus consist of Streptococcus-like organisms
One major virulence factor for Streptococcus pneumonia is:	Capsular polysaccharide
The drug of choice to treat group A streptococci is:	Penicillin, For patients allergic to penicillin, erythromycin can be used.
Two serious complications of an infection with group A streptococcal disease are:	Acute glomerulonephritis and rheumatic fever
What is Streptococcus agalactiae a significant cause of?	Invasive disease of the newborn
What is one of the most common diseases cause by streptococci?	Strep throat
been sick with a cough and fever for two days. She is coughing up thick, rust-colored sputum. The physician prescribed penicillin, but she is not getting any better. What is her most probable diagnosis?	Pneumococcal pneumonia with penicillin-resistant organism
What are the staphylococcal products that cause diarrhea and vomiting in humans?	Enterotoxins
Why do Streptococcus pneumoniae colonies on sheep blood agar (SBA) appear like a coin—raised edges and a depressed center?	The older growth at the center is killed due to autolysis
How do staphylococci spread so easily when infecting the skin?	They produce hyaluronidase, which hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid present in the intracellular ground substance that makes up connective tissue.
What test is used as a presumptive identification of Streptococcus pneumoniae?	Optochin
A zone of inhibition >14 mm	with a 6-mm disk
zone of inhibition >16 mm	with a 10-mm disk
What test can be used to differentiate S. agalactiae from other b-hemolytic streptococci?	Hippurate hydrolysis, A useful test to differentiate S. agalactiae from other b-hemolytic streptococci is hippurate hydrolysis
Hippurate hydrolysis	Hydrolysis can be detected by adding ninhydrin, which reacts with glycine to form a purple color.
What is the cellular structure that Streptococcus pyogenes relies upon for its virulence?	M proteins
The development of staphylococcal infection is determined by:
Which drug is the drug of choice for treating most streptococcal infections?	Penicillin
Colony characteristics for Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar after 18 to 24 hours incubation at 35° C include all the following EXCEPT:	Swarming
Colony characteristics for Staphylococcus aureus on blood agar after 18 to 24 hours incubation at 35° C include all the following	produce round, smooth, white, creamy colonies on blood agar after 18 to 24 hours of incubation at 35° C.
All of the following are additional virulence factors associated with group A streptococcus EXCEPT:	Enterotoxins
What organism on sheep blood agar (SBA) has grayish-white, mucoid colonies surrounded by a small zone of b-hemolysis?	Streptococcus agalactiae;Group B streptococci
What disease is produced by group A streptococci that is characterized by a rapidly progressing inflammation and necrosis of the skin, subcutaneous fat, and fascia?	Necrotizing fasciitis
Skin or pyodermal infections with group A streptococci result in all the following syndromes EXCEPT:	Bullous impetigo
Skin or pyodermal infections with group A streptococci result in all the following syndromes	result in the syndrome of impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, wound infection, or gangrene.
All of the following enzymes are produced by staphylococci EXCEPT:	Amylase
All of the following enzymes are produced by staphylococci	Several enzymes are produced by staphylococci;Ex: coagulase, protease, hyaluronidase, and lipase.
A young woman rushed to the hospital with a high fever, hypotension, and shock. She hadn’t feel well that day, her condition worsened the day. She was good until a couple days after she started menstruating. What condition could this woman be exhibiting?	Toxic shock syndrome
A young girl goes to her doctor’s office with a fever, headache, and a sore throat. The mother states the girl has a fever of 38.8º C (102° F). What test should the physician perform?	Throat culture
What is the inexpensive test used to presumptively identify Streptococcus pyogenes?	Bacitracin
All of the following virulence factors are associated with Staphylococcus aureus EXCEPT:	Endotoxins
All of the following virulence factors are associated with Staphylococcus aureus	enterotoxins, cytolytic toxins, and cellular components such as protein A. Five cytolytic toxins and two exfoliative toxins have been identified.
What are the effects of the a-hemolysin produced by Staphylococcus aureus?	It lyses red blood cells, damages platelets and macrophages, and can cause severe tissue damage.
What are two tests used to presumptively identify group B strep?	Hippurate hydrolysis and CAMP
This disease is an extensive exfoliative dermatitis caused by staphylococcal exfoliative toxin.	Ritter’s disease
Ritter’s disease	Scalded skin syndrome is an extensive exfoliative dermatitis that occurs primarily in newborns and previously healthy young children
Staphylococci resist the action of inflammatory cells by the production of toxins and enzymes, thereby establishing	A focal lesion
All of the following staphylococci are coagulase positive EXCEPT:	S. saprophyticus
All of the following staphylococci are coagulase positive	S. aureus, S. intermedius, S. delphini, S. lutrae, and some strains of S. hyicus.
Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning is caused by these two enterotoxins:	enterotoxins A and D
What is the drug of choice to treat Streptococcus pneumoniae?	Penicillin
Where are the viridans streptococci constituents of the normal flora?	normal flora of the upper respiratory tract, the female genital tract, and the gastrointestinal tract.
A woman in her 20s goes to her physician with burning upon urination, frequency, and malaise. Her urine culture grew out 25,000 (CFU)/mL of a catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, novobiocin-resistant gram-positive cocci. What is the pathogen?	S. saprophyticus
S. saprophyticus is a cause	urinary tract infections in young sexually active women
S. saprophyticus	catalase-positive, coagulase-negative, and novobiocin-resistant gram-positive cocci
All of the following are members of the Citrobacter genus EXCEPT:	C. asteroides
The genus Citrobacter currently consists of 11 species:	C. freundii, C. diversus (koseri), C. amalonaticus, C. farmeri, C. braakii, C. gillenii, C. murliniae, C. rodentium, C. sedlakii, C. werkmanii, and C. youngae. .
This genus has one species associated with it that has been implicated in urinary tract infections. What is the name of this species?	Morganella morganii
Morganella morganii is	a documented cause of urinary tract infections and has been isolated from other human body sites.
All of the following are categories of diarrheagenic Escherichia coli EXCEPT:	EMEC
five major categories of diarrheagenic E. coli:	ETEC, EIEC, EPEC, EHEC
ETEC	enterotoxigenic
EIEC	enteroinvasive
EPEC	enteropathogenic
EHEC	enterohemorrhagic
What organism will present as a pink colony with a halo on MacConkey media and a green metallic sheen on EMB?	Escherichia coli
E. coli morphology	lactose-positive (pink) colony with a surrounding area of precipitated bile salts on MacConkey agar. On EMB agar, it presents with a green metallic sheen.
During this process, glucose enters the glycolysis pathway, resulting in the formation of pyruvic acid, which is further oxidized to other acids. What is this process called?	Fermentation
All of the following are clinically significant isolates of the genus Enterobacter EXCEPT:	E. hartmanni
All of the following are clinically significant isolates of the genus Enterobacter	E. cloacae, E. aerogenes, E. gergoviae, E. sakazakii, and E. hormaechei.
What genus has the following characteristics: negative for urea, positive for lysine decarboxylase, positive for hydrogen sulfide, positive for indole, and does not grow on Simmon’s citrate?	Edwardsiella
The genus Edwardsiella is composed of three species:	E. tarda, E. hoshinae, and E. ictaluri
This genus has one species associated with it that has been implicated in urinary tract infections. What is the name of this species?	Morganella morganii
When performing the oxidative/fermentative (O/F) test, one tube is covered with mineral oil and one tube is left uncovered. Why is one tube covered with mineral oil?	To create a anaerobic (fermentative) environment
All of the following techniques are used for making definitive identification of anaerobes EXCEPT:	Mass spectroscopy
A wide variety of techniques exist for making definitive identification:	PRAS and non-PRAS tubed biochemical test media, biochemical-based and preexisting enzyme-based minisystems, gas-liquid chromatography analysis of metabolic end products, and cellular fatty acid analysis by gas-liquid chromatography.
A technician is reading a stool culture and notices a very moist and mucoid pink colony on MacConkey agar. What is the most likely organism?	Klebsiella pneumoniae
Escherichia coli strains are associated with all the following properties EXCEPT:	Can use citrate as a sole carbon source
Escherichia coli strains are associated with all the following properties	fermentation of glucose, lactose, trehalose, and xylose, indole production, glucose fermentation, MR positive and VP negative, doesnt produce H2S, Dnase, urease, or phenylalanine deaminase, and can't use citrate as a carbon source.
All of the following are members of the Citrobacter genus EXCEPT:	C. asteroides
The genus Citrobacter currently consists of 11 species	C. freundii, C. diversus (koseri), C. amalonaticus, C. farmeri, C. braakii, C. gillenii, C. murliniae, C. rodentium, C. sedlakii, C. werkmanii, and C. youngae
Bacteria can utilize carbohydrates by:	Oxidation
Oxidation is when	the bacteria metabolize the carbohydrate aerobically, through the Embden-Meyerhof pathway.
