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What are the 3 ways cancer spreads naturally?
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What is 1 way cancer spreads unnaturally?
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Anatomy: Final Exam

QuestionAnswer
What are the 3 ways cancer spreads naturally? locally, through the blood, and through the lymphatic system
What is 1 way cancer spreads unnaturally? seeding
How do carcinomas spread? lymphatic system
How do sarcomas spread? blood
The more differentiated a cell is, the __________ likely it is to replicate. less
Are the positioning laser dangerous to look at? Yes
TD 5/5 kidney 2300
TD 5/5 bladder 6500
TD 5/5 femoral heads 5200
TD 5/5 TMJ 6000
TD 5/5 skin 5000
TD 5/5 Brain 4500
TD 5/5 brain stem 5000
TD 5/5 optic nerve 5000
TD 5/5 chiasm 5000
TD 5/5 spinal cord 4500
TD 5/5 cauda equina 6000
TD 5/5 brachial plexus 6000
TD 5/5 eye lens 1000
TD 5/5 retina 4500
TD 5/5 parotid 3200
TD 5/5 Larynx 4500
TD 5/5 Lung 1750
TD 5/5 Heart 4000
TD 5/5 esophagus 5500
TD 5/5 stomach 5000
TD 5/5 small intestine 4000
TD 5/5 colon 4500
TD 5/5 rectum 6000
TD 5/5 liver 3000
What is found within the nucleus of a cell? nucleolus
What does the nucleolus do? it is where the chromosomes make ribosomal RNA to make the ribosomes
What is the function of the nucleus? the genetic material is found in this and it controls the cells
What is the function of the ribosomes? to build proteins
Vesicle membrane bound container that moves material around
Rough ER membrane that is continuous with the nucleus that have ribosomes on the outside of it
Golgi apparatus shipping part of the cell
Cytoskeleton structure of the cell
Smooth ER produces lipids, cholesterol, etc.
Mitochondria generates energy (ATP)
Vacuole Stores water to keep balance in the cell
Cytosol dissolved material/fluid
Lysosome suicide sac; has digestive enzymes inside of it
Centriole part of the centrosome; initiates the form of the spindle
Programmed cell death that rids your body of damaged cells. apoptosis
Refresh on Mitosis and Meiosis**
Define DNA replication DNA replication is the biological process by which a cell produces an identical copy of its DNA. This process is essential for cell division, ensuring that each daughter cell receives the same genetic information as the parent cell.
Where does DNA replication occur? nucleus
When does DNA replication occur? DNA replication occurs during the S phase (synthesis phase) of the cell cycle, which is part of interphase. Interphase occurs before cell division (mitosis or meiosis).
List the layers of the epidermis in order from outermost to innermost. stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basal, dermis
The pigment cell of the epidermis melanocyte
The waterproofing agent of the epidermis keratinocyte
ABCDE method for identifying cancer. A- asymmetry; shape is not symmetrical B- border; edges are ragged, notched or blurred C- color; unusual or uneven D- diameter; larger than 6mm E- evolution; growing larger, changing color, or starts to behave differently
What are the 2 types of non-melanoma skin cancers? basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma
______% of skin cancers diagnosed are non-melanoma. 97%
What is the most common type of skin cancer? basal cell carcinoma
What is the second most common type of skin cancer? squamous cell carcinoma
What type of cells does squamous cell carcinoma of the skin arise in? keratinizing cells
Which type of skin cancer is known as the most menacing? melanoma
What type of skin cancer can be spread from mother to fetus? melanoma
This type of skin cancer is a neuroendocrine skin cancer and is also called trabecular carcinoma. merkel cell carcinoma
This type of skin cancer arises in endothelial cells that line lymph or blood vessels. kaposi sarcoma
This type of skin cancer arises in lymphocytes and is also called cutaneous T-cell lymphoma. mycosis fungoides
Radiation therapy for limited field(s) - electrons -2cm margin around lesion -4500 cGy in 28 fx -6 or 9 MeV to dmax -may use bolus
Radiation therapy for total skin - electrons -used for cutaneous lymphoma and mycosis fungoides - protect eyes and nails - 3200 cGy in 8 fx (1,2, or 4 per week) - 6 or 9 MeV
Radiation therapy for keloids - electrons -must be treated w/in 24-48 hours of sx -1200-2000 cGy (1,2, or 3 fx) over 5 to 7 days
Grade 1 skin reaction for 2 Gy and when is the onset? early transient erythema and hours after
Grade 1 skin reaction for 6-10 Gy and when is the onset? faint erythema; epilation and 7-10 days after
Grade 2 skin reaction for 12-20 Gy and when is the onset? definite erythema; hyperpigmentation and 2-3 weeks after
Grade 2 skin reaction for 20-25 Gy and when is the onset? dry desquamation and 3-4 weeks after
