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RT notecards

Intro to RT

QuestionAnswer
1. Gamma rays originate from the a. nucleus b. electrons c. electron orbital d. neutrons Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg. 348
2. A stochastic effect is one that: a. the probability of an occurrence increases with increasing dose b. the severity of an effect increases with increasing dose c. has a threshold Answer: A Reference: Khan, pg. 357
3. TLDs are composed of a. Aluminum Oxide b. Film c. Lithium Fluoride d. Lithium Oxide Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg. 351
4_______ may be required for effective shielding in rooms using 10MeV or higher. I. Both concrete and lead walls II. A longer maze III. A polyethylene material in the door a. I and II b. III c. I, II, and III d. II and III Answer: D Reference: Khan, pg 364
5. Gross structural changes in chromosomes include a. aberrations b. lesions c. anomalies d. All of the above Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg. 60
6. Factors affecting exposure include a. Time b. Distance c. Shielding d. All of the above Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg. 357
7. If the biological response to low doses of radiation is not observable for extended periods of time, they are classified as: a. genetic effects b. somatic effects c. late effects d. A and C e. All of the above Answer: E Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 76
8. ________ produces characteristic X-rays and Auger electrons. a. Coherent Scattering b. Photoelectric Effect c. Compton Effect d. Pair Production Answer: B Reference: Khan, pg. 59
9.What is the half-life of Cesium-137? A. 2.7 days B. 5.26 years C. 28.9 years D. 30 years Answer: D Reference: Levy, L. (2011) Radiation Therapy-Study Guide and Exam Review. Page 81
10.What are the two electron interactions with matter? A. compton, photoelectric B. photoelectric, characteristic C. collision, radiative D. radiative, photoelectric Answer: C Reference: Levy, L. (2011) Radiation Therapy-Study Guide and Exam Review. Page 38
11. When the dose rate is greater than 100 mrem/hr, the following sign should be posted? A. Caution-Radiation Area B. Caution-High Radiation Area C. Caution-Radioactive Material D. Caution-Restricted Area Answer: B Reference: Levy, L. (2011) Radiation Therapy-Study Guide and Exam Review. Page 67
12. What is the annual dose limit for the general public if exposed continuously or frequently? A. 1.0 rem B. 5.0 rem C. 0.1 rem D. 0.5 rem Answer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 355
13. What unit is linear energy transfer measured in? A. keV/micrometer B. J/kg C. J/keV D. J/C Answer: A Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 58
14. Which of the following photon interactions is least important in radiation therapy? A. compton effect B. photoelectric effect C. pair production D. photodisintegration Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 292
15. Unlike the ion chamber, the ________ has a higher sensitivity and is not limited to detecting higher levels of radiation. A. TLD B. diode C. radiographic film D. Geiger-Muller detector Answer: B Reference: Kahn, F. (2010) The Physics of Radiation Therapy. (4th Edition) Page 136
16. The wedge factor is defined as the ratio of dose at depth with no wedge to the dose at depth with wedge. A. True B. False Answer: B Reference: Kahn, F. (2010) The Physics of Radiation Therapy. (4th Edition) Page 183
17. Define Planck’s constant? A. 6.022 x 1023 J/s B. 6.62 x 10-34 J/s C. 1.6 x 1019 J/s D. 6.22 x 10-14 J/s Answer: B Reference: Kahn, F. (2010) The Physics of Radiation Therapy. (4th Edition) Page 8
18. Which is the weakest force of nature? A. Gravitational force B. Strong nuclear force C. Weak nuclear force D. Electromagnetic force Answer: A Reference: Kahn, F. (2010) The Physics of Radiation Therapy. (4th Edition) Page 10
19. All of the following machines produce x-ray beams of 1 MV or greater except: A. Linear accelerator B. Cobalt-60 unit C. Cyclotron D. Orthovoltage unit D???
20. The process that destroys all microbial life forms is: A. Disinfection B. Sanitization C. Contamination D. Sterilization Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 217
21. The following are examples of transmission via droplet: 1. Coughing 2. Food 3. Ventilation 4. Physical contact A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 3 and 4 Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 193
22. Which is the difference between gamma rays and x-rays? A. Energy level B. Wavelength C. Frequency D. Origin Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 109
23. _____________ is the force responsible for the binding of the electrons and the nucleus to form the atoms. A. Strong Force B. Electromagnetic C. Weak Force D. Gravity Answer: B Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 278
24. What is the SI unit for radiation dose equivalent? A. Sievert (Sv) B. Gray (Gy) C. Baquerel (Bq) D. Coulomb (C) Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 278
25. LET is ______________ proportional to the square of the charge (Q) and _____________ proportional to the square of the velocity (v). A. Inversely, Inversely B. Directly, Directly C. Inversely, Directly D. Directly, Inversely Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 59
26. Quality assurance checks performed on a monthly basis include all of the following except: A. Jaw symmetry B. Electron beam flatness constancy C. Gantry rotation isocenter D. Field size indicator Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 371
27. Federal and State agencies require that signs be posted where there is radioactive material or radiation producing equipment. A. True B. False Answer: A Reference: (Levy, 2011)
Advantages when using film badges for radiation? I.Provides a permanent record of exposure II.They can detect approximate energy III.The reading is immediate IV.They are not damaged by heat, humidity, or light exposure A.I,III, and IV B.I and II C.II and III D.All answer:Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011)
29. At what percentage of the field is beam symmetry and flatness defined? A. 50 B. 80 C. 100 D. 105 Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011)
30. The following photon interaction with matter involves direct photon interaction with the nucleus: A. Photoelectric Effect B. Pair Production C. Compton Effect D. Rayleigh Scattering Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011)
31.Which of the following has the shortest half-life? A. Ra 226 B. Ir 192 C. U 238 D. Co 60 Answer: B Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
32. Emergency off switches should be checked: A. Daily B. Weekly C. Monthly D. Annually Answer: C Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) (Levy, 2011)
33. QA of sim lasers should be done daily within; A. 2mm B. 3mm C. 2cm D. 3cm Answer: A Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