What organism in the genus Providencia is incriminated in nosocomial outbreaks in burn units and has been isolated from urine cultures?	Providencia stuartii
P. stuartii associated with	nosocomial outbreaks in burn units and has been isolated from urine cultures
P. alcalifaciens found in	the feces of children with diarrhea; however, its role as a cause of diarrhea has not been proved
P. rustigianii is	rarely isolated, and its pathogenicity also remains unproven,
P. heimbachae	yet to be isolated from any clinical specimens.
What are the sugars present in triple sugar iron (TSI)?	Sucrose, glucose, lactose
What genus has the following characteristics: negative for urea, positive for lysine decarboxylase, positive for hydrogen sulfide, positive for indole, and does not grow on Simmon’s citrate?	Edwardsiella
only recognized human pathogen of Edwardsiella	E. tarda
The Escherichia coli serotype O157:H7 is associated with all the following EXCEPT:	Liver damage
The EHEC strain serotype O157:H7 has since been associated with	hemorrhagic diarrhea, colitis, and hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS).
hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS) characterized by	low platelet count, hemolytic anemia, and kidney failure.
If a bacteria fermented glucose only and utilized peptones, what would the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction be?	Alkaline/acid
What organism in the genus Providencia is incriminated in nosocomial outbreaks in burn units and has been isolated from urine cultures?	Providencia stuartii
What two bacteria produce swarming colonies on nonselective media such as sheep blood agar (SBA)?	Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis
This characteristic swarming is	a result of a tightly regulated cycle of differentiation from standard vegetative cells (swimmers) to hyperflagellated, elongated, polyphonic cells (warmers) capable of coordinated surface movement.
What disk is used to presumptively identify Peptostreptococcus anaerobius?	Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
Peptostreptococcus anaerobius characteristic	an anaerobic, gram-positive coccus is isolated
All of the following are approaches to treating anaerobic infections EXCEPT	Enzyme inactivators
What genus of bacteria is considered an opportunistic pathogen associated with nosocomial outbreaks?	Serratia
The genus Serratia is composed of	S. marcescens, S. liquefaciens, S. rubidaea, S. odoriferae, S. plymuthica, S. ficaria, S. entomophila, and S. fonticola.
Serratia spp. are	opportunistic pathogens associated with nosocomial outbreaks
The methyl red test detects metabolic by-products from what pathway?	Mixed acid fermentation pathway
The two reagents used in the Voges-Proskauer Test are:	40% KOH and a-naphthol
What two bacteria produce swarming colonies on nonselective media such as sheep blood agar (SBA)?	Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis
What genus of bacteria is considered an opportunistic pathogen associated with nosocomial outbreaks?	Serratia
What is the name of the organism that has been a documented cause of nursery outbreaks of neonatal meningitis and brain abscesses?	C. diversus
C. diversus (koseri) is	a pathogen documented as the cause of nursery outbreaks of neonatal meningitis and brain abscesses.
A technician is reading a stool culture and notices a very moist and mucoid pink colony on MacConkey agar. What is the most likely organism?	Klebsiella pneumoniae
Which of the following agars is not selective for Enterobacteriaceae?	buffered charcoul yeast extract
Which of the following agars is selective for Enterobacteriaceae?	MacConkey agar, and highly selective media, such as HE and XLD agar
Other sugars that can be used by bacteria to produce energy for glucose include all of the following EXCEPT:	Sucralose
Examples of sugars used to differentiate bacteria	lactose, maltose, rhamnose, sucrose, raffinose, arabinose, adonitol, dulcitol, mannitol, and sorbitol.
The chemical reaction for the Ortho-Nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test is:	O-nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside is oxidized into acetoin and glucose
This test determines if an organism is a delayed lactose-fermenter.	Ortho-Nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test
The ONPG test determines	whether the organism is a delay lactose-fermenter (one that lacks the enzyme b-galactoside permease but possesses b-galactosidase) or a true nonlactose-fermenter.
What organism will present as a pink colony with a halo on MacConkey media and a green metallic sheen on EMB?	Escherichia coli
E. coli has distinctive morphology	presents as a lactose-positive (pink) colony with a surrounding area of precipitated bile salts on MacConkey agar. On EMB agar, it presents with a green metallic sheen.