Grade 3 skin reaction for 30-40 Gy and when is the onset? moist desquamation and more than 4 weeks
Grade 4 skin reaction for over 40 Gy and when is the onset? ulceration and more than 6 weeks
List the functions of bone. provide support and framework for body, allows for attachment of muscles and protection of organs along with production of RBC and WBC
**Identify layers of bone. Reference PPT
Osteosarcomas and mets from prostate present as ________________ lesions. osteoblastic
Ewing's sarcoma, Multiple Myeloma, and mets from lung, thyroid, kidney and colon present as ___________________ lesions. osteolytic
How do mets from breast present? as both osteoblastic and osteolytic lesions
What is the most commonly diagnosed bone tumor? mets
What is the most commonly diagnosed primary bone tumor? osteosarcoma
What is the second most commonly diagnosed primary bone tumor? Ewing's sarcoma
Involuntary muscle can't control the movement; ex. smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
Voluntary muscle can control the movement; ex. skeletal muscle
What is the method behind naming soft tissue tumors? sarcomas are based on their origin; ex. liposarcoma, fibrosarcoma, etc.
Recall the functions of the blood. transport oxygen and nutrients, remove waste from cells, heal injuries/infections, and regulate body temperature.
What is a pluripotent cell? the embryonic stem cells that have the unlimited capacity to divide, self-renew and differentiate into cells of early primary germ cell layers, namely mesoderm, endoderm, and ectoderm
Hematopoiesis is the creation of blood cells and plasma from stem cells, a vital process for life and health
A condition in which bone marrow activity is decreased, resulting in fewer RBCs, WBCs, and/or platelets. myelosuppression
A decrease in all 3 types of blood cells ---> RBCs, WBCs, and platelets pancytopenia
A decrease in the number of RBCs or a dysfunction of the RBCs. anemia
What are the components of the blood? RBCs, WBCs, Plasma, and Platelets
What is the function of RBCs and how much of the blood does it makeup? 40-45% and responsible for transporting oxygen from the lungs to tissues and carrying carbon dioxide back to the lungs
What important substance does RBCs carry that provides oxygen? hemoglobin
What is the function of WBCs and how much of the blood does it makeup? Makes up less that 1% and is crucial for the immune system, defending the body against infections and foreign invaders.
List the 5 types of WBCs. neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, and basophils
What is the function of the platelets and how much of the blood does it makeup? Also makes up less than 1% and they are small cell fragments essential for blood clotting
What is the function of plasma and how much of the blood does it makeup? Makes up 55% and serves as the transport medium for nutrients, hormones, waste products, and proteins
Platelets are fragments from a __________________________. megakaryocyte
This is a systemic disease of blood cells and is classified as acute or chronic. leukemia
Most childhood leukemias are _________. acute
Most adult leukemias are __________. chronic
How is Hodgkin's disease diagnosed? by identifying reed-sternberg cells
Primary lymphedema vs. Secondary lymphedema primary lymphedema is when a condition a person already has causes this vs. when too many lymph nodes are removed and this causes lymphedema as a result of having nowhere to drain
______________ are the functioning cells of the CNS. neurons
___________ cells are the supporting cells of the CNS. glial
This is what separates the cerebellum from the cerebrum and everything below it is referred to as the posterior fossa. tentorial line
This is a protective barrier that separates the brain from the bloodstream, allowing essential nutrients to pass while blocking harmful substances like toxins and pathogens. blood brain barrier
What does the BBB contain? astrocytes, endothelial cells, pericytes, and microglial cells
Which cell in the BBB secretes chemicals that regulate how endothelial cells transfer substances into the CNS from the blood? astrocytes
This primary brain tumor if presenting with no contrast enhancement is low grade or if presenting with contrast enhancement is high grade. astrocytoma
This primary brain tumor is primarily found in the frontal and temporal lobes. oligodendroglioma
This primary brain tumor is located in passageways where CSF is found, and surgery is the treatment of choice for all stages. ependymoma
A brain stem glioma is also known as what? diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma (DIPG)
This primary brain tumor is almost always benign, and has a high chance of returning after removal. pituitary adenoma