34. According to the NCRP recommendations for embryo-fetus exposures; the dose equivalent in a month is: A. 0.25mSv B. 0.5mSv C. 1mSv D. 5mSv Answer: B Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
35. According to the NCRP recommendations for annual occupational exposures; the lens of the eye can receive: A. 50mSv B. 100mSv C. 150mSv D. 200mSv Answer: C Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
36. If a screening examination can identify a tumor in its early stages, it is_______? a. specific b. sensitive c. cost-effective d. accurate Answer: B Reference: Washington and Lever, pg 7
37. What staging system is commonly used with gynecologic tumors? a. TNM b. FIGO c. UICC d. AJCC Answer: B Reference: Washington and Lever, pg 8
38. What provides information about the aggressiveness and degree of differentiation? a. stage b. grade c. pathology d. a and b Answer: B Reference: Washington and Lever, pg 9
39. Multicentric tumors are often difficult to treat due to: a. more than one focus of disease b. volume of tissue required for treatment is larger c. tumor foci may be at different stages d. all of the above Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 17
40. A subjective indication of disease or a change in condition as perceived by the patient is? a. Sign b. Symptom c. Syndrome d. diagnosis Answer: B Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 87
41. Factors observed during the taking of pulse include I. Rate II. Rhythm III. Size IV. Tension a. I, II, III, and IV b. I, II, and IV c. I and II d. I, II, and III Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 91
42. When more than one cancer modality is used simultaneously, it is known as what? a. adjuvant therapy b. neoadjuvant therapy c. concurrent therapy d. concomitant therapy Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 16
43. Adenocarcinoma is the most common lung cancer found in: a. smokers b. nonsmokers c. those exposed to arsenic d. those exposed to radon Answer: B Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 673
44. The carina corresponds to hat vertebral body(ies)? a. T3 b. T5 & T6 c. T4 d. T4 &T5 Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 668
45. Malignant neoplasms that originate in the lympho-reticular tissues are called? A. Lymphomas B. Lymphosarcomas C. Sarcomas D. Lympho-reticulomas Answer: A Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 610
46. Which class of cytotoxic agent has the potential to burn the skin of the administrator? A. Antimetabolites B. Plant alkaloids C. Alkalating agents D. Hormones Answer: C Reference: Levy, L. (2011) Radiation Therapy-Study Guide and Exam Review. Page 251
47. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive? A. Kidney B. Lens of eye C. Testis D. Fetus Asnwer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 81
48. The decrease in many cellular components of the blood is called? A. Neutophilia B. Neutropenia C. Erythropenia D. Pancytopenia Answer: D Reference: Medterms.com http://www.medterms.com/script/main/art.asp?articlekey=4749
49. The iliac crest is at what level of the lumbar spine? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Answer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 388
50. The angle of Louis is at what level of the thoracic spine? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 Answer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 391
51. The xiphoid process is at what level of the thoracic spine? A. 7-8 B. 9-10 C. 11-12 D. 5-6 Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 408
52. The adrenal glands are located at what level of the thoracic spine? A. 10 B. 12 C. 8 D. 6 Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 407
53. The true vocal cords are located in the: A. subglottis B. glottis C. supraglottis D. epiglottis Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 396
54. The recommended prescribed dose to treat keloids is? A. 6-9 Gy B. 9-12 Gy C. 12-15 Gy D. 15-18 Gy Answer: B
55.The TD 5/5 for the testis is? A. 50 cGy B. 100 cGy C. 200 cGy D. 500 cGy Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 81
56. The TD 5/5 for the salivary glands is? A. 4000 cGy B. 4500 cGy C. 5000 cGy D. 6000 cGy Answer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 81
57. If a patient presents with a tumor in the upper inner quadrant of the breast , where would nodal metastasis usually occur? a. axillary nodes b. IM nodes c. supraclavicular nodes d. celiac nodes Answer: C
58. Another name for the node of Rouviere is: a. subdigastric node b. mastoid node c. retroauricular node d. lateral retropharyngeal node Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 698
59. The TD 5/5 for the brain is typically around: a. 60 Gy b. 70 Gy c. 50 Gy d. 45 Gy Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 714
60. All of the following are important aspects of a physical exam except: A. Palpation B. Inspection C. Screening D. Auscultation Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 89-91
61. The ACS recommends women _______ years & older to get an annual mammogram. A. 40 B. 45 C. 50 D. 60 Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 92
62. The two most common methods used to screen for prostate cancer are? 1. DRE 2. PSA 3. TRUS 4. DMIST A. 1,2 B. 2,4 C. 1,3 D. 1,4 Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 92
63. The MRI is most useful when studying: A. Tumor movement during respiration B. Biologic activity C. Tissue density D. Soft tissue Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 98
64. _____________ is defined as the degree of darkening on the image. A. Emulsion B. Tint C. Contrast D. Density Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 114
66. Most head and neck cancers are: A. Squamous cell carcinoma B. Adenocarcinoma C. Spindle cell D. Verrucous carcinoma Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 704-705
65. Risk factors for head and neck cancers include all of the following except: A. Tobacco B. Cavities C. Alcohol D. Viruses Answer: B Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 695-696
67. The most common site of metastasis for head and neck cancers is the: A. Kidneys B. Liver C. Bone D. Lungs Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 742
68. The three most important prognostic factors for CNS tumors are: 1. Age 2. Differentiation 3. Perfomance status 4. Tumor type A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4 Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 762
69. The treatment of choice for colon cancer is: A. Radiation only B. Chemotherapy and surgery C. Surgery and radiation D. Surgery only Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 798
70. Esophageal cancer tends to spread: A. Longitudinally B. Laterally C. Through lymphatics D. Posteriorly Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 799
71. In the TNM staging system, an x represents what? A. Carcinoma in situ B. Lymph node involvement C. Not assessable D. Distant metastasis Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. 18.