Which organism is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in humans?	Escherichia coli
The biochemical pathway that the methyl red test is confirming is:	Glucose to pyruvic acid to mixed acid fermentation
What organisms growing in a urine culture can be considered contaminants?	Bacillus spp
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) truly caused by this organism are exceedingly rare.	Bacillus spp
What bacteria may cause up to 50% of all cases of pneumonia in the summer months?	Mycoplasma pneumoniae
What organism causes epiglottis?	Haemophilus influenzae type B
What is a nonchromogen?	Species whose colonies are a buff color and exposure to light does not induce pigment formation
Some mycobacterium spp., such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, are	nonchromogenic or nonphotochromogenic. These colonies are a buff color and are nonphotoreactive; exposure to light does not induce pigment formation.
What organism is most commonly associated with bacteremia caused by acute pyelonephritis?	Escherichia coli
What organism is a common cause of meningitis in neonates and infants up to 3 months of age and can be contracted by passing through the birth canal?	S. agalactiae
S. agalactiae or group B streptococcus is	a gram-positive coccus that is often isolated from rectal or vaginal cultures of asymptomatic pregnant women. It is a common cause of meningitis in neonates and infants up to age 3 months.
How long are conventional blood cultures held?	7 days
What organism will present as a pink colony with a halo on MacConkey media and a green metallic sheen on EMB?	Escherichia coli
What organism is likely to cause an infection after a cat bite?	Pasteurella spp.
Pasteurellosis, infection with Pasteurella spp., is	a zoonosis—a disease that humans acquire from exposure to infected animals or products made from infected animals, often feline bites
The three species of nonfermenters that make up the majority of isolates routinely seen in clinical laboratories include all the following EXCEPT:	Rhodococcus equi
The three species of nonfermenters that make up the majority of isolates routinely seen in clinical laboratories include all the following	P. aeruginosa, Acinetobacter spp., and S. maltophilia.
The atypical clinical presentation of a geriatric patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) includes all the following EXCEPT:	Burning upon urination
The atypical clinical presentation of a geriatric patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) includes	delirium, fevers alone, or failure to thrive.
What organism causes neonatal conjunctivitis, lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), and trachoma?	Chlamydia trachomatis
Bacteremia with this organism may lead to endocarditis, osteomyelitis, septic arthritis, hepatic abscess, or pyomyositis.	Staphylococcus aureus
All of the following features should be considered in a urinary tract infection (UTI) workup EXCEPT:	Nitrite positive
All of the following features should be considered in a urinary tract infection (UTI) workup	colony count of a pure or predominant organism, measurement of pyuria, and presence or absence of symptoms (dysuria and frequency).
What organism causes the disease called whooping cough?	Bordetella pertussis
Two pathogens that cause whooping cough	Both Bordetella pertussis and Bordetella parapertussis, B. parapertussis is a milder form
A young woman goes to her doctor complaining of dysuria, frequency, urgency, and suprapubic pain. A urinalysis shows hematuria, positive protein, positive leukocyte esterase, and a positive nitrite. What is a probable diagnosis?	Urinary tract infection (UTI)
Acute sinusitis usually occurs as a complication of:	Common cold
Acute sinusitis is usually a complication of	common colds or other viral infections of the upper respiratory tract.
What organism possesses the Vi antigen?	Salmonella serotype Typhi
Why is pharyngitis produced by group A streptococcus treated with antibiotics?	To prevent rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis
The goals of antibiotic treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis include	amelioration of the symptoms, limitation of transmission of the infection to contacts (especially in school-age children), and prevention of the serious complications of acute rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.
A microbiology technician is checking the mycobacteria cultures. She notices one tube of Lowenstein-Jensen (LJ) that is a buff color, rough, and seems arranged in a cord. It has taken these organisms 4 weeks to grow. What is the most probable organism?	M. tuberculosis
Colonies of M. tuberculosis that are rough also exhibit	prominent patterned texture referred to as cording; this texture is the result of tight cohesion of the bacilli; a generation time of 20 to 22 hours and generally grows in culture in approximately 26 days. .
What do the lipopolysaccharide in gram-negative bacteria and the lipoteichoic acid and peptidoglycan in gram-positive bacteria cause to be released in the human body?	interacts with macrophages and causes release of tumor necrosis factor (TNF), interleukin-1 (IL-1), IL-6, and other proinflammatory cytokines, increasing endothelial activation, vascular permeability, blood flow, and recruitment of neutrophils.