This is a primary brain tumor in children that is located in the posterior fossa and tends to travel down the CSF and cause drop metastases. medulloblastoma
What treatment is given to patients with medulloblastoma? cranio-spinal irradiation because it is important to treat the entire brain and spine for this pathology
This primary brain tumor typically benign and involves the 8th cranial nerve. vestibular schwannoma (aka acoustic neuroma)
What is often used to reduce brain swelling or edema caused by the tumor or treatment? corticosteroids (ex. Decadron or prednisone)
What are the most common brain tumors diagnosed in adults? brain mets
What is a normal rx for whole brain radiation? 3000 cGy in 10 fx
The most common primary brain tumor diagnosed in adults is? glioma
How are primary brain tumors treated? highly customized and can involve surgery, chemo, targeted therapies, and/or radiation therapy
T or F. Patients diagnosed with H&N cancer tend to have a better prognosis as a non-smoker with HPV than a smoker. True
What 2 etiological factors associated with H&N cancer have a synergistic effect? alcohol and smoking
Leukoplakia vs. erythroplasia leukoplakia are white patchy areas and erythroplasia are red patchy areas
Exophytic vs. endophytic Exophytic are tumors growing out of tissue while endophytic are tumors growing into tissue
SCLC is also known as what and what percentage of lung cancer diagnoses does it account for? oat cell carcinoma and 15%
Which type of lung cancer could possibly require PCI to the brain? SCLC
Which NSCLC accounts for 40% of the category, is not always related to smoking, and the tumors often occur peripherally? adenocarcinoma
Is adenocarcinoma of the lung more common in men or women? women
Which NSCLC accounts for 30% of the category, is the greatest link to smoking, and occurs in keratinizing cells? squamous cell carcinoma
This tumor occurs in the apex of the lung and can invade the brachial plexus. pancoast tumor
What is an emergency case that could occur due to a tumor that is compressing the vein and blocking blood flow. SVC syndrome
This is a chronic condition where stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing symptoms like heartburn, regurgitation, and discomfort. GERD
What is the most common histopathology of the esophagus? adenocarcinoma
This is a type of bacteria that infects the stomach lining and can cause ulcers, gastritis, and increase the risk of stomach cancer. H. pylori
What is the most common histopathology of the stomach? adenocarcinoma
What are the functions of the pancreas? endocrine gland- produces insulin which helps regulate and store glucose and exocrine gland- produces enzymes that digest fat, protein, and carbs
What is the most common histopathology of the pancreas? adenocarcinoma
What is the most common chemo drug used to treat GI cancers? 5-FU
What is the most common histopathology of the liver? liver mets
What is the most common primary histopathology of the liver even though it is rare? hepatocellular carcinoma
What is the most common histopathology of the gallbladder? cholangiocarcinoma
This is found in the intestines and they are the lymphatics of the villi that absorb digested fats. lacteals
These are gut-associated lymphatic tissues located in the small intestine and prominent in the ileum. Peyer's patches
What is the most common histopathology of the small intestine? adenocarcinoma
What is the most common histopathology of the large intestine? adenocarcinoma
What is the most common histopathology of the anus? squamous cell carcinoma
What is an etiologic factor linked to every cancer in the GI tract? smoking
What is the function of the urinary system? removes waste and excess fluids from the body, maintains electrolyte balance, and regulates blood pressure by filtering blood and producing urine.
70-80% of bladder cancer tumors present as ___________________ tumors. superficial
What are the 3 stages of bladder cancer most commonly diagnosed? Tis, Ta (papillary), and T1 (sub-epithelial but not into muscle)
What is the main treatment option for kidney cancer? surgery
What is the most commonly diagnosed gynecological cancer among women? uterine or endometrial
What is the most commonly diagnosed gynecological cancer among younger women? cervical cancer
What gynecological cancer is considered to be a sexually transmitted disease? cervical cancer
What is the most common histopathology of breast cancer? IDC
What is the most commonly diagnosed reproductive cancer in males? prostate cancer
Where is the most common route of spread of testicular cancer? abdominal lymph nodes
Created by: lheard
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