72. Tumors arising from mesenchymal cells are: A. Anaplastic B. Sarcomas C. Carcinomas D. Malignant Answer: B Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
73. TD 5/5 for the salivary glands is: A. 5000 cGy B. 4500 cGy C. 6000 cGy D. 7000 cGy Answer: A Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
74. Changes of the mouth (Xerostomia for example) occur between: A. 2000-3000 cGy B. 3000-4000 cGy C. 4000-6000 cGy D. 1000-2000 cGy Answer: A Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010) Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 99
75. ________ is a local treatment modality that plays a role in diagnosis , staging, primary treatment, and palliation. A. Chemotherapy B. Radiation Therapy C. Immunotherapy D. Surgery Answer: D Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
76. Radiation Therapy: I.Is a local treatment modality II.Can be used with other treatment modalities III. Includes external beam and brachytherapy IV. Is not used for palliation A. I and III B. II and IV C. I, II, and III D. I, II, III, and IV Answer: Answer: C Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
77. The Ann Arbor Staging System is used for: A. Non Hodgkin’s B. Hodgkin’s C. ALL D. CLL Answer: B Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
78. Etiology of lung cancer includes: I. Smoking II. Asbestos III. Crohn Disease IV. Pollution A. I and II B. I, II, and III C. I, II, and IV D. I, II, III, and IV Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011)
79. Divisions of the small bowel include all of the following except: A. Duodenum B. Jejunum C. Pylorus D. Ileum Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011
80. Techniques of the physical examination include: I. Inspection II. Palpation III. Percussion IV. Auscultation A. A only B. A and B C. A, B, and C D. A,B,C, and D Answer: D Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
81. TD 5/5 for the whole bladder is: A. 6500cGY B. 5500cGy C. 3000cGy D. 4500cGy Answer: A Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
82. The normal pulse rate for adults is: A. 110 to 120 beats/min B. 20 to 40 beats/min C. 40 to 60 beats/min D. 60 to 90 beats/min Answer: D Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
83. Patients with no history of smoking are often diagnosed with lung cancer of what histology? A. Small Cell Carcinoma B. Large Cell Carcinoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Squamous Cell Carcinoma Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011)
84. Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) is a risk factor associated with cancer of the: A. Cervix B. Nasopharynx C. Bladder D. Brain Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011)
85. Dukes Staging System is used for _________ cancer: A. Colon/Rectum B. Lung C. Esophagus D. Small Bowel Answer: A Reference: (Levy, 2011)
86. A sign is an objective finding as perceived by an examiner: True or False A. True B. False Answer: A Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
87. Tumors that are generally well differentiated and do not metastasize or invade surrounding normal tissue are: A. Anaplastic B. Benign C. Malignant D. Necrotic Answer: B Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
88. Patients with Hodgkin’s Lymphoma may experience B symptoms. B symptoms include: A. unexplained fever B. drenching night sweats C. weight loss D. all of the above Answer: D Reference: (Washington & Leaver, 2010)
89. The triangular-shaped surface landmark, which we use in radiation therapy that partially covers the external auditory meatus, is called? A. Helix B. Canthus C. Glabella D. Tragus Answer: D Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 394
90. The iliac crest is at what level of the lumbar spine? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 Answer: C Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 388
91.WB with opposing laterals, a way to minimize radiation into the eye opposite the entrance point would be to: a. CA of the beam near the lateral canthus b. Rotate collimator c. Turn the patient’s head slightly away d. rotate the couch away Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 757
92. When treating the entire spine of a patient, the posterior surface should be flat to ensure: a. Skin gaps are smaller b. position is reproducible c. Dose is more uniform d. Patients are most comfortable Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 757
93. One disadvantage to using a vertex field to treat primary brain lesion is that the field exits through the: a. brain and mediastinum b. pharynx and spinal cord c. orbits d. chest Answer: B Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 734
94.(Correct Order)for immobilization devices. I. Make the device II. Determine beam orientation III. Determine patient position IV. Determine appropriate device a. I, II, III, IV b. IV, III, II, I c. I, IV, II, III d. III, II, IV, Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 452
95. If an object measures 4.3 cm on the film, and is 3.1 cm in real life, what is the magnification factor? a. 1.39 b. 1.2 c. 2.45 d. 1.56 Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 122
96. Patient thickness is also known as a. patient width b. separation c. Intra field distance d. B and C Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 447
97. When calculating the monitor units of a cerrobend blocked field, one must include a. Wedge factor b. Tray factor c. ESQ of field with block d. B and C Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 502
98. A patient is treated with a tandem and ovoids receives a dose of 60 Gy to point A. What is the dose delivered to point B? a. 30 Gy b. 60 Gy c. 20 Gy d. 40 Gy Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 309-310
99. The dose under a 4 HVL block would be approximately: a. 10%-15% of the given dose b. 22%-27% of the given dose c. 5% - 8% of the given dose d. 3%-5% of the given dose Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg. 290
100. Pt has a large pelvix tumor involving the bladder and prostate, and there is a presacral mass, the best beam arrangement would be: a. Opposed anterior and posterior fields b. Opposed lateral fields c. four field box d. 90 degree wedged pair Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 848-850
101. If a patient’s CT scan has a pitch greater than 1, what might result? a. Over-scanning b. blur due to patient motion c. a and b d none of the above Answer: D Reference: Washington an Leaver, pg 479
102. The typical CT number of bone is: a. 0 b. 1000 c. 8000 d. -1000 Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 471
103. If a therapist raises the mAs while taking an image for a large patient, what is the result? a. an increase in the number of x-rays b. better image quality c. an increase in the average energy of the x-ray d. A and B e. B and C Answer: D Reference: Khan, Choonik’s notes, Imaging lecture
104. What is the collimator setting for a patient with 140 cm SSD on a linear accelerator with a treatment field size of 22 x 40? a. 16 x 29 b. 22 x 40 c. 11 x 20 d. 8 x 16 Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 497
105. What is the output of a machine if the SSD is changed from 80 cm to 60 cm, if the original output was 130 rad/min? a. 65 rad/min b. 110 rad/min c. 150 rad/min d. 231 rad/min Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 497