What is the name of the disease that is characterized by rapid onset, acute inflammation, and intense edema that may cause complete airway obstruction in 2 to 4 year olds?	Epiglottis
Epiglottis	include rapid onset, acute inflammation, and intense edema that may cause complete airway obstruction, requiring an emergency tracheostomy; The peak incidence occurs in children between the ages of 2 and 4 years. .
a bacterial membrane component composed of	lipopolysaccharide, also known as endotoxin, in the case of gram-negative organisms; lipoteichoic acid and peptidoglycan in the case of gram-positive organisms
A lethargic, feverish baby into the emergency department. The baby has meningitis and the doctor does a spinal tap. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Gram stain shows many tiny gram-negative rods. What is the most probably identification of this organism?	Haemophilus influenzae serotype b
Haemophilus influenzae serotype b cause	pediatric meningitis in children between the ages of 3 months and 6 years.
Haemophilus influenzae serotype b infection route	Blood stream invasion and bacteremic spread follow colonization, invasion, and replication of this organism in the respiratory mucous membranes. Headache, stiff neck, and other meningeal signs are usually preceded by mild respiratory distress.
What organisms are most frequently isolated from cultures of individuals with otitis media?	Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae
account for more than 50% of the isolates from cases of acute otitis media.	S. pneumoniae and H. influenzae
What volume calibrated loop should be used to inoculate culture media for a urine cultures?	0.01 mL
routine urine culture	plating onto one selective and one nonselective medium; Calibrated loops of 0.01 mL should be used because quantitation is difficult to obtain with a low inoculum.
What do specimens with multiple uropathogens (i.e., three or more) indicate?	Probable contamination
All of the following organisms are common in pneumonia and produce a concurrent bacteremia EXCEPT:	Escherichia coli
The most common organisms in pneumonia that produce a concurrent bacteremia include	S. pneumonia, H. influenzae, S. aureus, P. aeruginosa, and Enterobacter aerogenes.
What is thrush?	Oral candidiasis
The term thrush is applied to a specific form of oral candidiasis characterized by	white, curdlike patches on the tongue or elsewhere on the mucosal surface of the oropharynx.
A group of swim team members break out in a rash (folliculitis) the day after swimming at the pool. What organism is probably responsible for this outbreak?	Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Folliculitis is	an inflammation and infection of hair follicles
the most common etiologic agent of folliculitis	S. aureus
implicated in cases acquired from contaminated swimming pools or whirlpools.	P. aeruginosa
All of the following organisms commonly cause meningitis EXCEPT:	Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Acute meningitis is commonly caused by	bacteria (e.g., S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, H. influenzae), or viruses (e.g., Enteroviruses, herpes virus, mumps virus).
What organism causes pulmonary disease among individuals with cystic fibrosis?	P. aeruginosa
A large variety of clinical diseases have been documented to be caused by P. aeruginosa This includes	bacteremia, often presenting with ecthyma gangrenosum of the skin, wound infection, pulmonary disease, among individuals with cystic fibrosis, nosocomial urinary tract infections, endocarditis, infections: burns or trauma , CNS infections, meningitis
What make up 80% to 90% indigenous ocular microbial flora?	Coagulase-negative Staphylococcus and Corynebacteria
What is the most common bacterium found on the skin?	Coagulase-negative staphylococci like Staphylococcus epidermidi; Usual flora of the skin consists of those microbes able to adapt to the high salt concentration and drying effects of the skin.
What biochemical test will differentiate nonfermenters from Enterobacteriaceae (except Plesiomonas)?	Oxidase
Most nonfermentative gram-negative bacilli are	oxidase positive
Plesiomonas is oxidase	positive
When reading culture plates, what must the microbiology technician consider?	The types of organisms normally found at the culture site
What causes scarlet fever?	Erythrogenic toxin; group A streptococcal disease that occurs when the infecting strain produces a scarlatiniform or erythrogenic toxin.
What organism is associated with pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis or chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?	Burkholderia cepacia
B. cepacia is	a low-grade, nosocomial pathogen that has most often been associated with pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis or chronic granulomatous disease.
What organism is most often responsible for impetigo?	Streptococcus pyogenes
Impetigo is a common pyoderma most often cause by	group A streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes). .
In toxic shock syndrome, what happens in the late stages because of exotoxin F production?	Desquamation
In toxic shock syndrome	cutaneous desquamation may occur in the late stage as a result of exotoxin F production by Staphylococcus aureus
Desquamation of skin is with	A diffuse sunburn-like erythroderma appears early in the course and is accompanied by fever, hypotension, and evidence of multiorgan dysfunction.