101. If a patient’s CT scan has a pitch greater than 1, what might result? a. Over-scanning b. blur due to patient motion c. a and b d none of the above Answer: D Reference: Washington an Leaver, pg 479
102. The typical CT number of bone is: a. 0 b. 1000 c. 8000 d. -1000 Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 471
103. If a therapist raises the mAs while taking an image for a large patient, what is the result? a. an increase in the number of x-rays b. better image quality c. an increase in the average energy of the x-ray d. A and B e. B and C Answer: D Reference: Khan, Choonik’s notes, Imaging lecture
104. What is the collimator setting for a patient with 140 cm SSD on a linear accelerator with a treatment field size of 22 x 40? a. 16 x 29 b. 22 x 40 c. 11 x 20 d. 8 x 16 Answer: B Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 497
105. What is the output of a machine if the SSD is changed from 80 cm to 60 cm, if the original output was 130 rad/min? a. 65 rad/min b. 110 rad/min c. 150 rad/min d. 231 rad/min Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 497
106. What is the blocked equivalent square for a 10 x 20 field with a 4 x 6 block? a. 13.3 b. 8.6 c. 15.6 d. 11.4 Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 498
107. What is the electronic equilibrium for a 6 MV beam? a. 1 cm b. 1.5 cm c. 2 cm d. 0.5 cm
108. What is the hinge angle for a 30-degree wedged pair treatment? a. 100 degrees b. 110 degrees c. 120 degrees d. 130 degrees Answer: c Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 175
109. What is the most suitable wedge for ideal tumor contour with two fields separated by 90 degrees a. 45 degrees b. 30 degrees c. 60 degrees d. 15 degrees Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 175
110. What is the equivalent square for a 15 x 6 field? a. 10 x 10 b. 9.5 x 9.5 c. 9 x 9 d. 8.6 x 8.6 Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 498
111. What is the practical range of 10 MeV electron beam in tissue? a. 3.33 cm b. 2.5 cm c. 5 cm d. 2 cm Answer: c Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 554
112. What is the depth of the 80% isodose line for a 12 MeV beam? a. 3 cm b. 6 cm c. 2.4 cm d. 4 cm Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 555
113. What is the average life of a radioactive source with a half-life of 32 minutes? a. 135 minutes b. 46 minutes c. 96 minutes d. 176 minutes Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 302
114. What is the depth of the 80% dose line for electron beam energy? a. 1/2 of the energy b. 1/3 of the energy c. 1/4 of the energy d. 1/5 of the energy Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 555
115. What is the magnification factor if the SOD is 70 cm and the SFD IS 100 cm? a. .7 b. .3 c. 1.3 d. 1.43 Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 122
116. A metal rod from a patient’s femur is 20 cm on film, what is the physical size of the rod? The SOD distance is 90 cm and the SFD is 120 cm. a. 15 cm b. 17 cm c. 22 cm d. 14 cm Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 122
117. Which of the following is used to obtain patient contours? A. CT Scan B. Pantograph C. Wire D. All of the above Answer: D (Levy, 2011)
118. _______ slice thickness may be used for non-IMRT treatment planning to reduce the amount of computer contouring of anatomy: A. 2mm B. 3mm C. 5mm D. 7mm Answer: C (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 95
119. The most common methods of administering contrast during CT simulation are: I. Intravenously II. Orally III. Intrathecally IV. Intra-articularly A. I and II B. I and III C. II and IV D. I,II,III, and IV Answer: A (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 473
120. Convulsions fall under which category of reactions to contrast media: A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe Answer: C (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 476
121. _______ indicates the gross palpable or visible tumor: A. GTV B. CTV C. PTV D. ITV Answer: A (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 445
122. Dmax for a 6MV beam is: A. 0 cm B. 0.5 cm C. 1.0 cm D. 1.5 cm Answer: D (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 496
123. The formula for half-value layer (HVL) is: A. 0.693/λ B. 0.693/µ C. A0e-λt D. Ioe-µx Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 290
124. The ratio of absorbed dose at a given depth in phantom to the absorbed dose at the same point in free space is defined as: A. TAR B. TMR C. PDD D. PSF Answer: A (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 500
125. Dmax for a 18MV beam is: A. 2.5 cm B. 3.5 cm C. 4.0 cm D. 4.5 cm Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 496
126. The ratio that is expressed as a percentage f the absorbed dose at a given depth to the absorbed dose at a fixed reference depth, usually Dmax is: A. TAR B. TMR C. PSF D. PDD Answer: D (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 499
127. Cerrobend is composed of what percent of bismuth? A. 50% B. 26% C. 13% D. 10% Answer: A (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 153
128. ________ indicated the gross palpable or visible tumor and a surrounding volume of tissue that may contain subclinical or microscopic disease: A. GTV B. CTV C. PTV D. ITV Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 445
129. A(n) ________device restricts patient movement and ensures reproducibility in positioning: A. Positioning B. Immobilization C. Electronic D. Boring Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 454
130. During CT simulation, laser alignment marks should be placed: A. At the level of anticipated treatment isocenter B. At the level of the central scan C. At the first image level D. At the final image level Answer: A (Levy, 2011)
131. Custom tissue compensators are used to: A. filter scattered electrons B. reduce the beam energy C. compensate for surface irregularity D. immobilize the patient Answer: C (Levy, 2011)
132. In the usual orientation of the three planes with respect to the patient: A. The transverse lies across the patient B. The sagittal lies across the patient C. The coronallies parallel x-axis D. The sagittal plane lies parallel z-axis Answer A
133. The ________ can be used to find the lower border of the larynx. A. Hard palate B. Thyroid cartilage C. Cricoid cartilage D. Hyoid bone Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 395
134. The angle of Louis can be found at the level of T4. A. True B. False Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 391
135. The crest of the iliac can be found at the level of: A. L3 B. L5 C. L2 D. L4 Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 399
136. The carina can be found at the level of: A. T4-T5 B. T6-T7 C. T3-T4 D. T7-T8 Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 399
137. Supraclavicular nodes are located ___________ to the clavicle. A. Inferior B. Posterior C. Medially D. Superior Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 402
138. The superior portion of the rectum can be found at the level of: A. S1 B. S2 C. S3 D. S4 Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 405
139. The xiphoid process can be found at the level of: A. T11 B. T12 C. T8 D. T10 Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 408
140. The hyoid bone can be found at the level of: A. C3 B. C4 C. C5 D. C6 Answer: B Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 408
141. ___________ is the delivery of smaller doses BID to achieve an increase in the total dose delivered in the same time overall. A. Hyperfractionation B. Hypofractionation C. Protraction D. Fractionation Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 946
142. The GTV includes: A. Gross palpable or visible tumor surrounding microscopic disease B. answers from A and margin for set up error C. Gross palpable or visible tumor and margin for movement D. Gross palpable or visible tumor Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg.945
143. Calculate the skin gap for two abutting fields using the following information. L1=20, L2=25, SSD1=100, SSD2=105, d1=5, d2=5 A. 1.5 B. 3.2 C. 1.1 D. 2.1 Answer: C
144. ___________ is the ratio of the absorbed dose at a given depth in phantom to the absorbed dose at the same point at the level of dmax in phantom. A. TAR B. PDD C. TMR D. TPR Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 954
145. As SSD increases, penumbra: A. Decreases B. Disappears C. Increases D. Stays the same Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 172
146. When treating with a wedged pair, the ________ should be together. A. Heels B. Toes Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 171
147. The primary use of bolus is to: A. Bring the dose to the surface B. Compensate for missing tissue C. Make the dose homogenous D. Decrease surface dose Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 170
148. The components of cerrobend are: A. Berrill, lead, tin, and copper B. Berrill, lead, tin, and cadmium C. Bismuth, lead, tin, and copper D. Bismuth, lead, tin, and cadmium Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 170
149. An orthogonal set are films are taken ____ degrees apart A. 30 B. 45 C. 90 D. 180 Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 168
150. Positioning aids primary goal is to: A. Verify patient position B. Make the patient comfortable C. Hold the patient in position D. Reproduce the patients position daily Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 165
151. Daily charting should include all of the following except: A. Treatment number B. Time C. Elapsed days D. Date Answer: B Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 162
152. An image intensifier converts: a. X-ray image to light image at input screen b.light image to electronic image at input screen c. electronic image to light image at input screen d. amplified image to electronic image at output screen Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 425-426
153. After setting up a patient, a therapist removes their gloves and does not wash their hands. This is a violation of: a. Standard precautions b. Universal precautions c. Body substance isolation precautions d. B and C Answer: B Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 211
154. Your breast patient is starting the first day of their boost today, and you notice the prescription calls for a 450cGy/fraction dose. What should you do? a. Continue treating b. Alert dosimetry c. Contact physics d. Contact the oncologist Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 163
155. What type of monitoring device might you use to record the dose a portion of the treatment field receives? a. G-M detector b. pocket dosimeter c. TLD d. Cutie pie detector Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 351
156. Treatment machine parameters monitored by Verify and Record system include: a. Monitor units b. Gantry position c. Bolus Application d. Immobilization device e. All of the above f. A, B, and C Answer: F Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 160
157. The period over which radiation is delivered is known as: a. Fractionation b. Protraction c. Daily Dose d. None of the above Answer: B
158. irradiating extremeties spare: a. Bone- prevent obstruction of lymph flow b. Tissue- extremity prevent obstruction on lymph flow c. Tissue- entire extremity prevent obstruction of blood flow (BF) d. Muscle on each side- prevent obstruction BF Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 589
159. If a 60-degree wedge is left out of two of five treatments the central axis dose is: a. Increase, dose distribution is affected b. Decreased,dose distribution is affected c. Decreased, dose d is not affected d. Increase, dose d is not affected Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 529
160. In the proton treatment, the dose distribution spikes at a depth and then suddenly drops; this change in dose distribution is called? a. Buildup b. Dose maximum c. Dose falloff d. Bragg peak Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 296
161. How many cobalt sources are in a gamma knife unit? a. 176 b. 201 c. 280 d. 301 Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 323
162. A 360 degree rotation has an MU/degree setting of 0.72 MU/degree, how many monitor units are delivered? a. 201 b. 180 c. 360 d. 259 Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 175
163. The prescription says to deliver 50 Gy, what is the dose in rad? a. 0.50 b. 50 c. 500 d. 5000 Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 271
164. What is the block equivalent square for a 10 x 10 cm field that has a block of 2 x 5 cm? a. 9.5 x 9.5 b. 9 x 9 c. 8 x 8 d. 10.2 x 10.2 Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 499
165. Adults undergoing total body irradiation may be treated at an extended distance while assuming the position of: A. standing B. semirecumbent position C. trendelenberg position D. Sim’s position Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011)
166. Total dose for prophylactic cranial irradiation for small cell lung cancer is typically: A. 20 Gy B. 30 Gy C. 36 Gy D. 45 Gy Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011)
167. If the patient is positioned prone with feet away from the gantry, and the digital readout is 20 degrees, the proper beam projection would be called: A. RAO B. LAO C. RPO D. LPO Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011)
168. If a 1 cm bolus is applied to an area being treated with a 6 MV beam, the maximum dose point will be located at: A. the skin surface B. 0.5 cm below the skin surface C. 1 cm below the skin surface D. 1.5 cm below the skin surface Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011)
169. The distance from the source of radiation to the part of the patient’s skin where the beam enters is called the: A. SAD B. SSD C. SFD D. SOD Answer: B Reference: (Levy, 2011)
170. The majority of radiation therapy treatments involving linear accelerators are normally delivered using a source to axis distance of: A. 50 cm B. 80 cm C. 100 cm D. 120 cm Answer: C Reference: (Levy, 2011)
171. A patient who is in cardiac arrest is a level _____ on the Karnofsky performance scale. a. 20 b. 5 c. 0 d. 100 Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 234
172. A patient with a systemic infection risks _____ shock. a. Anaphylactic shock b. cardiogenic c. None of the above d. Septic Answer: D Reference: Levy, pg 127