What are two potential consequences of bacteremia?	Sepsis and septic shock
Which of the following agars is not selective for Enterobacteriaceae?	buffered charcoul yeast extract
Which of the following agars is selective for Enterobacteriaceae?	differential and selective media, such as MacConkey agar, and highly selective media, such as HE and XLD agar
Which of the following is a virulence factor of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?	endotoxin (lipopolysaccharides), motility, pili, capsule, and several exotoxins: proteases, hemolysins, lecithinase, elastase, and Dnase.
What is the most common complication of pertussis?	Pneumonia that occurs in young children
What is a scotochromogen?	Species that produce pigment in the light or the dark; Growth temperature may influence the photoreactive characteristics of a species.
a male has fever, intense headache, stiff neck, vomiting, and light sensitive. hes sick for 2 days and condition worsened over three hours. a (CBC) and electrolytes is done The electrolytes are normal, but (WBC) is 12,000 cells/L. Whats the next test	Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) Gram stain and culture
Patients with acute meningitis usually present with	fever, headache, vomiting, photophobia, and altered mental status.
What organisms usually cause urinary tract infections (UTIs) in older men in conjunction with prostatic hypertrophy?	Enterococcus spp
Enterococcal UTIs occur primarily in	older men, particularly in association with urinary tract manipulation or instrumentation or prostatic hypertrophy.
All of the following are characteristics of nonfermenters EXCEPT:	indole positive
Some characteristics or initial clues can indicate the presence of a nonfermenter
Some characteristics or initial clues can indicate the presence of a nonfermenter in the clinical laboratory:	thin gram-negative bacilli/ coccobacilli on Gram stain, oxidase-positive, nonreactivity in 24 hours in commercial kit systems for ID of Enterobacteriaceae, no acid production in slant or butt of TSIA or KIA, and resistance to a some antimicrobial agents
nonfermenters are resisant to antimicorbals agents like	aminoglycosides, third-generation cephalosporins, penicillins, and fluoroquinolones
Urinary tract infection (UTI) in children is associated with significant morbidity and long-term medical problems, including all the following EXCEPT:	Hemolytic-uremic syndrome
UTI in children is associated with	great morbidity and long-term medical problems, including impaired renal function, hypertension, end-stage renal disease, and complications of pregnancy as an adult.
If a patient has a throat culture done and the culture reveals the presence of a-hemolytic colonies, what does this indicate?	These organisms are normally found in the pharynx and are normal.
What is the cause of most uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs)?	Escherichia coli
What is a photochromogen?	Species that produce carotene pigment upon exposure to light; Color may range from pale yellow to orange.
All of the following factors can help the microbiology technician differentiate between colonization and infection, EXCEPT:	The presence of a pure culture or mixed flora on the culture plates
All of the following factors can help the microbiology technician differentiate between colonization and infection,	The method and site of collection of the specimen, Characteristics of the specimen, the number of organisms in the specimen, and a compatible clinical syndrome
What is the name of the genus of organisms that colonized 45% of all tracheotomy patients?	Acinetobacter spp.
What two bacteria produce swarming colonies on nonselective media such as sheep blood agar (SBA)?	Proteus vulgaris and Proteus mirabilis
What group has more urinary tract infections (UTIs) caused by Staphylococcus saprophyticus?	Symptomatic sexually active young women
How does the biofilm protect the organism?	protects the organism from host defenses by inhibiting phagocytosis, chemotaxis, and oxidative metabolism and by suppressing the lymphoproliferative response
What is the probable identity of the organism on a sputum specimen that is growing closely to the b-hemolytic organism and why are they growing in the hemolyzed area?	Haemophilus spp., because they need the factor V in this area
Satellitism occurs when	an organism such as Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, or Neisseria spp. produces V factor as a byproduct of its metabolism.
All of the following organisms are colonizers of indwelling catheters EXCEPT:	Streptococcus pyogenes
Indwelling catheters highly vulnerable to colonization and infection by	coagulase-negative staphylococci, S. aureus, and Enterococcus spp., with subsequent spread to the bloodstream to cause bacteremia
What is the major cause for chronic bronchitis?	usually caused by long-term cigarette smoking and occasionally by other toxic exposures.
What is a serious complication of impetigo?	Acute glomerulonephritis, a serious nonsuppurative complication of Streptococcus pyogenes infection.

Created by: kashe220

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