173. For an area to be completely free of pathogens, you should follow: a. Surgical asepsis b. Medical asepsis c. gloved technique d. Universal Precautions Answer: A Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 204
174. What is the result of abnormal pressure on the cardiac muscle usually due to the excessive accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac? a. mitral stenosis b. pericarditis c. tachycardia d. pericardial tamponade Answer: D Reference: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmedhealth/PMH0001245/
175. Your patient has a continuous infusion regulator. During treatment, the regulator begins to alarm. The therapist should: a. Silence the alarm b. Reset the regulator c. Alert the physician or nurse d. Pull out the catheter Answer C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 13-14
176. A patient arrives in a wheelchair and is unable to stand. The best transfer method is: a. draw sheet b. slider board c. gait belt d. 2 to 3 person lift Answer: D Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 165
177. The volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood per 100 ml is the: a. erythrocytes b. leukocytes c. hematocrit d. hemoglobin Answer: C Reference: Washington and Leaver, pg 97
178. Which instrument is needed to evaluate a patient’s blood pressure? a. Stethoscope b. Thermometer c. Sphygmomanometer d. A clock Answer: c Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 91
179. A chemical substance used to kill pathogens on surfaces is: a. Antiseptic b. Antibiotic c. Deodorizer d. Disinfectant Answer: d Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 217
180. What is the normal systolic rate from an adult’s blood pressure reading? a. 110 to 140 mm Hg b. 60 to 80 mm Hg c. 80 to 100 mm Hg d. 130 to 150 mm Hg Answer: a Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 91
181. What is the normal diastolic rate from an adult’s blood pressure reading? a. 110 to 140 mm Hg b. 60 to 80 mm Hg c. 80 to 100 mm Hg d. 130 to 150 mm Hg Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 91
182. A rectal temperature of an adult will read: a. 96.8° F b. 98.6° F c. 99.6° F d. 97.6° F
183. Alopecia may be seen at what dose: a. 1000 cGy b. 1500 cGy c. 2000 cGy d. 2500 cGy Answer: c Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 231
184. Erythema may be seen at what dose: a. 2000-3000 cGy b. 3000-4000 cGy c. 4000-5000 cGy d. 5000-6000 cGy Answer: b Reference: Washington, C.; Leaver, D. (2010) Radiation Therapy. (3rd Edition) Page 231
185. The _________ developed The Standard of Ethics A. ASRT B. NCRP C. ARRT D. HIPAA Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 23
186. All of the following are included in the Patient’s Bill of Rights except: A. High quality patient care B. A clean & safe environment C. Protection of your privacy D. Financial assistance Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 27
187. The __________ is a legal document that allows an individual to designate anyone 18 yrs. or older to be a surrogate and make health care decisions. A. Health care contract B. Living will C. Advanced directive D. Durable power of attorney Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 36
188. _________ is known as the personal injury law A. Tort B. Assault & battery C. Negligence D. Doctrine of personal liability Answer: A Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 38
189. Informed consent must include: A. Documentation of health history B. List of prescription needed C. Verbal agreement on the cost D. The nature of the procedure, treatment, and disease Answer: D Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 31
190. ________ is truthfulness within the realm of health care practice A. Justice B. Teleogy C. Veracity D. Consequentialism Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 27
191. Nonverbal cues of communication include all of the following except: A. Eye contact B. Body position C. Tone of voice D. Facial expression Answer: C Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Louis: Mosby Inc., pg. 227
192. _____________ is the state of general ill health and nutrition with early satiety: electrolyte and water imbalances; and progressive loss of body weight, fat, and muscle. A. Anorexia B. Cachexia C. Marasmus D. Kwashiorkor Answer: B Washington, C. M., & Leaver, D. (2010). Principles and Practice of Radiation Therapy. St. Lou
193.Dyspnea is a ________ reaction to contrast media: A. Mild B. Moderate C. Severe D. None of the above Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 476
194. _________ produces symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, shortness of breath, airway obstruction, and vascular shock A. Anaphylactic Shock B. Asthma Attack C. Cardiac Arrest D. Pulmonary Edema Answer: A (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 250
195. Urticaria is: A. Cardiac Arrest B. a Bloody nose C. Painful urination D. Hives Answer: D (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 253
196. Which of the following is not a route of transmission: A. Contact B. Droplet C. Airborne D. Convalescence Answer: D (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 193
197. Involves the rapid transfer of the infectious agent through the air over short distances, such as in talking, coughing, or sneezing close to someone’s face: A. Airborne B. Droplet C. Vectorborne D. Contact Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 193
198. MRSA stands for: A. Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus B. Methotrexate-Reacting Streptococcal Aureus C. Mechlorethamine-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus D. Methicillin-Resistant Streptococcal Aureus Answer: A (Levy, 2011)
199. Methods of infection control in which any human blood or body fluid is treated as if it were known to be infectious: A. Standard Precautions B. Universal Precautions C. Transfer Precautions D. Liquid Precautions Answer: B (Washington & Leaver, 2010) pg 164
200. Patients receiving treatment in the oral cavity may experience: A. Radioactive Fillings B. Sore and Sensitive Teeth C. Sore Cheeks and Gums D. Metallic Taste when eating Answer: C (Levy, 2011) is: Mosby Inc., pg. 233
What is the high voltage setting of an x-ray unit referred to as? The Peak Voltage
How much percent is the mean accelerating voltage of the peak voltage (KvP)? 30-50%
How is the intensity of an x-ray produced? By the # of e- hitting the anode ( this is expressed by mA
What is beam current determined by? Cathode filament temp (only)
20 keV is damaging to skin and can not penetrate the skin, what is use to prevent damage done to the skin when giving an x-ray? X-rays use filters (thin aluminum/copper) plates.
What do filters do for x-rays? They remove the unwanted low energy photons. This is also called "Hardening" the beam
When you Harden the beam, what do you do to the energy of the photon? You increase it
What is the Axis of the bundle of photons called? Central Ray
What is Elastic Scatter? Interaction of photons undergoing a change in direction without loss of energy
What is the Photoelectric effect? An interaction in which the incident photon delivers all of its energy to an atom which in return releases the energy in form of an electron. A "photoelectron" emitts from one of the inner shells at a high speed.
What is inelastic scatter? Interaction of an X-ray photon with outershell electrons.
How fast do photons travel when coming out of the gantry? 3.0 * 10^8 m/s which is the speed of light (c)
How is an atom ionized? When an electron is booted off a shell
Quality of energy absorbed by the tissues is expressed in what unit? Gy
1 Gy = ?joule/kg 1 joule/kg
The biologicial effect of radiation is expressed in what unit? It is also known as the ionizing radiaiton unit. Sv Sievert This is the absorbed dose (Gy)* the "quality factor"
What is the former unit for radiation? Rad
1 Gy = ?rads 100rads
Quality factors for x-rays and gamma emitting isotopes is? alph radiation? and slow beta radiation? 1,10,2
Linear magnification equation. m=D/d=FFD/FOD= FFD/FFD-OFD OFD= object to film distance FOD= Focal spot or Focus to object distance FFD= Focus to film distance
Tumors are a result of what? Abnormal proliferation
Which of the following does NOT govern ethics? A. Professional codes B. Popular science C. Patient's Bill of Rights D. Technical practice Popular Science
The foundation of law is: A. autonomy B. confidentiality C. Justice D. Ethics Ethics
Moral ethics are based on which of the following? A. Right and wrong B. Institutions C. Legal Rights D. Codes Right and wrong
Which of the following is an ethical principle? A. Justice B. Individual freedom C. Egoism D. Confidentiality Justice
Confidentiality, truth telling, and benevolence are chich of the following? A. Ethical principles B. Legal Rights C. Ethical characteristics D. Legal doctrines Ethical Principles
A tort falls under which of the following? A. Criminal law B. Statutory law C. Civil law D. Common law Civil law
Res ispsa loquitur means which of the following? A. Things speak for themselves B. The thing speaks for itself C. Do no harm D. No negligence was involved The thing speaks for itself
Esophagus risk factors Alcohol and tobacco use. Diet low in Fruits and veges, High in fat low in fiber
Spinal Cord Tumors and most CNS tumors are not metastatic T or F False
RT side effects of CNS Tx Fatigue, Hair loss, erythema, edema. Late side effects Cataracts and radionecrosis
Benign Tumors are not treated the same as malignant tumors? T or F False
CNS symptoms Pain, weakness , loss of sensation, loss of bowel or bladder
Symptoms of Brain Tumors? HA, Seizure, Balance issues, aphasia
Metastatic Tx vs Primary Whole brains are metastatic, Larger fields, Higher doses with less fractions of tx are also to be factors of metastatic or palliative care. When tx of radiation are 35 fx with a low dose with it or SRS tx's
Brain tumors aer the 1st leading cause of pediatric deaths False, Second leading of ALL cancers
Brain tumors account for 20% of pediatric cancer. T or F True
What is 50% of primary tumors of brain cancer in adults Gliomas
Symptoms are not dependent on whether or not they are functioning or nonfunctioning tumors (depending on the tumor type) T or F False, they are dependent
Tumors of the endocrine system may or may not exhibit symptoms based on horomone effects. T or F True
Pituitary tumors are more aggressive than CNS tumors? T or F False, they are less aggressive
What type of tx is completely unresponsive to anaplastic endocrine carcinoma? RT
Routes of spread of Endocrine cancer Blood or lymph
Which ethical Theory group evaluates an activity by weighing good against bad? A.Deontology B. Teleology C. Virtue ethics D. Moral ethics Teleology
Whcih ethical model identifies the caregiver as a scientist dealing only with the facts and does not consider the human aspect of the patient? A.Collegial B. Convenent C. Engineering D. Priestly Engineering
Of the following, which modelpresents a more cooperative method of pursuing health care for patients and providers athan the others? A. Analytical B. Engineering C. Convenent D. Collegial Collegial
Core beleifs concerning waht is desireable and that help assess the worth of intangibles are called: A. Prospects B. Principles C. Theories D. Values Values
Informed consent must be secured: A. In writing B. verbally C. Verbally and written D. Upon admission In writing
Consent to release a patients health care records: A. Must be secured from the patient only B. Must be secured from the patient in writing C. Must be secured from teh patient both orally and in writing D. is not requried Must be secured from the patient in writing
Copies of the incident reports should be: A. be included in teh patients medical record B. sent to the floor on which the patient is housed. C. Given to the patient D. Sent to the office of risk management Sent to the office of risk management
The acronym HIPAA stands for: A.Health improvement policy and accountability act B. Health Information policy and action act C. Health Insurance protability and accountability act D. Health Improvement privacy and action act Health Insurance portability and accountability act.
Most important diagnostic tool Biopsy
Most presentation of thyroid cancer Palpable neck mass
Where do the most tumors occur in the endocrine system? Thyroid
where does breast CA metastisize to? Brain, bone, lung, liver
Clinical presentation of breast CA Painless lump ( most common presentation) Nipple discharge (2nd most)
Lymph nodes involved with breast cancer 70% of lymph node drainage occurs in axilla
Breast Ca is most common cancer in women. T or F True
Preventative measures for skin melanoma Sunscreen, Protective clothing, and avoiding sun
Treatment types of skin cancer Sx is primary curative measure of choice to tx all skin cancer (primary tx of melanoma and only cure for melonoma)*Cosmetic appearance prevents some sx*
What are the layers of skin? Dermis and Epidermis
Who has a greater chance of developing Skin CA in geographical location? Live near the equator and in High altitudes
When is radiation therpay used in tx? Post-op
Where do soft tissue sarcomas commonly metastisize to? Lung
How common are STS's Extremely Rare
What are the acute and late effects of treatment chemo and RT Acute: fever, mucositis, nausea, vomiting Late: Edema, fibrosis secondary malignancy, sterility
Where is the location of bone tumors? Distal femur or proximal tibia are the two most common sites
What is the most common site for bone tumors? Growth plate or episphyseal plate
Which type is the most common of the bone tumors? Osteosarcoma
What are the two types of bone tumors and what is the majority of bone tumors? Primary is rare and Metastatic is most common
Hypogeusia Distortion of taste
Trismus Lock jaw
Achalasia Difficulty swallowing
Osteonecrosis Bone death
Xerostomia Dry mouth
Dermatitis Inflammation of the dermis
Enteral Passing through the intestines with a tube
Dysgeusia No taste
Plummer-Vinson Syndrome Iron diffeciency anemia difficulty swallowing
Tenesmus Evacuate bowels
Cystitis Inflammation of the bladder
Mucositis Inflammation of mucous
Dendrites Branches of the neuron that conduct electro chemical stimulation collects
axons nerve fiber projection of nerve cell moves impulses away
Friable tumor Solid substance able to be reduced to smaller pieces with little effort
Lymphadenopathy Disease of lymph nodes
Xeroderma Pigmentosum XP inherited condition extreme sensitivity to UV light
Multiplicity Multiplying
Cancer of the rectum and colon only spread by direct extension. T or F False but Direct extension is the most common way.
The most common histology for esophageal cancer in the U.S. is adenocarcinoma. T or F True
Anal Cancer spreads most commonly by direct extension. T or F True
If chemo is used concurrently with RT, Prescribed doses of RT will be lower. T or F True
Esophageal cancers have a great prognosis and are most commonly treated by RT alone. False they have a poor prognosis
Barrett's esophagus is a common risk factor for developing squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus. T or F False Adenocarcinoma
Risk Factors for developing esophageal cancer are diets high in fiber and low in fat. T or F False High in fat and low in fiber
Esophageal cancer commonly spread to the liver and pancreas. T or F False Lung not the pancreas
Common side effects of RT when it is used to treat esophageal cancer are: Esophagitis, inability to eat solid foods, pain during swallowing and weight loss
What diet will you recommend to your pts whoare being treated withRT for esophageal Cancers Soft foods, bland diet, no alcohol
what are the two most common staging systems used for colorectal cancers and how is it commonly treated? AJCC and Duke's usually patients will have SX with concurrent RT
Survival rates of ovarian CA. Most deadly GYN ca 4th leading cancer death overall
Presentation of cervical ca Postcoital bleeding, foul smelling discharge, and pelvic pain
Rate of progression in cervical ca? Progress slowly 2nd highest death rate which depends on the lymph nodes
Staging of cervical Ca? FIGO
Responsibilities of RT for GYN ca? Sim/Treat, positioning, remind of diet and full bladder
Diagnostic tools for diagnosing GYN ca MRI, CT and Cystocopy
Risk factors for GYN cancers? Increased number of sex partners, sex at an early age, and partners with penile ca
Mottled lesion abnormal spot or smear of color on skin
Symptoms of metastatic disease HA, Siezure, jaundice, SOB, Abdominal swelling
Lentigo small pigmented spot
nevi birthmark
occult disease Hidden disease
Radiation Caries Dental cavities caused by radiation
Coracoid process Scapula
Hyperparathyroidism Excessive production of the parathyroid horomones
Colorectal ca is the 2nd leading ca death
Route of spread for anal cancer Direct extension ( most common) lymph and hematogenous is less common
Side effects of RX to esophagus Ca painful swallowing, esophagitis, weight loss
What is the staging system for CNS tumors? NO universal staging system
Grade is more important than size of tumor? T or F True
The grade of a tumor is most important prognostic indicator for brain tumors? T or F True
Rubber and Vinyl are not linked to gliomas? T or F False they are linked
Proctitis Inflammation of the rectum
Where do STS'S occur? Anywhere in the connective tissue
How do soft tissue sarcomas spread? Primarly by blood they spread to the lung ( most common site)
what are the subtypes of sarcomas Liposarcomas 23%
What is the most important prognostic factor Grade
What are the main types of skin ca Basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell, and malignant melanoma
What categories do individuals who are prone to getting skin cancer? Geographic, skin type, multiplicity and gender
What is the etiology of skin ca UV light, protection 90% prevented UVA and UVB light
Squamous cell carcinoma classification Faster growing than basal cell and has a higher propensity to mets
Detection and DX of Skin CA Monthly skin checks
What are the nonmelanoma skin cancers basal cell and squamous cell
Risk factors for breast ca Inherited BRCA1-2 gene
Prognostic indicators of breast ca Higher # of nodes increases the recurrence rate, # of axillary LN involvment is most important and infiltrating ductal is most common histology
What are the endocrine organs Thyroid (Most common tumors 94% of them) Parathyroid, Pituitary glands, Adrenal glands, Islets of langerhans ( specialized cells in pancreas)
Prognosis depends on what? Extent at the time
Where are teh tumors located externally and internally for endocrine ca? Internally is the Pituitary gland. Externally behind the TMJ between the eyes
Indicators of prognosis for esophageal ca Depth of tumor penetration and extent of nodal involvement
main division fo the lung cancers as well as mesotheliomas Nose, Pharynx, larynx, trachea, both lungs. Mesothelioma has a greater rate (Asbestos)
Identify how a diagnosis of leukemia is confirmed Blood count. Bone marrow and aspiration biopsy
Lhetmitte's Sign Pain resembling electric shock through body
Staging for Hodgkins and larynx cancer Ann Arbor
Hodgkins B Symptoms Night sweats, weight loss, and fevers
Spread pattern for Hodgkins Predicatable, Adjacent node or region, spleen liver bone(late) lungs skeletal
Prognosis for Hodgkins Good
Prognosis for NHL Not Good
Age group for Hodgkins Younger
Age Group for NHL Elder
Histology for sinus Cancer Adenocarcinoma
Incontinence Inability to hold bowel/ bladder
Pruritis Itching
Abdominoperineal resection Anterior incision into the abdominal wall, with the construction of a colostomy followed by a perineal incision to remove rectum and anus and draining lyphatics
Impotence Inability to obtain and erection
ALL AML CLL CML Acute Lymphatic Leukemia Acute myelogenous Leukemia Chronic Lymphatic Leukemia Chronic myelogenous Leukemia
Lymph Organs Spleen is the largest lymphatic tissue. Thymus, tonsils
Prognosis for H&N cancers Unfavorable are lesions that cross midline, cranial nerve involvement and fixed nodes.
Etiology for H&N cancers Leukoplakia ( white patches) Keratosis, erythorplasia (red velvet patches)
Etiology for nasopharyngeal cancers Epstein barr virus
Epidemiology for H&N cancers Alcohol, smoking paint fumes
What is a signigicant factor for H&N cancers Morbidity
Most common site for H&N cancers Oral cavity, pharynx, larynx, and salivary glands
pathology for colorectal ca Adenocarcinoma is most common in large bowel
Etiology for colorectal ca Diet high in animal fat and low in fiber
Staging for Hodgkins Ann Arbor system
Two categories of lymphomas Hodgkins and Non- Hodgkins
RX fields to treat hodgkins mantle
Hodgkins side effects Fatigue, erythema, dry cough and pneumitis
Risk factors for lung ca smoking
Most common symptoms of lung ca dry cough, dyphenia, and chest pain
Common sites for lung mets Liver, brain, bone
Critical structures when treating lung heart, healthy lung tissue, spine
what is a pancoast tumor In the Apex of the lung
Cancers associated with Philadelphia chromosome Leukemia, CML originate from prepurlent cells
Cancers associated with EBV and Reed sternberg viruses Hodgkins
Treatment most effective for tongue cancer RX
Region of larynx most commonly dx with cancer Glottic, Subglottic, and supraglottic
Prognosis testicular Ca Good
Symptoms of testicular ca painless swelling, nodal mass, dull ache, heaviness, and LBP
What happens when chemo and radiation are used together Chemo makes radiation more sensitive so one can give a lower dose of radiation
Histology of Testicular CA germ cell Seminoma
Spread route of bladder cancer Direct extension, lymph nodes and blood
Bladder histology Squamous 6%, Adenocarcinoma 2%, papillary is the most common
Kidney histology Adenocarcinoma
Urethra Histology Squamous Cell
Most common type of H&N ca Squamous Cell
Penile cancer histology Squamous cell, majority is well differentiated
Critical structures when treating prostate ca Bladder and rectum
Created by: Traldric